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DPT 502 > Quiz 3 > Flashcards

Quiz 3 Flashcards

1
Q

what are the 5 unique mechanical demands of the TMJ?

A

1) continuous use
2) generalization of significant force
3) generalization of finely-tuned complex motions
4) bilateral motion-when one side moves, the other has to move too
5) location of pain isn’t always the origin of the problem

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2
Q

what kind of jt is the TMJ?

A

synovial jt with fibrocartilage

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3
Q

what are the 2 joint spaces of the TMJ?

A

1) superior jt space (gliding jt)- articular eminence and superior disc

2) inferior jt space (hinge jt)-condyle and inferior aspect of the disc

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4
Q

t/f: the periphery of the TMJ disc is vascular and innervated

A

true

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5
Q

where is the disc attached in the TMJ?

A

medial lateral poles of condyle of the mandible

anteriorly to lateral pterygoid and capsule

posteriorly to bilaminar retrodistal pad

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6
Q

what fibers keep the disc in place?

A

sharpeys fibers

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7
Q

what is the oblique portion of the lateral TMJ lig?

A

suspensory lig from the neck of the condyle to the articular eminence

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8
Q

what is the horizontal portion of the lateral TMJ lig?

A

lateral pole of the condyle/disc to articular eminence

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9
Q

what is the stylomadibular lig?

A

styloid process to posterior border of ramus

limits protrusion and produces posterior disc translation during closing

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10
Q

what is the sphenomandibular lig?

A

sphenoid to ramus

suspends the mandible and limits protrusion

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11
Q

what are the muscles of the TMJ?

A

masseter, temporalis, medial pterygoid, later pterygoid, suprahyoids, and infrahyoids

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12
Q

what is the strongest muscle in the body?

A

masseter

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13
Q

what is the main job of the masseter?

A

elevation and protrusion bilaterally

ipsilateral lateral deviation unilaterally

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14
Q

what is the rule of the jaw?

A

if a muscle attaches to the external mandible, it creates lateral deviation ipsilaterally

if a muscle attaches to the internal mandible it creates lateral deviation contralaterally

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15
Q

what does the temporalis do?

A

elevtates bilaterally

posterior fibers retruded

ipsilateral lateral deviation unilaterally

tenses as you close the jaw

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16
Q

jaw deviation to the L creates rotation at the __ condyle and rotation out the TMJ on the __

A

L, R

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17
Q

what does the medial pterygoid do?

A

elevates and protrudes bilaterally

contralateral lateral deviation unilaterally

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18
Q

what does the lateral pterygoid do?

A

contralateral lateral deviation unilaterally

protrusion bilaterally

the superior head controls disc w/closing

the inferior head resists opening ??

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19
Q

what do the suprahyoids do?

A

depress and retrude the jaw

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20
Q
A
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21
Q

what do the infrahyoids do?

A

stabilize the hyoid

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22
Q

what is the normal amount of jaw opening?

A

40-50 mm (3 finger width)

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23
Q

what is the normal amount of jaw opening during the rotation phase?

A

25 mm

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24
Q

what is the normal amount of jaw opening during the gliding phase?

A

15-25 mm

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25
Q

what occurs during the rotation phase of jaw opening?

A

anterior rotation of the condyle on the disc

occurs within the inferior jt space b/w the disc and condyle

1st phase of jaw opening

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26
Q

what is the 1st phase of jaw opening?

A

rotation

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27
Q

what occurs during the gliding phase of jaw opening?

A

translation of the disc-condyle complex

b/w the disc and eminence in the superior jt space

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28
Q

what occurs during mandibular elevation (jaw closing)?

A

opposite of depression (opening)

translation posteriorly

rotation of the condyle posteriorly on the disc

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29
Q

what occurs during mandibular protrusion?

A

condyle and disc translate along the articular eminence w/o rotation

superior jt space

glide and translation

retrodistal tissue stretches 6-9 mm to allow motion

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30
Q

what is the normal motion that allows upper and lower teeth to approximate edge to edege?

A

mandibular protrusion

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31
Q

what occurs during mandibular retrusion?

A

motion is limited by TM lig and retrodistal tissue

normally about 3 mm

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32
Q

what occurs during L mandibular lateral deviation?

A

L condyle spine and R condyle ant glide

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33
Q

what is the normal amount of mandibular lateral deviation?

A

8 mm (width of upper central incisors)

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34
Q

t/f: mandibular lateral deviation allows us to assess one jt motion at the TMJ

A

true

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35
Q

L lateral deviation tests __ TMJ motion

A

R

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36
Q

R lateral deviation tests __ TMJ motion

A

L

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37
Q

what happens at the superior jt of the TMJ?

A

gliding/translation

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38
Q

what happens at the inferior jt space of the TMJ

A

hinge

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39
Q

which jt space moves first in jaw opening?

A

the inferior jt space

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40
Q

what is the primary curve of the spine?

A

kyphosis (posterior convexity)

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41
Q

what part of the spine has a kyphotic curve?

A

thoracic spine

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42
Q

what is the secondary curve of the spine?

A

lordosis (anterior convexity)

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43
Q

what parts of the spine have lordotic curves?

A

cervical and lumbar spine

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44
Q

what is kypho-lordotic posture?

A

increased kyphosis and lordosis

increased forward bending in the thoracic spine

increased backward bending in the lumbar spine

LOG posterior to the lumbar spine and anterior to the thoracic spine

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45
Q

what is flat back posture?

A

decreased thoracic and lumbar curves leading to decreased shock absorption and increased kinetic forces

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46
Q

what is swayback posture?

A

increased lordosis

trunk offset posterior to hips

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47
Q

what is scoliosis?

A

lateral curvature of the spine (R and L)

accompanying rotation

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48
Q

what is the largest portion of the vertebrae?

A

the body

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49
Q

what makes up the anterior portion of the vertebrae?

A

the body and pedicle

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50
Q

what portion of the vertebrae transmits forces from the body to the posterior components?

A

pedicle

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51
Q

what part of the vertebrae dictate the type and amount of motion?

A

the facets

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52
Q

what part of the vertebrae forms a boney ring around the spinal canal?

A

lamina

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53
Q

what part of the spine had bifid spinous processes?

A

cervical

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54
Q

what provides passive stability if the spine?

A

capsuloligamentous complexes (CLC)

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55
Q

what is the role of spinal ligs?

A

passive tension

mechanoreceptive feedback

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56
Q

at what point in the range are ligaments engaged?

A

end range only!

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57
Q

at what point in the range are muscles engaged?

A

mid range

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58
Q

the anterior longitudinal lig increases in depth, breath, support, strength as it goes from ____ to ____

A

cervical, lumbar

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59
Q

the ant long lig is taught in ____ and slack in ____

A

extension, flexion

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60
Q

the posterior longitudinal ligament form the ____ wall of the spinal canal

A

anterior

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61
Q

what ligaments provide segmental stability in the spine?

A

supraspinous and intertransverse ligs

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62
Q

what does the supraspinous lig limit?

A

flexion

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63
Q

what does the intertransverse lig limit?

A

SB and some rot

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64
Q

what does the interspinous lig limit?

A

flexion

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65
Q

what is the ligamentum flavum?

A

paired lig from one lamina to the lamina below it

increases % elastin

helps with returning spinal segments to neutral

helps prevent impingement of capsule during triplanar motion

limits end range motions

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66
Q

is the intervertebral disc fibrocartilage or or hyaline cartilage?

A

fibrocartilage

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67
Q

t/f: the IV disc produces motion

A

false, it just helps direct and allow motion

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68
Q

what are the zones of the IV disc?

A

nucleus pulposus

inner nonfibrous annulus

annulus fibrosis

cartilaginous end plate

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69
Q

what is the nucleus pulposus?

A

decreased water content with age

central portion of the IV disc composed of hydrophilic proteoglycans

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70
Q

what is the annulus fibrosis?

A

type 1 and 2 CT arranged in concentric rings from oblique to more vertical fiber direction

contains the nucleus

has a good blood supply in peripheral disc

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71
Q

t/f: the IV disc fails from the inside out

A

true

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72
Q

t/f: pain occurs in the IV disc when it reaches the periphery

A

true

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73
Q

what are the functions of the IV disc?

A

allow motion through deformation

limit motion (primarily rotation)

maintains diameter of the IVF

transmits shock to vertebral bodies

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74
Q

what kind of jts are the facet jts?

A

synovial jt with CLC and menisci

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75
Q

what is the primary purpose of the facet jts?

A

direct and determines quantity of motion in each plane

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76
Q

t/f: facet jts absorb weight bearing forces

A

true

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77
Q

what is the orientation of the midcervical facet jts?

A

45 deg b/w frontal and transverse planes (upward slope)

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78
Q

what is the orientation of the thoracic facet jts?

A

frontal

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79
Q

what is the orientation of lumbar facet jts?

A

sagittal

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80
Q

what is the spinal motion segment?

A

info aspect of sup vertebra, sup aspect of inf vertebra, and everything that lies in b/w them

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81
Q

what happens in the spine during flexion?

A

compression of ant vertebral body and anterior disc

nucleus moves posterior

facet jts open up and IV foramen opens up

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82
Q

what happens in the spine during extension

A

closing foramen and facets

nucleus migrates anterior

annulus moves posterior

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83
Q

what is unique about the cervical spinous process?

A

bifurcated/forked

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84
Q

what is unique about the transverse processes in the cervical spine?

A

they have transverse foramen for vertebral arteries

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85
Q

what are the features of the atlas?

A

C1

ring of bone with no vertebral body

anterior arch w/facet for dens

posterior arch w/small bump like spinous process

lateral masses

inferior facets

very concave superior facets

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86
Q

what are the features of the axis?

A

the first palpable spinous process

dens

inf facet that behaves like the midcervical spine (45 deg b/w frontal and transverse)

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87
Q

what is the orientation of the cervical facet jts?

A

45 deg b/w transverse and frontal planes

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88
Q

what is the motion at the OA jt?

A

“yes” and “maybe” jt

sagittal and frontal plane motion

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89
Q

what kind of jt is the OA joint?

A

plane synovial jt

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90
Q

what are the jt surfaces of the OA jt?

A

convex occipital condyles and concave C1 superior facets (ball on saucer)

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91
Q

t/f: facets slope in inf direction medial to lateral in cervical facet jts

A

true

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92
Q

what is the job of the alar and transverse ligaments?

A

to prevent the dens from coming in contact w/the spinal cord

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93
Q

what is the job of the alar lig?

A

stability and guides motion

pulls C2 into place when taught

as you SB, it pulls C2 into rot

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94
Q

what motion occurs at the AA jt?

A

“no” jt

35-50% of all cervical rotation

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95
Q

what are the 3 jts at the AA jt?

A

2 facet jts (convex articular facets of C1 w/convex articular facets of C2-ball on ball)

1 central pivot jt (ant dens on ant arch of atlas and post dens on transverse lig)

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96
Q

what jt is like a ball on ball?

A

AA jt

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97
Q

what is the job of the transverse lig?

A

to keep the dens in close proximity to anterior arch to stop it from going back into neutral structures

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98
Q

what are the 2 components of the cruciform lig?

A

vertical and transverse components

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99
Q

what motions occur at the midcervical spine?

A

just up/down glide

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100
Q

what are the “laws” of cervical kinematics?

A

1) in the MC spine, SB and rotation are coupled and occur ipsilaterally

2) altas always follows the occiput

3) AA will attempt to keep the head facing forward during SB

4) OA will attempt to keep eyes level during rotation

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101
Q

what is functional cervical motion?

A

SB at MC spine and rotate at SO in the same direction

R SB (MC motion) and rotate R (AA jt)

L SB (MC) and rotate L (AA)

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102
Q

what is non-functional cervical motion?

A

SB at MC spine and rotate at SO in opposite direction

R SB (MC) and rotate L (AA)

L SB (MC) and rotate R (AA)

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103
Q

how much FB is there in the cervical spine?

A

80-90 deg

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104
Q

how much BB is there in the cervical spine?

A

70 deg

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105
Q

how much SB is there in the cervical spine?

A

20-45 deg

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106
Q

how much rotation is there in the cervical spine?

A

45 deg

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107
Q

during FB, what happens in the facet jts of the cervical spine?

A

inf facets slide up and forward on the sup facets

annulus bulges anterior and nucleus bulges posterior

spinal canal lengthens

IVF increases

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108
Q

during BB, what happens in the facet jts of the cervical spine?

A

inf facets slide back and down on sup facets

annulus bulges posterior, nucleus bulges anterior

IVF narrows

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109
Q

what occurs in the cervical spine with head retraction?

A

upper cervical flexion

lower cervical extension

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110
Q

what occurs in the cervical spine with head protraction?

A

upper cervical extension

lower cervical flexion

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111
Q

with R cervical rotation, what occurs in the facets?

A

R inf facets slide down and back

L inf facets slide up and forward

112
Q

with L cervical rotation, what occurs in the facets?

A

L inf facets slide down and back

R inf facets slide up and forward

113
Q

with R cervical SB, what occurs at the facets?

A

R inf facets slide down and back

L inf facets slide up and forward

114
Q

with L cervical SB, what occurs at the facets?

A

L inf facets slide down and back

R inf facets slide up and forward

115
Q

what is required for non-functional cervical SB?

A

need suboccipital and midcervical

116
Q

what is required for functional cervical SB?

A

midcervical only

117
Q

during cervical FB, the occiput rolls ____, glides ____

A

anterior, posterior

118
Q

what stops the atlas anteriorly during cervical FB?

A

transverse ligament

119
Q

does the atlas glide anteriorly or posteriorly during cervical FB?

A

anteriorly (follows the occiput)

120
Q

during cervical BB, the occiput rolls____, and glides ____

A

posterior, anterior

121
Q

what stops the atlas posteriorly during cervical BB?

A

the anterior arch

122
Q

does the atlas glide posteriorly or anteriorly during cervical BB?

A

posteriorly

123
Q

what occurs in non-functional cervical SB?

A

R SB=R rot (MC) and L rot (SO)

L SB=L rot (MC) and R rot (SO)

124
Q

what occurs in functional cervical SB?

A

R SB=R rot (MC) and R rot (SO)

L SB=L rot (MC) and L rot (SO)

125
Q

what occurs in cervical rotation?

A

R rot=R SB (MC) and L SB (SO)

L rot=L SB (MC) and R SB (SO)

126
Q

a decrease in R cervical SB may be due to what 2 things?

A

decrease in R downglide or L upglide

decrease in L rot at AA

127
Q

a decrease in R cervical rot may be due to what 2 things?

A

decrease in R downglide or L upglide

decrease in L SB at OA

128
Q

what provides dynamic stability of the cervical spine?

A

muscles!

129
Q

what muscles are most important for spinal stability?

A

deep

130
Q

what role do the larger, superficial muscles play?

A

large excursion (can contract 1/2 their length)

hypertrophy

131
Q

what role do the shorter, deeper muscles play?

A

stabilization!

force transducers

motor recruitment, motor learning, status and position of jt during movement

132
Q

what are the superficial neck flexors?

A

SCM (superficial) and scalenes (middle)

133
Q

which superficial neck flexor does contralateral rotation?

A

SCM

134
Q

what are the deep neck flexors?

A

longus capitis

longus colli

135
Q

what is the job of the deep neck flexors?

A

flexes the head on the neck

support of cervical lordosis

ipsilateral SB and rot

136
Q

what are the superficial neck extensors?

A

erector spinae (superficial)

splenius capitus (middle layer)

137
Q

what are the deep neck extensors?

A

multifidus and rotators (deepest)

semispinalis cervicis and capitus (middle)

138
Q

what is the orientation of the facet jts in the thoracic spine?

A

frontal

139
Q

what are the features of the thoracic spine?

A

demifacets on lat body

frontal plane facets

facets on transverse processes

140
Q

what do the demifacets articulate with?

A

the head of the ribs

141
Q

what do the facets of the transverse processes articulate with?

A

the tubercle of the rib

142
Q

t/f: you can mobilize the ribs to mobilize the vertebrae and vice versa

A

true

143
Q

rib 7 articulates with the demifacets of what vertebrae (costovertebral)?

A

T6 and T7

144
Q

the costotransverse jt at rib 7 articulates with what vertebrae?

A

T7

145
Q

what is Cloward’s sign?

A

piercing chest pain (like a heart attack) from thoracic IV disc damage

146
Q

what is the costovertebral jt?

A

the demifacets of the vertebrae articulating with the rib

147
Q

what is the costotransverse jt?

A

the transverse facets of the vertebrae articulating with the rib

148
Q

what is the chondrosternal jt?

A

the articulation bw chondral rib and sternum

ribs 1-7

149
Q

what ribs attach directly to the sternum?

A

ribs 1-7

150
Q

what ribs attach indirectly to the sternum?

A

ribs 8-10

151
Q

what ribs are floating?

A

ribs 11-12

152
Q

what is the interchondral jt?

A

the articulation b/w cartilage of ribs 8-10

153
Q

what is the costochondral jt?

A

the articulation b/w ribs and cartilage

154
Q

are the spinous processes of T1-3 at the same level, 1/2 level below, or a full level below?

A

at the same level

155
Q

are the spinous processes of T4-6 at the same level, 1/2 level below, or a full level below?

A

1/2 level

156
Q

are the spinous processes of T7-9 at the same level, 1/2 level below, or a full level below?

A

full level below

157
Q

is the spinous process of T10 at the same level, 1/2 level below, or a full level below

A

full level below

158
Q

is the spinous process of T11 at the same level, 1/2 level below, or a full level below

A

1/2 level below

159
Q

is the spinous process of T12 at the same level, 1/2 level below, or a full level below

A

same level

160
Q

what are the “laws” of thoracic spine kinematics?

A

1) if SB is primary motion=rot in opposite direction

2) if rot is primary=SB in same direction

3) accessory translation=opposite direction of rot

161
Q

is the pump handle motion of the rib cage in the sagittal, frontal, or transverse plane?

A

sagittal

162
Q

does the pump handle motion of the rib cage occur in the upper ribs, middle ribs, or lower ribs?

A

upper ribs

163
Q

is the bucket handle motion of the rib cage in the sagittal, frontal, or transverse plane?

A

frontal

164
Q

does the bucket handle motion of the rib cage occur in the upper ribs, middle ribs, or lower ribs?

A

middle (4-10)

165
Q

is the caliper motion of the rib cage in the sagittal, frontal, or transverse plane?

A

transverse (open and close motion)

166
Q

does the caliper motion of the rib cage occur in the upper ribs, middle ribs, or lower ribs?

A

lower, floating ribs (11-12)

167
Q

t/f: the diaphragm is utilized for quiet ventilation

A

true

168
Q

t/f: there are no primary muscles for expiration bc it’s passive at rest

A

true

169
Q

during inspiration, the diaphragm _____, during expiration, the diaphragm ____

A

flattens, returns to normal

170
Q

why are respiratory infection common with ribcage pathology?

A

bc they can’t fully inhale

171
Q

what is the orientation of the external abdominals?

A

like hands in pockets

outward of the midline, like hands in a V?

172
Q

what is the orientation of the internal abdominals?

A

perpendicular to the external abdominals

in towards the belly bottom, like hands in a triangle pointing up?

173
Q

t/f: the pelvic girdle is a closed system of interdependent jts

A

true

174
Q

what kind of jt is the sacroiliac jt (SI jt)?

A

synovial anteriorly, syndesmotic (like skull sutures) posteriorly

175
Q

does the SI jt provide more mobility or stability?

A

stability

176
Q

how much motion is there at the SI jt?

A

4-20 deg motion

.5-7mm motion

177
Q

where can motion of the SI jt be felt?

A

PSIS

178
Q

ppl often use the SI jt for too much motion when?

A

with tight hips and hamstrings

179
Q

does more motion at the SI jt occur anteriorly or posteriorly?

A

anteriorly

180
Q

what is the form closure of the sacrum?

A

the wedge structure of the sacrum creates closure for the jt and less motion due to its form

181
Q

t/f: there is controversy regarding the topography (arrangement) of the SI jt

A

true

182
Q

although there is controversy surrounding the axis of rotation of the SI jt, is the motion most likely in the sagittal, transverse, or frontal plane?

A

sagittal

183
Q

t/f: the SI jt is a straight jt line

A

false, it is an auricular shape (like an ear)

184
Q

t/f: the SI jt likely encapsulates S1-3

A

true

185
Q

is the anterior or posterior aspect of the SI jt wider?

A

the anterior aspect

186
Q

describe the shape of the sacrum

A

an inverted triangle

187
Q

is the base of the sacrum the top or bottom?

A

the top

188
Q

is the apex of the sacrum the top or bottom?

A

the bottom

189
Q

facets of the sacrum move in what plane?

A

the frontal plane

190
Q

what prevents spondylosthesis (frontal slippage) of the sacrum?

A

the frontal plane motion at the facets

191
Q

what is the median sacral crest?

A

the ridge down the center of the posterior sacrum

192
Q

what is the sacral sulcus?

A

the dimples just medial to the PSIS

193
Q

what would prominent sacral sulci be indicative of?

A

malposition of the sacrum

194
Q

what is the inferior lateral angle (ILA)?

A

the edge of the sacrum lateral and superior to the apex

195
Q

what do the sacrotuberus lig and pelvis form?

A

the greater sciatic foramen

196
Q

what do the sacrospinous and sacrotuberus ligs form?

A

the lesser sciatic foramen

197
Q

does the piriformis pass through the greater or lesser sciatic foramen?

A

greater

198
Q

t/f: the post interosseous SIJ lig combines with the sacrotuberous lig to form a network of stabilization

A

true

199
Q

t/f: the long dorsal lig blends with the post interosseous lig and sacrotuberous lig

A

true

200
Q

do the posterior or anterior ligaments of the sacrum provide greater support

A

posterior ligs

201
Q

what is the pubic symphysis?

A

amphiarthrodial, cartilagenous jt with a fibrocartilagenous disc and hyaline cartilage covering the articular surfaces

202
Q

what provides anterior stability at the pubic symphysis?

A

muscular expansions

203
Q

t/f: motion at the pubic symphysis occurs through tissue deformation rather than true jt excursion

A

true

204
Q

what is a critical structure in maintaining the closure of the pelvis?

A

the pubic symphysis

205
Q

what is the role of the pubic symphysis?

A

to absorb, direct, control, restrict, and stabilize motions

206
Q

what happens to the lumbo-pelvic-hip complex during flexion?

A

anterior compression, posterior distraction

some rotation and translation

opens the foramen and facets

posterior glide of nucleus

207
Q

what happens to the lumbo-pelvic-hip complex during extension?

A

anterior distraction, posterior compression

closes foramen and facets

anterior glide of nucleus

208
Q

in what direction do most herniations in the spine occur?

A

posterolateral

209
Q

do ppl with disc pathology tend to prefer flexion or extension?

A

extension

210
Q

do ppl with arthritis in facet jts tend to prefer flexion or extension?

A

flexion

211
Q

what happens in type 1 (non-functional) lumbar SB?

A

SB/rot to opposite sides with a neutral spine

R SB=L rot

L SB=R rot

212
Q

t/f: lumbar motions are combined, not coupled bc there are changes based on functional demands

A

true

212
Q

what occurs in type 2 (functional) lumbar SB?

A

SB/rot to same side out of neutral spine

R SB=R rot

L SB=L rot

213
Q

with R lumbar SB, do the R and L facets open or close?

A

R closes, L opens

214
Q

with L lumbar SB, do the R and L facets open or close?

A

R opens, L closes

215
Q

with R lumbar rot, do the R and L facets open or close?

A

R opens, L closes

216
Q

with L lumbar rot, do the R and L facets open or close?

A

R closes, L opens

217
Q

what is the position of max closing R in triplanar in the lumbar spine?

A

R SB (frontal), L rot (transverse), and extension (sagittal)

218
Q

what is the position of max closing L in triplanar in the lumbar spine?

A

L SB (frontal), R rot (transverse), and extension (sagittal)

219
Q

what is the position of max opening R in triplanar in the lumbar spine?

A

L SB (frontal), R rot (transverse), flexion (sagittal)

220
Q

what is the position of max opening L in triplanar in the lumbar spine?

A

R SB (frontal), L rot (transverse), flexion (sagittal)

221
Q

what is iliosacral movement?

A

the illium moving on the sacrum

222
Q

what is the point of reference for iliosacral motion? (KNOW THIS)

A

the ASIS!!!!!

223
Q

what are the 3 rules of iliosacral kinematics? (KNOW THIS)

A

1) IS motion reference point is ASIS

2) illium is linked to the hip and they move together

3) motion occurs in triplanar fashion w/most motion in the sagittal plane

224
Q

what is the illium linked to?

A

the hip

225
Q

where does most IS motion occur?

A

in the sagittal plane

226
Q

what IS motions occur in the sagittal plane?

A

ant/post rotation (tilt)

227
Q

in anterior rotation, how does the ASIS move?

A

ant and inf

228
Q

when the hip flexors are tight, what sagittal plane IS motion occurs

A

ant rot

229
Q

in posterior rotation, how does the ASIS move?

A

post and sup

230
Q

when the hamstrings are tight, what sagittal plane IS motion occurs?

A

post rot

231
Q

what IS motions occur in the transverse plane?

A

outflare and inflare

232
Q

in outflare, how does the ASIS move?

A

points out

233
Q

what hip motion is associated with outflare?

A

ER

234
Q

in inflare, how does the ASIS move?

A

points in

235
Q

what hip motion is associated with inflare?

A

IR

236
Q

what IS motions occur in the frontal plane?

A

upslip and downslip

237
Q

does the weightbearing side upslip or downslip?

A

upslip

238
Q

does the nonweightbearing side upslip or downslip?

A

downslip

239
Q

which motion of the hip creates post rot?

A

hip flexion

240
Q

which motion of the hip creates ant rot?

A

hip extension

241
Q

in gait, what IS motions are coupled on one side while the other side does the opposite?

A

upslip, outflare, and post rot

242
Q

what are the 3 rules of sacroiliac (SI) kinematics?

A

1) landmark of SI movement=base of sacrum looking anteriorly

2) SI is linked to lumbar spine=when lbar spine moves, sacrum moves

3) sacrum moves in reference to S5 (exception in sagittal plane)

243
Q

when the lumbar spine flexes, what SI motion occurs?

A

extension

244
Q

when the lumbar spine extends, what SI motion occurs?

A

flexion

245
Q

what is the landmark of SI motion?

A

base of the sacrum looking anteriorly

246
Q

what is sacroiliac motion?

A

the sacrum moving on the ilia

247
Q

what SI motions occur in the transverse plane?

A

rotation following the lumbar spine

248
Q

if the lumbar spine rotates R, what SI motion occurs?

A

R sacral rotation

249
Q

if the lumbar spine rotates L, what SI motion occurs?

A

L sacral rotation

250
Q

what SI motion occurs in the sagittal plane?

A

flex/ex

251
Q

what is torsion?

A

triplanar motion of the SI jt

252
Q

what are the axes of torsion?

A

R oblique axis through R SIJ

L oblique axis through L SIJ

253
Q

when moving forward on the ROA, what motion happens with the sulcus?

A

the L sulcus gets deeper

254
Q

when moving forward on the LOA, what motion happens with the sulcus?

A

the R sulcus gets deeper

255
Q

when moving backward on the ROA, what motion happens with the sulcus?

A

the L sulcus becomes more prominent

256
Q

when moving backward on the LOA, what motion happens with the sulcus?

A

the R sulcus becomes more prominent

257
Q

more than how many mm of pubic symphysis separation is abnormal?

A

> 3 mm

258
Q

what is the landmark of pubic symphysis motion?

A

the anterior pubic ramus

259
Q

what motions occur at the pubic symphysis?

A

sup/inf translation

upward/downward rotation

separation

260
Q

should trunk muscles be activating before or after limb movement? (KNOW THIS)

A

before !!!!

261
Q

with LBP, there is ___ abdominal strength and ____ extensor activity

A

decreased, increased

262
Q

what is the cycle of pain in LBP?

A

pain causes a delay in trunk muscles activation which causes even more pain, continuing the cycle

263
Q

t/f: timing of motor recruitment is the solution to LBP

A

true

264
Q

do the lumbar flexors and extensors produce compression or tension forces?

A

compressive

265
Q

t/f: the lumbar flexors produce anti-gravity flexion and/or pelvic post rot

A

true

266
Q

are the lumbar flexors or extensors active when flexing the trunk from erect standing?

A

the extensors are active eccentrically

267
Q

are we better at using our deep or superficial muscles?

A

superficial

268
Q

do the thoracic or lumbar extensors have a greater % of type 1 fibers?

A

thoracic extensors

269
Q

what motions do the lumbar extensors produce?

A

trunk extension and increased lordosis

270
Q

t/f: the lumbar extensors limit anterior translation during forward bending

A

true

271
Q

what is the result of increased tension on any wall of the abdomen?

A

increased internal pressure

272
Q

how can we activate the transverse abdominals?

A

pull the belly button up to the ribs

273
Q

what does pulling the belly button up the ribs do?

A

engages the pelvis floor and multifidus

creates an environment of stability

274
Q

how can we engage the multifidus?

A

by drawing in the transverse abdominals

DPT 502 (9 decks)

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