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Quiz 4 Exam 4 Flashcards

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1
Q

what is energy essential for

A

-sustaining life supporting cellular activities

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2
Q

what do cells need a continuous supply of and why

A

-O2 to support energy
- generating chemical reactions, also because you have to supply the mitochondria

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3
Q

what has to happen in order to prevent fluctuations in PH and why

A

-the CO2 that is produced during reactions must be eliminated at same rate it is produced to prevent fluctuations in PH
-is this doesn’t happen then the the Ph changes to acidosis and alkalosis

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4
Q

define respiration

A

-the processes that accomplish passive movement of O2 from atmosphere to tissues
-continual passive movement of metabolically produced CO2 from tissues to atmosphere

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5
Q

how does the respiratory system contribute to homeostasis

A

-by exchanging O2 and Co2 between atmosphere, blood and tissues

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6
Q

what are the two separate but related process that are encompasses in respiration

A

-cellular respiration and external/ internal respiration

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7
Q

describe cellular respiration

A

-intracellular metabolic processes (mitochondria) which used O2 and produces Co2 while deriving energy from nutrients
-used in the consumption of O2

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8
Q

describe external/ internal respiration (key word is exchange)

A

-External: exchange of O2 and Co 2 between external environment and cells
-air comes in, goes to the alveoli and O2 will enter capillaries and CO2 leaves (external respiration deals with external air)
-from the nose to the bronchioles
internal: happen at the tissue level and O2
-air comes out of the capillaries and to the organ that need it
-gas exchange at tissue level
-between systemic capillaries and their tissues

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9
Q

what is in the upper respiratory tract of the respiratory system

A

-nose
-pharynx and the associated structures

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10
Q

what is in the lower respiratory tract of the respiratory system

A

-larynx (voice box), trachea (air tube) , bronchi, lungs

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11
Q

what are the two zones based on function and how are they different

A

-conducting zone: tube the conducts air to respiratory zone and back out after gas exchange
-nose to the terminal bronchioles
respiratory zone: the respiratory zone does the opposite
-the difference is based on how diffusion takes place
-where gas exchange happens in the bronchioles and alveoli
-starts at the respiratory bronchi and ends at the alveoli

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12
Q

what are the structures in the conducting zone (remember cartilage and smooth muscle)

A

-nose (cilia) to terminal bronchioles (ciliated debris removal)
-passage way for air movement
-cartilage holds tube system open
-smooth muscle controls tube diameter

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13
Q

describe the structures in the respiratory tract (hint: this is talking about the bronchioles and alveoli)

A

-respiratory bronchioles to alveoli
-site for gas exchange
-the alveoli are clustered at the end of bronchioles (this is the deepest place where gas exchange takes place)
-alveoli are tiny air sacs where gases are exchanged between air and blood

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14
Q

what are Type II (surfactant- secreting) cells and when are they affected

A

-these cells prevent surface tension and preemies need O2 because there is a lot of surface tension

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15
Q

what do squamous epithelial cells make up

A

-these make up the alveoli

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16
Q

what placement for the capillaries need to have for optimal gas exchange

A

-they have to be next to each other

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17
Q

why are colds more common in the winter during the summer

A

there is less humidity, which means that the whether is dryer and this dries out the nasal mucosa
-you also spend more time inside, and the closer proximity- dry nasal passaged making one more susceptible to a cold

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18
Q

are you more likely to get a cold if you do not dress warmly during the winter

A

-no but keeping warm will help the immune system fight off colds

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19
Q

what are the 3 separate functions in respirations

A

1.ventilation
2.gas exchange (diffusion): gas exchange between the alveoli and capillaries is external respiratory O2 is going into the capillaries
-External Resp.: air and pulmonary capillaries
-Internal Resp.: systemic capillaries and tissues (O2 leaves blood)
3.O2 utilization- cellular respiration (aerobic metabolism)

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20
Q

Describe Boyles Law (altering pressure gradient)

A

-pressure of gas is inversely proportional to it’s volume
-you alter pressure gradient by changing the volume of the thorax area
-increase in lung volume decreased intrapulmonary pressure (because you want air to enter easily (air goes in)
-decreased lung volume, raises intrapulmonary pressure above atmosphere (air goes out) bc there is less lung capacity

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21
Q

Describe Inspiration (contration of muscles, what muscle contract and volume changes)

A

-an active process
-contraction of muscle to change volume and create pressure difference
-contraction of diaphragm, increases thoracic volume vertically
-contraction external intercostals and parasternal, increases thoracis volume laterally (horizontally)
-increase in lung volume decreases pressure in alveoli, and air rushes in

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22
Q

Describe Quiet Expiration

A

-its a passive process bc of relaxation
-after being stretched, lungs recoil
-decrease in lung volume raises pressure within alveoli above atmosphere and pushes air out

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23
Q

Describe the changes in thoracic volume and sequence of events during inspiration

A

Sequence of Events:
-inspiratory muscles contract (diaphragm descends; ribs cage rises)
-thoracic cavity volume increases
-lungs are stretched; intrapulmonary volume increases
-intrapulmonary pressure drops (to -1mm Hg)
-air (gases flows into lungs down its pressure gradient until intrapulmonary pressure is 0 (equal to atmospheric pressure)
Changes in thoracic Volume:
-ribs are elevated and sternum flares as external intercostals contract
-diaphragm moves inferiorly during contraction
Changes in lateral dimensions:
external intercostals contract

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24
Q

Describe the changes in thoracic volume and sequence of events during expiration

A

Sequence of events:
-inspiratory muscles relax (diaphragm rises; rib cage descends due to recoil of costal cartilages)
-thoracic cavity volume decreases
-elastic lungs recoil passively; intrapulmonary volume decreases
-intrapulmonary pressure rises (to +1 mm Hg)
-air (gases) flows out of lungs down its pressure gradient until intrapulmonary pressure is 0
Changes in thoracic volume:
-ribs and sternum are depressed as external intercostals relax
-diaphragm moves superiorly as it relaxes
Changes in lateral dimensions:
-external intercostals relax

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25
Q

Apply the Boyle law of application to the atmosphere (higher elevation)

A

-less pressure and more volume
-the further we are from the center of the earth there is more volume
-some # of O2 molecules, part of pressures is caused by O2 molecules bumping into each other
-there is more space for the O2 molecules to disperse

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26
Q

Apply the Boyle law of application to water bottles in elevation

A

-it expands to meet the lower pressure
-when you come back down it shrinks bc there is more pressure

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27
Q

Describe the transports of gas through circulatory system (solubility)

A

-solubility of O2 and CO2 in aqueous fluids is low, without another method to help diffusion of these gasses would be low (this can’t happen on it’s own so u need metabolic proteins)
-animals solve this problems with respiratory pigments

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28
Q

What are metalloproteins and what process is it apart of (remember pigments)

A

-respiratory pigments, these are the carries for O2
-proteins containing metal ions which reversibly bind to the O2
-this is apart of the transportation of gas through the circulatory system
-Hemoglobin is one of these

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29
Q

what is hemoglobin

A

-iron protein
-apart of the metalloproteins
-allows us to survive
-the maximum O2 that is allowed to be carried by hemoglobin is 4
-fills red blood cells
-increase oxygen carrying capacity 50- fold
-CO2 carried as bicarbonate bound to hemoglobin and dissolved in plasma
-think of hemoglobin kind of like an uber
-some CO2 can be dissolved in the blood
Co2 can be carried by hemoglobin in the form of bicarbonate

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30
Q

Describe the Influence of Po2 on hemoglobin saturation

A

-oxygen-hemoglobin dissociation curve:
S-Shaped, not linear
-how readily O2 binds to hemoglobin
-binding and releases of O2 influenced by Po2

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31
Q

what does Po2 mean

A

partial pressure of oxygen

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32
Q

describe functional anatomy of the respiratory system (permitting ari flow)

A

-to permit airflow into and out of gas exchanging portions of lungs, airways, from enterane through terminal bronchioles and alveoli must remain open
-respiratory diseases disorders can result in partial/ complete air way blockage

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33
Q

what does IRV stand for, what is it, and what is the typical range

A

-inspiratory reserve volume
1.9-2.5L
-what is left after normal breathing
-the maximal amount of additional air that can be drawn into the lungs by determined effort after normal inspiration

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34
Q

what does TV stand for, what is it, and what is the typical range

A

-Tidal volume
-normal breathing
0.4-0.5 L

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35
Q

what does ERV stand for, what is it and what is the typical rage

A

-expiratory reserve volume
-at the end of a normal expiration the quantity of air that can be expelled by forcible expiration
1.1- 1.5L

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36
Q

what does VC stand for and what is the typical range

A

-vital capacity
3.4 4.5 L

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37
Q

what can spirometry distinguish between

A

spirometry can distinguish between
obstructive pulmonary disease: increased airway resistance e.g (bronchitis)-more common
-used to test asthma and COPD
-same lung capacity, same VC, less air leaves as fast
restrictive disorders: reduction in total lung capacity due to structural or functional lung changes (e.g. fibrosis or TB)
-TB is fibrosis of lungs
-less common, reducing vital capacity

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38
Q

what are restrictive disorders

A

-VC is reduced or restricted

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39
Q

what are obstructive disorders (remember forced expiration value)

A

-VC is normal but it is slightly reduced
-Forced expiration value is <80%

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40
Q

Describe pulmonary disorders (what are they caused by, what are lungs considered and dont forget the lung compartments)

A

-diseases of one lung compartment (airway, interstitium , alveoli, or blood vessels) tends to affect others
-lungs can be considered external bc the lungs are open to the environment, exposing them to infectious agents, allergens irritants and carcinogens
-most lung diseases are caused by inhalation material
-lost pulmonary membrane is not recoverable

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41
Q

what is dyspnea (hint: break down the word)

A

-dysfunctional breathing
-leads to shortness of breath

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42
Q

describe asthama

A

-its an obstructive disorder
-typically happens during exhalation
-chronic inflammatory disease of small bronchi and bronchioles characterized by episodes of bronchospasm and air trapping
-vasoconstriction
-excess smooth m. contraction

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43
Q

how are normal breathing and breathing in asthma different (remember the bronchioles)

A

-in normal breathing bronchioles expand slightly with inhalation and constricts slightly on exhalation
-in asthma- constriction on exhalation is exaggerated and obstructs air flow

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44
Q

what is COPD and what are some examples of disorders(also what do these conditions have in common)

A

(chonric obstructive pulmonary disease
-umbrella term that covers pulmonary disorders
-chronic asthmatic bronchitis, emphysema, chronic bronchitis

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45
Q

what is asthma triggered by

A

-in most cases asthma is triggered by inhaled irritants
-like cigarette smoke
-polluted air
-inhalants, allergies, chemicals

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46
Q

what are some different types of asthma

A

-allergies
-exercise induced asthma
-cough variant asthma
nocturnal asthma
occupation (chemical) asthma

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47
Q

what is asthma treated with

A

-steroids: reduce inflammation
-bronchodilators- bind to beta 2 receptors which is inhibiting bc it begins to adrenergic receptors to dilate/ relax smooth muscle

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48
Q

what is emphysema (remember cigarretes and the bronchi)

A

-alveolar tissue is destroyed
-chronic progressive condition that reduced surface area for gas exchange
-decrease the ability of bronchioles to remain open during expiration
-cigarette smoking stimulates macrophages and leukocytes to secrete proteins digesting enzymes that destroy tissue

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49
Q

when would you need an endotracheal tube

A

-when the trachealis collapsing or inflamed
-you insert the tube so that trachea stays open
-in surgery to stop vomit from going to lungs and deliver medicine

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50
Q

what is lung cancer

A

-it is the leading case of cancer deaths in North America
90% of all cases are the results of smoking

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51
Q

what are the 3 most common kinds of lung cancer and describe them

A

Adenocarcinoma (~40% of all cases, this is the most common) originates in peripheral lung areas
Squamous cell carcinoma (20-40% of cases) in bronchial epithelium (second most common)
small cell carcinoma- (~20% of cases) contains lymphocyte like cells that originate in primary bronchi and subsequently metastasize (this is the 3rd most common)

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52
Q

describe respiratory control (hint: chemoreceptors)

A

-respiration is controlled through complex mechanisms involving the brain stem and the central and peripheral chemoreceptors
-the chemoreceptors are PCO2, Po2 and pH
-the chemoreceptors can pick up on levels of Co2 and Co2 or pH levels

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53
Q

define and describe the process of acclimatization (remember chemoreceptors)

A

-respiratory and hematopoietic adjustments to altitude
-chemoreceptors are more responsive to changed in Co2 levels (Pco2 )when Po2 declines
-substantial decline in Po2 directly stimulates peripheral chemoreceptors. results in an increase of TV and RR which causes in increase minute ventilation
-the result is that minute ventilation increases and stabilizes in a few days to 2-3 L/min higher than at sea level
-

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54
Q

what is minute ventilation

A

how match air leaves x min

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55
Q

how does EPO come into acclimatization to high altitude

A

-decline in blood O2 stimulates the kidneys at accelerate production of EPO (erythropoietin, this is a hormone released by the kidney)
-red blood cell numbers increase slowly to provide long term compensation
-EPO stimulates red bone marrow, and increased O2 carrying capacity

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56
Q

what can high altitude cause (this one includes symptoms)

A

-quick travel to altitudes above 8,000 feet may produce symptoms of mountain sickness (AMS)
-headaches, shortness of breath, nausea and dizziness
-in severe cases, lethal cerebral ad pulmonary edema
-you pee a lot to increase hematocrit
-pee about plasma volume, decreases blood volume and the blood is now concentrated. more RBC makes you more dehydrated
- the blood is more viscus

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57
Q

what is ingestion (Hint: absorption, calculation and 2 different processes)

A

-gaining access to environmental chemicals
-humans absorb nutrients (mostly through the small intestine) across the GI tract epithelium (requires ~30kcal/kg of body weight/ day)
-food substances often consumed in chemical form that can be directly absorbed
-GI tract digests food by both mechanical and chemical processes

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58
Q

what is mechanical digestion

A

-oral cavity (mastication)
-stomach generally solids <2 mm when you pass the pylorus); goes into the small intestine

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59
Q

what is chemical ingestion (this has to do with fats)

A

-nutrient specific
-e.g. consume TAGs (triacyglycerol-2 fatty acids attached to 1 glycerol) but absorb fatty acid and monoglycerides in small intestine

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60
Q

what are the accessory organs of digestion and what are the exception

A

-salivary glands
-pancreas
-liver
-gallbladder
-tongue
-most accessory organs with the exception of the tongue and teeth secrete hormones that help with digestion

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61
Q

what are the steps of digestion

A

ingestion: eating
propulsion: swallowing through the oropharynx
-peristalsis (alternating contractions of smooth muscle), with the esophagus, stomach, small intestine and large intestine)

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62
Q

what is vital capacity, what is it used for and what is the equation

A

-the maximum amount of air a person can expel from the lungs after maximum inspiration
-a reliable diagnostic indicator of the persons pulmonary status
-VC= TV+IRV+ERV

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63
Q

What are the 4 layers of the the GI tract

A
  1. Mucosa
    -has epithelium
    -lamina propria
    -mucularis mucosae
    2.Submucosa
  2. Muscularis externa
    -two layers of smooth muscle (the longitudinal and circular muscle)
  3. Serosa
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64
Q

what are the intrinsic nerve plexuses of the GI tract

A

-the myenteric nerve plexus (in between the layers)
-the submucosal nerve plexus (in submucosal layer)

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65
Q

what is the lumen

A

-where the food stuff is

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66
Q

define the nervous system of the digestive system

A

-the enteric nervous system
-the neurons begin/ end in the gut
-influenced by and communicate with the central nervous system (but mostly the ANS)

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67
Q

Describe smooth muscle (dont forget sensitivity to stretch and own rhythm)

A

-the Gi tract muscle layers= smooth muscle
-involuntary
-contains proteins actin/myosin (but do not have myofibrils, sarcomeres/ striations)
-sensitive to stretch (stretch sensitive cation channels open and allow depolarization therefore allowing peristalsis)
-can generate own rhythm of contraction (this is similar the the action potentials of the pace maker cells)
-the contraction involves sliding of actin and myosin

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68
Q

what is present during the contracted smooth muscle cell (bodies, bodies, bodies)

A

-dense bodies (these look like little dots) anchor actin
-myosin sits in between the dense bodies

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69
Q

what is motility, where is it and what is the role of the upper and lower GI

A

-food propulsion and control
-upper and lower GI- largely CNS and reflex control
-the upper part of the GI is swallowing and the Lower GI is defecation
-in between the enteric nervous plexus’ system and hormones

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70
Q

what is the role of deglutition in motility(hint: peristalsis, what is it coordinated by, what opens sphincters and the anticipatory wave)

A

-deglutition (swallowing) initiates peristalsis
-contractions due in part to smooth muscle stretch sensitivity
-coordinated by myenteric nervous system so it proceeds from mouth to stomach (increases peristalsis, which is coordinated by myoenteric nerve plexus
-anticipatory wave of relaxation aids in directional movement; especially important near sphincters (normally closed)
-the neural stimuli from swallowing opens the sphincters

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71
Q

Describe the phases of Deglutition (what does it involve, muscle group etc)

A

-it involves the tongue, the soft palate, the pharynx, the esophagus and 22 muscle groups
-it has 3 phases
1. Buccal phase
-voluntary contraction of tongue
2. Pharyngeal and esophageal phase (phase 3)
-involuntary
-control center in medulla and lower pons

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72
Q

When is Peristalsis less coordinated (sensitivity)

A

-in most of the stomach peristalsis is less coordinated (mixing waves)
-the stomach is less sensitive to begin stretched can expand to accommodate volume

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73
Q

when are peristaltic movements more coordinated

A

-they are more coordinated in the pyloric antrum to aid in stomach emptying

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74
Q

what is the pylorus(bottom of the stomach) opened by

A

-opened by the waves of anticipatory relaxation

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75
Q

what does peristalsis move (dont forget anticipatory relaxation)

A

-moves chyme (food mixed with stomach acid) through the small intestine and anticipatory relaxation opens ileocecal sphincter

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76
Q

what are the mixing motions of the large intestines called

A

-haustrations

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77
Q

how often do mass movements happen

A

1-4 times x day

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78
Q

Describe the control of gut motility

A

a)Enteric nervous system (local/ short reflexes) from the submucosal and myenteric plexus’
b) ANS input (smell, thought, taste of food activate the small intestine)
-the PNS specifically bc tasting and chewing prepare the stomach for digesting
c. Hormonal controls
Positive: gastrin (secreted y the stomach) increased motility
Negative: CCK, secretin (secreted by the duodenum) and decreases motility

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79
Q

what forces feces into the rectum

A

-mass movements

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80
Q

what does distention initiate

A

-the spinal defecation reflex (stretch receptors)

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81
Q

how does the PNS influence motility (contraction what colon and relaxation of what sphincter)

A

-stimulate contraction of sigmoid colon and rectum
-relax internal anal sphincter (the smooth muscle is controlled by the ANS)

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82
Q

how does the SNS stimulation affect motility

A

-stimulation normally affects motility, but strong stimulation like stress, causes a quick and strong increase

83
Q

what does conscious control allow

A

-relaxation of external anal sphincter (skeletal muscle)

84
Q

what does digestion depend on (secretions)

A

-the digestion depends on the secretions from multicellular exocrine glands working with secretory cells thoughout GI tract

85
Q

what do salivary glands do

A

-salivary gland ducts open into the mouth (saliva)
-lubricates food
-dissolved food so nutrients can bind to gustatory receptors
-cleanses mouth with antimicrobial properties
-contain enzymes with initiate digestion

86
Q

what do the intrinsic glands do (mouth)

A

-continuously moisten the mouth
-small glands dispersed throughout the mouth

87
Q

what do extrinsic salivary glands do

A

-they produce secretions when ingested food stimulates chemoreceptors and mechanoreceptors (sight and smell also)
-salivary nuclei in the brain stem send impulses along the PNS fibers in CN VII (facial nerve) and IX (glossopharyngeal nerve)

88
Q

what does SNS activation do for the saliva

A

-it caused thick mucin- rich saliva
-strong SNS stimulation vasoconstricts bc of norepinephrine vessels serving glands, inhibits salivation (xero stomia) (this is dry mouth)

89
Q

Describe the protective epithelial stomach lining (there are 3 factors)

A
  1. mucus cells: double layer of alkaline mucus
    -these are goblet cells that make the lining impermeable
  2. tight junctions
    -these protect the cells from getting damaged
  3. rapid cells turnover
    -epithelial cells
90
Q

describe the gastric pits

A

-these are folds
-increase surface area
-divot in walls of stomach
-this is protection from stomach acid

91
Q

describe the gastric glands (hint neural control)

A

-variety of secretory cells
-under neural (ANS, enteric NS and hormonal) control
-gastrin stimulates secretion
-duodenal hormones (CCK and secretin) inhibit

92
Q

Describe mucus neck cells

A

-secrete thin acidic mucus
-dont worry too much about these

93
Q

Describe Parietal cells )remember ph, and intrinsict factor)

A

-secretes about 2-3 liters/day of HCl (Hydrochloric acid)
-pH 1.5 3.5 denatures proteins in the food, activates pepsin and kills many bacteria
–secretes into gastric pits
-also secrete intrinsic factor; glycoprotein required for absorption of vitamin B12 in the small intestine

94
Q

why is B12 so important and why do you need the intrinsic factor

A

-you need it to make RBC
-if you have no intrinsic factor then you have no B12 absorption and you get anemia and you need shots of B12

95
Q

Describe chief cells (hint inactive enzyme) and where do they secrete into

A

-secrete in inactive enzyme of pepsinogen (this is a protease)
-activated to pepsin by HCl and by pepsin itself
-they secrete into the gastric pits

96
Q

Describe enteroendocrine cells

A

-these are hormone secreting cells in the gut
-secrete gastrin, histamine, and somatostatin
-they do not secrete into the gastric pits, instead they secrete into the blood

97
Q

what is the active form of pepsinogen

A

pepsin

98
Q

How do you get hydrochloric acid

A

-parietal cells have a lot of carbonic anhydrase which catalyzes hydration of CO2
-Co2 is converted into H2CO2 (carbonic acid) which breaks down into H+ and HCO3 (bicarbonate)
-HCO3 (bicarb) is transported to the blood in exchange for Cl
-H+ pumped to lumen in exchange for K+
-Cl and H+ diffuse into the lumen net result is HCl
-pH in gastric pit is less than 1 and the blood is about 7

99
Q

what is pepsinogen activated by and what is it converted to

A

-activated by HCl and pepsin itself
-converted to pepsin

100
Q

what would happen if pepsinogen was in the active form

A

-it would eat the cell that made it

101
Q

what is gastritis

A

-inflammation of stomach lining caused by anything that breaches mucosal barrier

102
Q

describe peptic or gastric ulcers

A

-gastric ulcers are specific to the stomach
-breach of mucosal layer by the bacteria
-most are caused by helicobacter pylori bacteria (gram negative)

103
Q

Describe bile (where does it open into)

A

-produced in the liver
- stored and concentrated in the gallbladder
-digestive chemicals and liver waste products
-phospholipids
-aid lipid uptake
-bile salts: bile mixes with foodstuff
emulsify fats: this helps break down fat for more surface area
-bile duct opens into the small intestine

104
Q

where are enzymes secretes from

A

-from the pancreases acinar glands
-remember that the pancreas is a mostly exocrine gland

105
Q

describe proteases (general idea, what it breaks down, what are they secreted as and where are they activated)

A

-breaks down proteins
-secreted as inactive proenzymes
-activated in the intestine

106
Q

describe amylase

A

-glycogen and starch breakdown

107
Q

describe lipases

A

-triglycerides
-breaks down lipids

108
Q

-describe nucleases

A
  • break down nucleic acids
109
Q

Describe the liver and pancreatic secretion control (CCK)

A

-it is mostly hormone control
CCK: CCK+ bile and digestive enzymes
-the digestive enzymes stimulate pancreatic enzymes
-the CCK stimulates bile section from the gallbladder
-comes from the duodenum

110
Q

Describe the liver and pancreatic secretion control (Secretin)

A

Secretin: Secretin+ bicarbonate rich fluid production from pancreases to buffer pH
-stimulates pancreatic duct
-comes from the duodenum
-secretes bicarbonate solution to secrete enzymes to neutralize the fluids coming from the small intestine

111
Q

what does the sphincter of Oddi control what does it open via

A

-secretion entry into duodenum
-it opens via anticipatory relaxation

112
Q

Detail the secretion and release of bile and pancreatic juice

A
  1. Cyme entering the duodenum causes the release of CCK and secretin from the duodenal enteroendocrine cells
  2. CCK and secretin enter the blood stream
  3. CCK induces secretion of enzyme-rich pancreatic juice. secretin causes secretion of HCO3(bicarbonate) rich pancreatic juice
  4. Bile salts and to a lesser extend secretin transported via blood stream stimulate liver to produce bile more rapidly
  5. CCK (via bloodstream) causes gallbladder to contract and hepatopancreatic sphincter to relax and the bile enters the duodenum
  6. During cephalic and gastric phases vagal nerve stimulation causes weak contractions of gallbladder
113
Q

what is the main protease

A

-trypsinogen which then turns into trypsin

114
Q

Describe small intestine secretions (crypts)

A

-copious fluid secretion in crypts of Lieberkuhn (intestinal crypts) (about 1 gal/day of neutral fluids)
Digestive enzymes from intestinal epithelial cells: come from the ducts
-Dipeptidases (final part of the digestive process) , disaccharidases (2 sugars), lipases

115
Q

across what are nutrients absorbed

A

the epithelium of the GI tract

116
Q

why are some nutrients degraded and why are dietary sources crucial (chemical energy)

A

-to liberate chemical energy while the rest are used as building blocks
-many macromolecules cannot be synthesized from the beginning

117
Q

what are essential and nonessential nutrients

A

Essential: must be obtained from diet (most vitamins and minerals)
Nonessential: can be produced from other molecules (glucose bc out body can make it)

118
Q

Describe the transportation of nutrients across plasma membranes

A

-digested nutrients transported from gut to extracellular fluids to be imported by storage and target tissues
-nutrient transport depends on chemical composition (lipid vs water soluble)
-many transported through mucosa of intestinal villa to blood stream via active transport mechanisms (e.g. Na)
-Co transmitters
-H2O soluble need additional transportation

119
Q

Describe the Na/ Glucose Cotransporter

A

-sodium glucose linked transporter (SGLT): on apical membrane of cells that line SI
-highly favorable inwardly directed NA electrochemical gradient can drive uphill accumulation of glucose from Small intestine lumen into the cell
-this is for water soluble
-depends on Na pump and active transport

120
Q

Describe digestion as it related to hydrolysis (don’t forget about breaking bonds)

A

-hydrolysis catalyzed by digestive enzymes
-breaking bonds between sugar molecules (monosaccharides), amino acids and fatty acids

121
Q

what breaks the bonds of proteins

A

enzymes secreted by the stomach (pepsin), pancreas and intestinal epithelium and HCl that breaks bonds
-proteins to peptides in stomach and small intestine lumen via protases (trypsin–> trosinogen)
-peptides (final cleaving of amino acids) to tri and dipeptides and amino acids via peptidases on brush border of intestinal epithelial cells
-amino acids transported across epithelial membrane mainly by Na cotransport

122
Q

what are the main types of carbohydrates consumed by animals

A

-polysaccharides (glycogen, starch, cellulose and chitin)
-Disaccharides (sucrose, lactose, maltose)

123
Q

describe salivary and pancreatic amylase

A

-they hydrolyze complex carbohydrates mostly to disaccharides (dissolves sugar)
-disaccharidases(final cleaving into single glucose food) maltase(breaks maltose) , lactase(breaks lactose) and sucrase (breaks down sucrose) are in the brush of intestinal epithelium
-monosaccharides glucose and galactose are absorbed by sodium cotransport

124
Q

what is fructose absorption helped by

A

-facilitated diffusion

125
Q

What enzymes are secreted in the mouth, stomach and small intestine when carbs need to be digested. Make sure to include what the carbs are broken down to and where they are absorbed

A

Mouth: salivary amylase
Stomach: no enzyme
Small intestine: pancreatic amylase and disaccharidases
Broken down into monosaccharides and it is absorbed into capillaries

126
Q

What enzymes are secreted in the mouth, stomach and small intestine when proteins need to be digested. Make sure to include what the proteins are broken down to and where they are absorbed

A

Mouth: no enzyme
Stomach: pepsin and HCL
Small intestine: trypsin and dipeptidases
Broken down to amino acids and absorbed into the capillaries

127
Q

What enzymes are secreted in the mouth, stomach and small intestine when fats need to be digested. Make sure to include what the fats are broken down to and where they are absorbed

A

Mouth: lingual lipase (small extent)
Stomach: no enzyme
Small intestine: bile/ lipase
broken down to glycerol and free fatty acids
absorbed through the lymph lacteals

128
Q

Describe Lipids and lipolytic enzymes (remember water soluble)

A

-these are fats and they are lipid soluble (hydrophobic), ends up as large globules of fat in the stomach and intestines
-lipolytic enzymes are water soluble thus they can only act as surface fat

129
Q

what does it mean when you say that bile is amphipathic

A

-one end is lipid soluble and one with water soluble

130
Q

what happens when fat globules mix with bile

A

-bile prevents globules from coming together again and end up with smaller glob of fat called micelles
-micelles easier to break down by lipase due to greater exposed surface area

131
Q

why do lipids need to be carried in the blood as lipoprotein complexes

A

-bc they are hydrophobic

132
Q

what is LDL

A

-low density lipoprotein (52 cholesterol and 8 triglyceride)

133
Q

what is HDL

A

-high density lipoproteins
-the higher the level the less at risk you are for heart disease
-cholesterol is 14 and triglyceride is 8

134
Q

Why can’t the stomach absorb nutrients

A

-the epithelial cells are covered by alkaline mucus and not directly exposed to chyme
-epithelial cells lack specialized transport mechanisms (this means that there is no co transports present here)
-the gastrin lining is impermeable to water (thus H2O soluble molecules like glucose can’t pass)
-digestion has not proceeded to competition by the time that chyme leaves the stomach
-carbs, lipids, and proteins only partially

135
Q

Describe fat soluble vitamins

A

-remember ADEK
-these are absorbed in the small intestine
-these are carried by micelles and then diffuse into absorptive cells
-you can over dose on these they stick to fat globules
-this is the first category

136
Q

Descrube water soluble vitamins and what are they absorbed by

A

-these are vitamin C and B
-these are absorbed by diffusion or by passive, or active transporters
-you can not overdose on these bc you pee them out
-this is the second category
-absorbed in the small intestine

137
Q

what does vitamin B12 bind with

A

-intrinsic factor and it is absorbed by enydcytosis in the ileum
-this is the only exception

138
Q

Describe minerals

A

-metallic elements that participate in protein structure
-these are inorganic
-calcium
-phosphorus
-iron
-copper
-zinc
-most are absorbed along the GI tract by specific transport

139
Q

Describe the small role that the large intestine plays in absorption

A

-water and electrolytes are reclaimed
-vitamins k and B produced by bacteria and absorbed
-major mechanical function= feces propulsion towards anus
-the colon is not essential for life

140
Q

what is reproduction largely apart of

A

-the endocrine system bc it mediates it
-the hypothalamus/the hypothalamic hypofacial portal system / pituitary and the reproductive structures are used

141
Q

what are the ovaries

A

-the eggs stored and develop ( these are hte gonads)

142
Q

what is the Oviduct/ fallopian tube

A

-transports oocyte (gives rise to the egg) from ovary to uterus
- fertilization occurs here
-Also stores the egg

143
Q

what is the uterus

A

-hollow organ in which embryo develops

144
Q

what is the cervix

A

-gateway between the uterus and the vagina

145
Q

what is the vagina

A

-sperm enters the female body
-travel through the cervix to the uterus and fallopian tubes

146
Q

what are the mammary glands/ breast

A

-produce and deliver milk that nourishes infant

147
Q

what do LH and FSH cause the release of

A

-estrogen, progesterone and testosterone

148
Q

Describe the menstrual cycle (how many eggs are we born with, how many die each month, and what happens if there is a fetus and when there isn’t)

A

-females are born with about 2 million oocytes at puberty an about 250,000 remain
-you typically releases 1-2 oocytes/month after puberty/ before menopause (1-2% of ovulations, >oocytes)
-reproduction life is ~40 years (11-51) so <500 oocytes used (but ~1000 die each month)
-the oocyte fertilization is unknown so females reproductive system must go through cyclic changes preparing for possibility
-if there is fertilization, the system adapts to support developing fetus
-if there is no fertilization, you start preparation processes all over again

149
Q

define the menstrual cycle and what phases are linked to the monthly cycle

A

-the ovaries and uterus go through pattern of change
-begins at puberty, lasts ~ 28 days, regulated by hormones
-range from 20-40 days but the average is 28 days
-the complete menstrual cycle consists of two linked monthly cycles: the ovarian and the uterine cycle

150
Q

How many phases are in the ovarian cycle

A

-the follicular phase
-the ovulation phase
-the luteal phase

151
Q

Describe the follicular phase

A

-this is from the first day -day 13
-GnRh (from the hypothalamus) stimulates anterior pituitary to produce follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and luteinizing hormone (LH)
-FSH stimulates several follicles within ovaries to mature
-primary oocyte enclosed in nourishing granulosa cells (stratified epithelium) these proliferate around the follicles
-granulosa cells divide and produce glycoproteins that become Zona pellucida (sperm must penetrate to enter the egg)
-the zona pellucida is the protective layer and the follicular phase is the estrogen dominant phase
-inside the follicle a fluid filled space (antrum) develops and granulosa cells secrete estrogen and progesterone
-only one primary oocyte completes meiosis I and forms secondary oocyte and polar body
-while maturation of follicle is occurring FSH also signals ovaries to produce high levels of estrogen

152
Q

Describe the Ovulation phase

A

-this is for day 14
-the progesterone is dominant phase
-high estrogen stimulates spike in LH release
-LH surge stimulates release of secondary oocyte into extracellular fluid (ovulation)
-secondary oocyte swept into the fallopian tube
-oocyte may encounter sperm capable of fertilizing the egg
-if fertilization occurs oocyte completes meiosis II and becomes a mature egg or ovum
-this is the second phase of the ovarian cycle

153
Q

Describe the Luteal Phase

A

-this is the last phase is the ovarian cycle
- day 15- day 28
-remnant of ruptured follicle from the corpus luteum which secretes estrogen and progesterone preparing uterus for implantation
-if fertilization occurs the corpus luteum secretes hormones for about 9-10 weeks until the placenta secretes enough progesterone and estrogen to continue pregnancy
-if fertilization does not occur the corpus luteum degenerates after about 14 days and no longer secretes hormones
-this is the only one that takes exactly 14 days, bc that is how long the corpus luteum lasts after ovulation
-in this phase there is no estrogen or progesterone

154
Q

Describer the Uterine Cycle (structural and functional changes)

A

-structureal and funcational changes in the uterus preparing for the pssoibility of fertilized oocyte
this also has 3 phases

155
Q

what are the 3 phases of the uterine cycle

A
  1. menstraual phase
  2. proliferative phase
  3. secretory phase
156
Q

Describe the Menstrual phase

A

-this is the first phase of the uterine cycle
-happen from day 1-5
-because the corpus luteum has died estrogen and progesterone levels are low in the absence of pregnancy
-since there is nothing to stimulate the endometrium to continue to grow and it sloughs off
the endometrial lining sheds through the vagina resulting in the menstrual period

157
Q

describe the Proliferative phase and what does the cervix secrete `

A

-days 6- 14
-second phase of the uterine cycle
-developing follicle produces estrogen stimulating endometrial lining to proliferate (grow)
-cervix produces thin mucus assisting sperm moving from the vagina into the uterus

158
Q

what is important to remember when talking about the uterine cycle and the ovulation cycle

A

they both line up and happen at the same time

159
Q

describe the Secretory phase (don’t forget the secretions)

A

-3rd and final phase of the uterine cycle
-happens at day 15-28
-this happens at the same time as the luteal phase
-the endometrium is now 3x thicker than post menstruation
-cervix secretes thick mucus blocking sperm and bacteria from the vagina to the uterus
-the uterine glands produce/ secrete glycogen as a energy source from embryo

160
Q

What kind of feedback can be seen in the menstrual cycle

A

-both negative and positive feedback occurs

161
Q

Describe the Menstrual Cycle as a whole

A

-the uterine and ovarian cycles are linked
-uterine wall contains inner layer called endometrium and outer layer is called myometrium
-endometrium consists of epithelial tissue, connective tissue and blood vessels
-when oocyte is fertilized, it attaches and embed in endometrium= implantation

162
Q

How do you find what day you ovulated

A

you find out how many days are in your cycle and then you subtract by 14 (which is how long the luteal phase lasts)

163
Q

how long is the follicular phase in a 24 day cycle

A

-5 days

164
Q

how long does the follicular phase last in a 28 day cycle

A

-10 days

165
Q

how long does the follicular phase last in a 32 day cycle

A

-13 days

166
Q

What are the Testes

A

-these are the gonads
-they produce sperm and they secrete testosterone

167
Q

what is the scrotum

A

-houses testes

168
Q

What is the Epidiymis

A

-where sperm matures

169
Q

what is the ductus vas deferens

A

-the sperm continues to mature and is stored here until ejaculation
-brings sperm to urethra

170
Q

what is the Ejaculatory duct (dont forget seminal vesicles)

A

-transports sperm and secretions from seminal vesicles towards the penis
-this is how we get semen

171
Q

what is the Penis

A

-delivers the sperm to the female vagina

172
Q

what do the accessory glands of male reproduction produce

A

-produce fluids, mucus and sugars that assist sperm in surviving journey into female reproductive tract
-these make semen

173
Q

why happens to the corpus cavernosum and the corpus spongiosum

A

-the 2 lays of the corpus cavernosum fill with blood during an erection (it feels hard)
-the corpus spongiosum stays soft because you want to leave the urethra open

174
Q

where is sperm produced

A

-in the seminiferous tubules of testes

175
Q

Describe the Leydig cells

A

-these are between the seminiferous tubules
-they secrete male sex hormones (including testosterone)
-this process is controlled by LH

176
Q

what is Spermatogenesis stimulated by

A

-testosterone

177
Q

Describe Sertoli Cells

A

-these surround the spermatogenic cells
-assist sperm production by providing nourishment
-controlled/ activated by FSH

178
Q

What does male reproductive capacity depend on

A

-testosterone

179
Q

what does testosterone control

A

-controls the growth and function of male reproductive tissues
-stimulates sexual behavior and causes the development of secondary sex characteristics (this is when the pubic hair grows and the scrotum growing)

180
Q

what is testosterone production and secretion regulated by

A

-GnRH, LH, FSH

181
Q

Describe the pathway of sperm

A

-sperm travels from the seminiferous tubules to the epididymis (surrounds the testis)
-sperm spends about 20 days maturing in epididymis acquiring ability to swim and to fertilize eggs
-sperm can be stored in the epididymis for several months before being phagocytosed
-sperm leaves the epididymis and enter vas deferens and then ejaculatory duct
-when orgasm is reached, sperm are propelled through the ejaculatory duct to urethra passing through the penis
-remember that the vas deferens turns into the ejaculatory duct

182
Q

what happens to the prostate with age

A

-it gets bigger and it narrows the urethra, causing older men to have to go to the bathroom more frequently

183
Q

what is semen

A

-formed from the sperm plus accessory gland secretions

184
Q

what do the seminal vesicles add to the sperm

A

-add fructose, prostaglandins, and motility enhancers

185
Q

what does the prostate secrete (motility and liquifiy)

A

–secretes fluid enhancing sperm motility and enzymes that liquefy ejaculated semen

186
Q

what do Bulbourethral glands secrete (hint acidity)

A

-these secrete mucus that help neutralize acidity of vagina and lubricates vagina

187
Q

Describe Fertilization(fertilization window, what quality does the sperm have, how long do they survive)

A

the fertilization window is about 3 days before and 3 days after the oocyte has been ovulated
-sperm must be capacitated (have the ability to penetrated oocyte) and reach oocyte
-only a few thousand reach the tube
live about 3-5 days (in the female reproductive tract but they may survive up to a week (takes 4-24 hours to reach the oocyte)
-if the oocyte does not encounter sperm in the fallopian tube within 1-2- days, it dies

188
Q

how long can sperm live inside the female body

A

about 5 days

189
Q

how many sperm fertilize oocytes and why

A

-only 1 sperm fertilizes the oocyte to ensure that the resulting embryo has only one full set of chromosomes (46 in humans)

190
Q

what does the sperm do when it reaches the egg (zona pelluicida)

A

-hundred of sperm release enzymes from the acrosome that digest the zona pellucida (the protective zone around the oocyte, this is called the acrosomal reaction
-this acrosomal reaction comes from the tip of of the sperm

191
Q

what happens to the first sperm that reches the egg

A

-binds to the sperm receptors and egg and sperm membranes fuse
-this is cortical reaction

192
Q

what happens after sperm enters the egg

A

-it releases enzymes that break down remaining sperm receptors blocking other sperm from entering

193
Q

what does the entry of sperm into the oocyte signal

A

-signals the egg to complete meiosis II

194
Q

what happens to the follicular cells around the secondary oocyte

A

-they are lost and polar bodies degenerate

195
Q

what is the end goal of fertilization

A

-conception and the single diploid cell in called zygote

196
Q

What does mitosis result in

A

the same DNA

197
Q

what does meiosis result in

A

genetic variability

198
Q

why do twins arise

A

-when either a single fertilized eggs splits resulting in identical twins
-when two eggs ovulated int he same cycles are fertilized by different sperm resulting in fraternal twins

199
Q

what are fraternal twins

A

-not genetical identical and may be different sex

200
Q

what are identical twins

A

-genetically identical and the same sex
-come from the same zygote

201
Q

what needs to happen for identical twins to develop properly

A

-zygote must divide before differentiation of cells has begun
-when the zygote separates incompletely embryos become conjoined twins
-conjoined twins can only be separated only if they do not share vital organs

202
Q

Why is LDL considered bad cholesterol

A

-when there is too much LDL it circulates in the blood it can slowly build up in the inner walls of the arteries that feed the heart and brain
-can lead to plaque formation and atherosclerosis
-is a clot form and blocks a narrowed artery
-heart attack and stroke can result

203
Q

why is HDL considered the good cholesterol

A

-only about 1/4-1/3 of blood cholesterol is carried by HDL
-high levels of HDL seem to protect against heart attack and low levels of HDL (less than 40 mg/dL) increase the risk of heart disease
-HDL tends to carry cholesterol away from arteries and back to the liver, where it passed from the body

204
Q

Menstrual Cycle Hormones and where are the produced

A

-GnRH (from the hypothalamus)
-LH and FSH (anterior pituitary
-Estrogen and progesterone (within the ovary)

Nursing (11 decks)

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