Quiz 3: Neural Conduction/ Neurotransmission Flashcards

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1
Q

Curare is a compound that functions as a muscle relaxant by reducing signal transmission at neuromuscular junctions. This drug is most likely a(n):

a) Epinephrine receptor agonist
b) Glutamate receptor antagonist
c) Acetylcholine receptor antagonist
d) Acetylcholine receptor agonist

A

c) Acetylcholine receptor antagonist

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2
Q

The effect of tetrodotoxin on neuron activity demonstrates the necessity of __________ activity for __________

a) Voltage gated potassium channel; repolarization
b) Voltage gated sodium channel; membrane depolarization
c) Voltage gated potassium channel; hyperpolarization
d) Sodium-potassium pump; maintaining the resting membrane potential

A

b) Voltage gated sodium channel; membrane depolarization

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3
Q

Which of the following scientists are best known for discovering the chemical nature of communication between neurons?

a) Henry Dale and Otto Loewi
b) Andrew Hodgkin and Alen Huxley
c) Donald Hebb and Henry Dale
d) Santiago Ramon Y Cajal and Camillo Golgi

A

a) Henry Dale and Otto Loewi

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4
Q

Given the tendency of sodium ions to flow into the cell, which of the following is true about the concentration gradient for sodium at rest?

a) The intracellular sodium concentration is greater than the extracellular concentration
b) The extracellular sodium concentration is greater than the intracellular concentration
c) The intracellular and extracellular sodium concentrations are equal
d) Both a and c may be true

A

b) The extracellular sodium concentration is greater than the intracellular concentration

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5
Q

In a famous experiment that led to the discovery of chemical neurotransmission, what was done to a frog’s heart?

a) It was isolated (detached) from its vagus nerve
b) It was placed in a bath of dilute palytoxin
c) It was detached from the excitatory branch of its vagus nerve
d) It was detached from the excitatory branch of its vagus nerve

A

a) It was isolated (detached) from its vagus nerve

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6
Q

A drug that binds to and activates a receptor is called a(n) ____________ for that receptor

a) agonist
b) competitive antagonist
c) antagonist
d) partial agonist

A

a) agonist

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7
Q

The sodium-potassium pump moves

a) 2 sodium ions out of the cell and 3 potassium ions out of the cell
b) 3 sodium ions out of the cell and 2 potassium ions into the cell
c) 3 sodium ions into the cell and 2 potassium ions out of the cell
d) 2 sodium ions into the cell and 3 potassium ions out of the cell

A

b) 3 sodium ions out of the cell and 2 potassium ions into the cell

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8
Q

Which of the following statements is true regarding graded potentials?

a) Graded potentials are non-decremental and “all-or-none”
b) Graded potentials move faster along myelinated axons than unmyelinated axons
c) Graded potentials are hyperpolarizing and counteract action potentials
d) The magnitude of a graded potential is determined by the magnitude of the stimulus

A

d) The magnitude of a graded potential is determined by the magnitude of the stimulus

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9
Q

Which of the following points about neurotransmitters is false?

a) They are released into the synaptic cleft upon presynaptic neuron activation
b) They are synthesized within the postsynaptic site (spine)
c) They are stored within vesicles prior to release
d) They act on receptors to excite or inhibit nearby postsynaptic neurons

A

b) They are synthesized within the postsynaptic site (spine)

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10
Q

Which of the following is true of gap junctions (electrical synapses)?

a) Large molecule neurotransmitters can pass through gap junctions
b) Gap junctions are larger than synapses
c) Gap junctions allow for electrical transmission within neurons
d) Gap junctions allow for electrical transmission between neurons

A

d) Gap junctions allow for electrical transmission between neurons

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11
Q

Which of the following techniques can be used to study the membrane currents that underlie action potentials?

a) Electroencephalography
b) Positron emission tomography
c) Functional magnetic resonance imaging
d) Single unit recording

A

d) Single unit recording

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12
Q

Aricept is a drug commonly used to treat the symptoms of Alzheimer’s disease. Aricept improves memory by preventing the enzymatic breakdown of a neurotransmitter that is less abundant in the brains of patients with Alzheimer’s disease. Which neurotransmitter system does Aricept primarily alter?

a) glutamate
b) dopamine
c) GABA
d) acetylcholine

A

d) acetylcholine

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13
Q

Vasovagal syncope occurs when one faints due to overstimulation of the vagus nerve. Overstimulation of the vagus nerve can cause fainting by rapidly:

a) decreasing balance
b) increasing blood pressure
c) decreasing heart rate
d) increasing heart rate

A

c) decreasing heart rate

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14
Q

Depression is commonly treated with selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs). Which of the following drugs would likely exacerbate the symptoms of depression?

a) A norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor
b) A serotonin receptor agonist
c) A serotonin receptor antagonist
d) A drug that increases serotonin release from presynaptic neurons

A

c) A serotonin receptor antagonist

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15
Q

Schizophrenia is associated with excessive levels of dopamine in the brain. Schizophrenia is often treated with medications that selectively antagonize dopamine receptors. Which of the following would be the most likely side effect of such medications?

a) mania
b) depression
c) pseudodementia
d) pseudoparkinsonism

A

d) pseudoparkinsonism

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16
Q

Hodgkin and Huxley discovered that voltage-gated potassium channels open and potassium flows out of the neuron during an action potential. Potassium efflux is associated with which phase of the action potential?

a) depolarization
b) repolarization
c) hyperpolarization
d) both b and c

A

d) both b and c

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17
Q

While recording from a hippocampal neuron, you see that an electrical event has occurred that changed the membrane potential from -65 mV to -70 mV. This event was an __________ and the membrane became ____________

a) IPSP; depolarized
b) IPSP; hyperpolarized
c) EPSP; depolarized
d) EPSP; hyperpolarized

A

b) IPSP; hyperpolarized

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18
Q

You have just identified a novel membrane receptor in rat neocortical neurons. The receptor has a heptahelical transmembrane domain and responds to serotonin. Activation of the receptor hyperpolarizes the postsynaptic neuron and this effect is mediated by G protein activation. This receptor is most likely a(n):

a) voltage-gated ion channel
b) ionotropic receptor
c) metabotropic receptor
d) ligand-gated ion channel

A

c) metabotropic receptor

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19
Q

The neuromodulator estradiol is synthesized in a number of brain regions. Dr. Soutar presented evidence for aromatase (estrogen synthase) expression in the adult rat brain. In what brain region did she detect aromatase expression?

a) neocortex
b) amygdala
c) hippocampus
d) auditory thalamus

A

a) neocortex

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20
Q

The transmission of EPSPs and IPSPs is:

a) decremental
b) excitatory
c) all-or-none
d) saltatory

A

a) decremental

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21
Q

which of the following analogies best exemplifies the speed at which postsynaptic potential travel from their site of origin?

a) postsynaptic potentials travel like electrical signals along a cable
b) postsynaptic potential travel like sound waves in an open environment
c) postsynaptic potentials travel like the ripples seen when who drop a stone in calm water
d) EPSPs and IPSPs travel like a rabbit and a tortoise, respectively

A

a) postsynaptic potentials travel like electrical signals along a cable

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22
Q

postsynaptic hyperpolarization’s are called IPSPs because they

a) decrease the chance that an ion channel will open
b) increase the chance that an ion channel will open
c) decrease the chance that a neuron will fire
d) increase the chance that a neuron will fire

A

c) decrease the chance that a neuron will fire

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23
Q

when postsynaptic potentials produced in rapid succession at the same synapse sum, it is known as:

a) temporal summation
b) spatial summation
c) the refractory period
d) an all-or-none response

A

a) temporal summation

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24
Q

in which of the following ways is the firing of a neuron like the firing of a gun?

a) both are the result of temporal summation
b) both are triggered by ungraded responses
c) both are triggered by graded responses
d) both are the result of spatial inhibition

A

c) both are triggered by graded responses

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25
Q

Mechanisms in the membrane of a cell that actively transport ions or molecules across the membrane are known as:

a) membrane holes
b) ligand junctions
c) transporters
d) gap junctions

A

c) transporters

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26
Q

The three phases of an action potential are, in order:

a) rising phase, hyperpolarization phase, repolarization phase
b) repolarization phase, rising phase, hyperpolarization phase
c) hyperpolarization phase, repolarization phase, rising phase
d) rising phase, repolarization phase, hyperpolarization phase

A

d) rising phase, repolarization phase, hyperpolarization phase

27
Q

The ____ refractory period is followed by the ____ refractory period:

a) absolute, relative
b) hyperpolarizing, repolarizing
c) relative, absolute
d) rising, dropping

A

a) absolute, relative

28
Q

Axonal conduction from the cell body to terminal buttons is called:

a) orthodromic conduction
b) antidromic conduction
c) absolute conduction
d) saltatory conduction

A

a) orthodromic conduction

29
Q

The advantage of presynaptic facilitation and inhibition (compared to EPSPs and IPSPs) is that they can:

a) inhibit an EPSP
b) depolarization
c) selectively influence one particular synapse rather than the entire presynaptic neuron
d) block action potentials

A

c) selectively influence one particular synapse rather than the entire presynaptic neuron

30
Q

Small-molecule neurotransmitters are typically synthesized in the cytoplasm of the terminal button and packaged in ______ by the button’s ________:

a) synaptic vesicles; Golgi complex
b) synaptic vesicles; endoplasmic reticulum
c) synaptic receptors; Golgi complex
d) metabotropic; endoplasmic reticulum

A

a) synaptic vesicles; Golgi complex

31
Q

______ are associated with ligand-activated ion channels, whereas _______ are associated with signal proteins and G proteins:

a) ionotropic receptors, endoplasmic receptors
b) ionotropic receptors; metabotropic receptors
c) metabotropic receptors; golgi receptors
d) ionotropic receptors, signal receptors

A

b) ionotropic receptors; metabotropic receptors

32
Q

__________, which is the main active ingredient of belladonna, is a receptor blocker that exerts its antagonist effect by binding to muscarinic receptors, thereby blocking the effects of acetylcholine on them

a) botox
b) atropine
c) nicotine
d) muscarine

A

b) atropine

33
Q

_______ are neurotransmitters that are similar to the delta-9 tetrahydrocannabinol (THC), the main psychoactive constituent of marijuana:

a) sativoids
b) endocannabinoids
c) deltoids
d) marijuanoids

A

b) endocannabinoids

34
Q

The hypothesis that synaptic transmission depends on communication among three cells (presynaptic neuron, postsynaptic neuron, and astrocyte) is referred to as the:

a) astrosynaptic hypothesis
b) tricellular hypothesis
c) tripartite synapse
d) three’s company hypothesis

A

c) tripartite synapse

35
Q

when Cl- channels open in a neuron at rest, which of the following will occur?

a) Cl- will flow out of the cell and the cell will be hyperpolarized
b) Cl- will flow out of the cell and the cell will be depolarized
c) Cl- will flow into the cell and the cell will be hyperpolarized
d) Cl- will flow into the cell and the cell will be depolarized

A

c) Cl- will flow into the cell and the cell will be hyperpolarized

36
Q

if a neuron at rest become highly permeable to sodium (i.e. Na+ channels open) , the membrane potential will become:

a) polarized
b) depolarized
c) hyperpolarized
d) repolarized

A

b) depolarized

37
Q

Researchers often record the activity of neurons in fresh, living brain slices. Preparing brain slices without killing all of the neurons on the slice is extremely difficult. One strategy for maintaining neuron health when preparing a slice is to prevent them from firing action potentials. How might this be accomplished?

a) bathing the slices in a solution lacking K+
b) bathing the slices in a solution lacking Cl-
c) bathing the slices in a solution that contains high levels of Na+
d) bathing the slices in a solution lacking Na+

A

d) bathing the slices in a solution lacking Na+

38
Q

while recording from a neuron in a slice of brain tissue, you identify a novel membrane protein that facilitates the movement of Na+ using energy derived from glucose. What type of membrane protein have you likely identified?

a) Na ion channel
b) co-transporter
c) exchanger
d) pump

A

d) pump

39
Q

which of the following drugs would reduce the ability of neuron to generate an action potential?

a) tetrodotoxin, which prevents the opening of Na+ channels
b) DDT, an insecticide that opens Na+ channels
c) batrachotoxin, which results in persistent activation of Na+ channels
d) lorazepam, a drug that opens ligand-gated Cl- channels

A

a) tetrodotoxin, which prevents the opening of Na+ channels

40
Q

here is a list of four (hypothetical) drugs and their respective LD50 values. Which of these drugs is the safest for you to consume

a) drug A: LD50=3kg/kg body weight
b) drug B: LD50 = 4 g/kg body weight
c) drug c: LD50= 5 mg/kg body weight
d) drug D: LD50 = 6ug/kg body weight

A

drug A: LD50 = 3kg/kg body weight

41
Q

You are a biopsychologist investigating a newly discovered brain area (area X). Your experience involves (a) exciting a (b) inhibiting neurons in area X and observing effects on the behavior in mice. To cause neuronal excitation and inhibition, you use drugs with the following effects on ion channels:

a) excitation: open K+ channels; inhibition: open Na+ channels
b) excitation: open Na+ channels; inhibition: open K+ channels
c) excitation: open Na+ channels; inhibition: open Cl- channels
d) excitation: open Cl- channels; inhibition: open K+ channels
e) both (b) and (c) are correct

A

e) both b and c are correct

42
Q

which of the following pain drugs are used clinically to alleviate chronic (neuropathic) pain by modifying the activity of Na+ channels?

a) selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors
b) tricyclic antidepressants
c) local anesthetics
d) tetrodotoxin
e) both (b) and (c) are correct

A

e) both (b) and (c) are correct

43
Q

given that action potentials are all-or-none, what measure might a researcher use to determine whether a drug is excitatory or inhibitory while recording from a single neuron?

a) the amplitude of action potentials
b) the frequency of action potentials
c) the shape of action potentials
d) none of the above measures are informative in this case

A

b) the frequency of action potentials

44
Q

how might a researcher induce the generation of action potentials when recording from a neuron?

a) injecting positive (depolarizing) current into the neuron
b) injecting negative (hyperpolarizing) current into the neuron
c) applying an excitatory drug to the neuron
d) both A and C

A

d) both A and C

45
Q

The EEG can be recorded with varying numbers of electrodes attached to the skull, ranging from as few as two electrodes to hundreds. The more electrodes are used, the more time-consuming the procedure will be. Assume that you are a very buys neurologist who sees 20-30 patients a day. today, one of your patients is suspected of having a tumor, which interferes with their auditory processing. what would you suggest to do for the EEG assessment

a) use a smaller number of electrodes, since it will save valuable time
b) use many electrodes, spaced out over the entire brain (i.e all four lobes of the cortex)
c) use an intermediate number of electrodes, all spaced out over the occipital cortex
d) use an intermediate number of electrodes, all spaced out over the temporal cortex

A

d) use an intermediate number of electrodes, all spaced out over the temporal cortex

46
Q

the following is NOT an example of neuroprosthetic?

a) deep brain simulation
b) a retinal implant that bypasses retinal neurons to transmit visual signals to the brain
c) a device that electrically stimulates the spinal cord to restoring movement
d) an EEG cap that records brain activity to detect seizures

A

d) an EEG cap that records brain activity to detect seizures

47
Q

which of the following is NOT involved in deep-brain stimulation?

a) stereotactic surgery to implant leads and electrodes into the brain
b) surgical implantation of a pulse generator to control brain stimulation
c) programming of electrical pulse parameters to optimize brain stimulation
d) anticonvulsant medications to enhance the effects of brain stimulation

A

d) anticonvulsant medications to enhance the effects of brain stimulation

48
Q

a neurologist and neurosurgeon implant deep-brain stimulation electrodes into a patient diagnosed with short-term memory deficits to enhance brain signals in a relevant brain areas. which brain area should they target?

a) hippocampus
b) neocortex
c) prefrontal cortex
d) basal ganglia

A

c) prefrontal cortex

49
Q

given what yoy have learned about excitatory and inhibitory neurotransmitters, which of the following neurotransmitters was the excitatory substance released by sympathetic nerve stimulation in Otto Loewi’s experiments

a) acetylcholine
b) epinephrine / adrenaline
c) glycine
d) GABA

A

b) epinephrine / adrenaline

50
Q

the substances responsible for increases and decreasing heart rate in Otto Loewi’s experiments belong to which of the following classes of neurotransmitters, respectively?

a) catecholamines; unconventional neurotransmitters
b) catecholamines; amino acids
c) catecholamines; acetylcholine
d) indolamines; acetylcholine

A

c) catecholamines; acetylcholine

51
Q

which of the following processes is primarily responsible for breaking down the neurotransmitter released by stimulation of the vagus nerve innervating the heart?

a) enzymatic degradation
b) reuptake by transposers
c) diffusion
d) none of the above

A

a) enzymatic degradation

52
Q

acetylcholine has an inhibitory effect on cardiac tissue, but it has an excitatory effect in other tissues (e.g., at the neuromuscular junctions). Which of the following factors explains the dual effects of this transmitter?

a) the quantity of transmitter released at axon terminals
b) the way the transmitter is removed from the synaptic cleft
c) the receptor subtypes to which the transmitters binds
d) the number of receptors available for transmitter binding

A

c) the receptor subtypes to which the transmitter binds

53
Q

which of the following best describes an endorphin?

a) neurotransmitter
b) neuromodulator
c) neurohormone
d) neurosteroid

A

b) neuromodulator

54
Q

where can you find receptors for estradiol within neurons?

a) the plasma membrane
b) the cytoplasm
c) the nucleus
d) all of the above

A

d) all of the above

55
Q

which of the following is NOT a test for learning and memory in rodents?

a) the Morris water maze
b) the radial arm maze
c) the elevated plus-maze
d) the social recognition test

A

c) the elevated plus-maze

56
Q

which of the following is NOT a component of a metabotropic receptor

a) a signal protein that traverses the plasma membrane 5 times
b) a signal protein that transverses the plasma membrane 7 times
c) a ligand binding site
d) a G protein with a, b, and y subunits

A

a) a signal protein that transverses the plasma membrane 5 times

57
Q

the motor symptoms of Parkinson’s disease are attributed to degeneration of neurons producing which of the following neurotransmitters?

a) acetylcholine
b) serotonin
c) dopamine
d) GABA

A

c) dopamine

58
Q

which neurotransmitter is primarily involved in alertness and arousal

a) norepinephrine
b) serotonin
c) dopamine
d) GABA

A

a) norepinephrine

59
Q

which of the following is the primary neurotransmitter at neuromuscular junctions?

a) dopamine
b) acetylcholine
c) glutamate
d) GABA

A

b) acetylcholine

60
Q

The drug DNQX is a selective antagonist for a particular subtype of the glutamate receptor. What will be the result of applying DNQX to a neuron prior to applying glutamate to the same neuron

a) the effect of glutamate will be amplified
b) the effect of glutamate will be diminished or blocked
c) the effect of glutamate will be unchanged
d) the neuron will be depolarized

A

b) the effect of glutamate will be diminished or blocked

61
Q

the acetylcholinesterase inhibitor donepezil is used to treat:

a) depression
b) Parkinson’s disease
c) Alzheimer’s disease
d) Epilepsy

A

c) Alzheimer’s disease

62
Q

As we discussed, excessive levels of dopamine (DA) are involved in schizophrenia. Thus, this disorder is typically treated with DA antagonists. Which of the following may be an unintended consequence (i.e., side effect) of these drugs?

a) muscle tremors
b) pain
c) mania
d) hyperactivity

A

a) muscle tremors

63
Q

which of the following drug classes are typically used to treat depression?

a) selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs)
b) norepinephrine reuptake inhibitors (NRIs)
c) serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitors (SNRIs)
d) all of the above

A

d) all of the above