Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

DPT 502 > Quiz 2 > Flashcards

Quiz 2 Flashcards

1
Q

what is an isometric exercise?

A

contraction with no length change

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what is a concentric exercise?

A

contraction against gravity with the muscle getting shorter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

is concentric contraction positive or negative work?

A

positive work bc motion is produced by the muscle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what is an eccentric exercise?

A

contraction with gravity where the muscle is getting longer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

is eccentric contraction positive or negative work?

A

negative work bc the external force is responsible for motion done by the muscle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what is an isokinetic exercise?

A

constant rate of movement

zero acceleration

usually can’t generate this contraction and have to use a machine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

in isometrics, muscle torque is _____ the load torque

A

=

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

in concentrics, muscle torque is ____ the load torque

A

>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

in eccentrics, muscle torque is ____ the load torque

A

<

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

predicting muscles function is simple when….

A

proximal attachment is stabilized

distal attachment moves towards proximal (often OKC)

distal segment moves against gravity (concentric)

acceleration activity

3rd class lever

muscle provides a moving force

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

muscles often function as follows:

A

proximal attachments moves towards distal attachment (often CKC)

distal segment motion may be assisted by gravity (eccentric)

deceleration activity

2nd class lever

muscle provides a resistance force

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what are type 1 muscle fibers

A

slow twitch

fatigue resistant

small amount of forces

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what are type 2a fibers?

A

fast twitch

oxidative

mix of 1 and 2b

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what are type 2b muscles fibers?

A

fast twitch

glycolytic

least fatigue resistance

good for explosive movements and large force generations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

how do muscles fibers change as you age?

A

there is a preferential loss of type 2 fibers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what are postural muscles?

A

muscles that maintain posture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what type of fibers are postural muscles?

A

type 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what muscles are postural muscles?

A

trunk extensors, abdominal muscles, hamstrings, quads, glutes, cervical flexors, delts, soleus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what are phasic muscles

A

muscles that contract rapidly and generate a lot of fibers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

what type of fiber are phasic muscles?

A

type 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

what muscles are phasic muscles?

A

gastrocs, biceps, upper extremity flexors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

what is an agonist?

A

prime mover

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

what is an antagonist?

A

muscle that produces opposite actions of the prime mover and resist movement if activated

usually reciprocal inhibition of antagonist or co-contraction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

what is a synergist muscle?

A

muscles that helps the agonist action

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

what are the 2 subcategories of synergists?

A

stabilizers and neutralizers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

what are stabilizers?

A

muscles that stabilize the proximal jt for distal jt movement

usually act isometrically

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

what are neutralizers

A

muscles that stop unwanted movement of the agonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

what is co-contraction?

A

muscles contracting together to stabilize a limb so that the distal movement can occur

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

what are the 8 factors that affect muscles strength/performance?

A
  1. muscle size
  2. architecture of muscle fibers
  3. passive components of the muscle
  4. physiological length of the muscles/length-tension relationship of the muscle
  5. moment arm length
  6. speed of muscle contraction
  7. active tension
  8. age and gender
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

how does muscle size affect muscle strength/performance?

A

shorter=stability
longer=mobility

hypertrophy adds fibers in parallel making a wider stronger muscle

atrophy causes loss of muscles bulk and strength

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

what are fusiform muscles?

A

fascicles are long and parallel

limited force generating capabilities

very good at shortening muscles distance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

what is an example of a fusiform muscles in the body?

A

sartorius

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

what are pennate muscles?

A

parallel fibers attach at oblique angle to a common tendon

shorter muscles

greater force producing capabilities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

what is a uni-pennate muscle?

A

one group of fibers attaching to 1 common tendon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

what is a bi-pennate muscle?

A

2 groups of fibers heading to one common tendon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

what is a multipennate muscle?

A

more than 2 groups of fibers on multiple tendons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

what are some examples of bi-pennate muscles in the body?

A

gastrocs, rectus femoris, dorsal head of interossei of hands

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

what is an example of a multi-pennate muscle in the body?

A

the deltoids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

do fusiform or pennate muscles have greater force generating capabilities?

A

pennate muscles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

what are the passive components of muscles?

A

parallel elastic component

length tension relationship

series elastic component

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

what is the parallel elastic component of muscle?

A

passive components are arranged in parallel to muscle fibers that passively shorten and lengthen with the muscle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

what are the fascicle layers?

A

epimesium, perimesium, and endomysium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

what is the length tension relationship component of muscles?

A

the greatest tension for optimal force generation is b/w 80-120% of resting muscle length

passive tension only exists past 100% resting length, so a slightly stretches muscles will have the greatest force producing capabilities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

t/f: passive tension only exists past 100% resting length

A

true!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

what is the series elastic component of muscles?

A

the arrangement is tendon-muscle-tendon attached in series

tendons don’t contract, they just get pulled on when muscle length changes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

what is the moment arm component of muscles?

A

100% muscles force rotates the jt when the insertion is parallel to the bone segment

angle of insertion influences torque

more extension=mostly compression and some rotation

lots of flexion=little rotation, mostly distraction

more than 90 deg, less than 120 deg=50/50 rotation/distraction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

what is age and gender component of muscle?

A

both girls and boys have similar grip strength until puberty, when boys tend to gain greater grip strength

peak 20-30 followed by gradual decrease in both sexes

has a lot to do with hormones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

what is functional excursion?

A

muscles having a sufficient amount of length to complete activities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

70% of resting muscles length is the muscle’s ability to ____

A

shorten

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

what are the 2 components of muscles excursion?

A

active and passive insufficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

what is active insufficiency?

A

the inability of a multi joint muscle to shorten simulataneously at all jts.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

what is an example of active insufficiency in the body?

A

weak grip resulting from wrist and fingers flexion bc the muscles are maximally shortened

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

active insufficiency position for 1 muscle will put the antagonist in _____ _______ position

A

passive insufficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

why can’t muscles contract anymore in active insufficiency?

A

there’s no room to create more cross bridges

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

what is passive insufficiency?

A

inability of a multijoint muscle to lengthen simultaneously at all joints

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

why can’t muscles lengthen anymore in passive insufficiency?

A

bc there is no overlap b/w actin and myosin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

what is an example of passive insufficiency in the body?

A

when you can’t extend your fingers as much with the wrist also extended

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

when a muscle is in passive insufficiency, the antagonist is in _____ ______

A

active insufficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

muscle end range is …

A

passive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

muscle function is …

A

active

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

what is a tenodesis grip?

A

when the wrist is fully flexed, the fingers extend and when the wrist is fully extended the fingers flex

this can be used when there is wrist function available but not finger function in order to grip things

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

what is the function of the shoulder complex?

A

to place and move the UE in space for function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

what are the bones of the shoulder complex?

A

sternum, scapula, clavicle, and humerus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

what are the 4 joints of the shoulder complex?

A

SC joint

AC joint

GH joint

sternothoracic joint

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

what is the only bony attachment of the UE to the axial skeleton?

A

the SC joint

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

the long axis of the clavicle is about ____deg to the frontal plane

A

20

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

why is the clavicle 20 deg to the frontal plane?

A

the angle increased GH mobility to permit greater reaching and climbing motion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

what is the functional significance of the scapula?

A

placement of the glenoid fossa

mechanical advantages

arm elevation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

what is the function of the glenoid fossa labrum?

A

to deepen the concave surface

increase congruency and contact area to decrease pressure and improved shock absorption

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

what is the function of bursa?

A

cushion, lubrication, decrease friction, smoother scap movement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

what kind of joint is the SC joint?

A

a sellar (saddle) jt with 3 DF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

is the SC jt a synovial joint?

A

yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

t/f: almost all US motion impact the SC jt

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

what are the 2 ways the SC is divided?

A

b/w the disc and clavicle

b/w the disc and sternum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

describe the surfaces of the SC joint

A

both surfaces have a concave and a convex portion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

the manubrium is convex on the ____ axis and concave on the _____ axis

A

AP, vertical

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

how many DF does the SC joint have?

A

3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

what are the motions of the SC joint?

A

elevation-depression (frontal plane, z axis)

protraction-retraction
(transverse plane, y axis)

transverse rotation
(long axis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

describe the roll and glide of the SC joint with elevation

A

superior roll

inferior glide

(opposite directions bc the convex clavicle is moving on the concave manubrium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

describe the roll and glide for the SC joint with depression

A

inferior roll

superior glide

(opposite directions bc the convex clavicle is moving on the concave manubrium)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

describe the roll and glide of the SC joint with retraction

A

posterior roll and glide

(same direction bc the concave clavicle is moving on the convex sternum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

retraction is limited by the ____ SC ligament

A

anterior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

protraction is limited by the ____ SC ligament

A

posterior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

describe the roll and glide of the SC joint with protraction

A

anterior roll and glide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

what type of cartilage is the articular disc of the SC joint?

A

hyaline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

what is the function of the articular disc of the SC joint?

A

shock absorption, congruency, prevents clavicle from sliding over the manubrium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

the anterior and posterior SC ligaments protect against what direction of stresses?

A

anterior-posterior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

what motions do the anterior and posterior SC ligaments restrict?

A

protraction and retraction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

what is the function of the interclavicular SC ligament?

A

it prevents upward displacement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

what is the function of the costoclavicular ligament?

A

to restrict elevation, transverse and AP rotation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

what muscles stabilize the SC joint?

A

sternothyroid, sternohyoid, SCM, and subclavius muscles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

what is the role of the SCM muscle?

A

it reinforces the SC jt capsule and ligaments

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

SCM

A

O: sternal head and clavicular head

I: mastoid process

A: shoulder elevation, anterior flexion, lateral flexion, and rotation in the opposite direction

N: accessory nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

what is torticollis?

A

paralysis/tightness of the SCM due to womb positioning or difficulty in labor usually with no neuro symptoms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

t/f: the shape of the clavicle and rotation improves scapular elevation

A

true!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

the clavicle rotates _____ when elevating the arm over 90 deg of shoulder elevation

A

posteriorly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

what kind of jt is the AC jt?

A

a plane synovial joint

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

t/f: there is not much movement at the AC joint

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

what kind of cartilage lines the AC joint?

A

fibrocartilage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

the acromial end of the AC jt faces ____ and _____

A

medially, superiorly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

the clavicular end of the AC jt faces ____ and ____

A

laterally, inferiorly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

what is the function of the AC jt?

A

position modifier/fine tuner of GH movement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

how many DF does the AC jt have?

A

3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

what are the osteokinematics motions of the AC jt?

A

elevation-depression

protraction-retraction

upward-downward rotation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

what is the function of the coracoclavicular ligaments?

A

prevent superior dislocation of the AC jt

produce rotation of the clavicle and limits rotation of the scap

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

what are the 2 coracoclavicular ligaments?

A

trapezoid (lateral) and coracoid (medial) ligaments

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

what muscles stabilize the AC jt?

A

deltoids and upper trap

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

t/f: the scapulothoracic jt is not an anatomic jt

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

what are the functions of the scapulothoracic jt?

A

increase shoulder ROM

maintain favorable length-tension relationship for the delts above 90 deg to optimize shoulder stability

provide GH stability by maintaining jt alignment

injury prevention through shock absorption

permit elevation of the body in CKC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

what are the osteokinematic motions of the scapulothoracic jt?

A

scapular elevation-depression

scapular protraction-retraction

scapular upward-downward rotation

scapular tilt

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

t/f: the scapula gets more elevation motion than depression motion?

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

does the scapula get more protraction or retraction?

A

protraction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

where is the scapular plane?

A

about 40 deg anterior to the frontal plane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

with upward rotation, what are the SC and AC jt motions?

A

SC-elevation

AC-rotate upward and anterior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

anterior scapular tilt creates what SC and AC jt motions?

A

anterior rotation

116
Q

posterior scapular tilt creates what SC and AC jt motions?

A

posterior rotation

117
Q

what are the muscles stabilizing the scapula?

A

traps, levator scap, rhomboids, serratus anterior, pec minor

118
Q

upper trap

A

O: occiput, ligament nuchae
I: outer 1/3 clavicle, acromion
A: scapular elevation and upward rotation
N: accessory

119
Q

middle trap

A

O: C7-T3 spinous processes
I: scapular spine
A: scapular retraction
N: accessory

120
Q

lower trap

A

O: mid-low thoracic spinous processes
I: base of scapular spine
A: scapular depression and upward rotation
N: accessory

121
Q

levator scapula

A

O: C1-4 transverse processes
I: vertebral border of the scapula b/w the spine and superior angle
A: scapular elevation and downward rotation
N: dorsal scapular

122
Q

rhomboids

A

O: C7-T5 spinous processes
I: vertebral border scapula b/w spine and inferior angle
A: scapular retraction and downward rotation
N: dorsal scapular

123
Q

serratus anterior

A

O: lateral surface of 1st 8 ribs
I: anterior surface of vertebral border of scap
A: scapular protraction and upward rotation
N: long thoracic

124
Q

what muscle is weakened in scapular winging?

A

the serratus anterior

125
Q

what is the force couple of upward scapular rotation?

A

the upper trap pulls up on the lateral margin of the scap

the lower trap pulls downward on the scap spine

the serratus anterior pulls up on the inferior angle/lateral margin of the scap

126
Q

pec minor

A

O: anterior surface of ribs 3-5
I: coracoid process
A: scapular depression, downward rotation, and scapular tilt
N: medial pectoral

127
Q

what is the force couple of downward rotation of the scapula?

A

the levator scap pull up on the medial superior border of the scap

the rhomboids pulls up on the medial inferior border of the scapula

the pec minor pulls down on the lateral border of the scapula

128
Q

what are the prime movers of scapular elevation?

A

upper trap

levator scap

rhomboids

129
Q

what are the prime movers of scapular depression?

A

lower trap

pec minor

lower serratus anterior

130
Q

what are the prime movers of scapular protraction?

A

serratus anterior

pec minor

131
Q

what are the prime movers of scapular upward rotation?

A

upper trap

lower trap

serratus anterior

132
Q

what are the prime movers of scapular downward rotation?

A

levator scap

rhomboids

pec minor

133
Q

what is the prime mover of scapular tilt?

A

pec minor

134
Q

what are the prime movers of scapular retraction?

A

mid trap

rhomboids

135
Q

what kind of jt is the GH jt?

A

synovial ball and socket jt

136
Q

the GH joint is mostly for providing mobility or stability?

A

mobility

137
Q

how many DF does the GH jt have?

A

3

138
Q

what are the osteokinematic motions of the GH jt?

A

flexion-extension
(sag, x)

abduction-adduction
(front, z)

medial-lateral rotation
(tran, y)

horizontal abduction-adduction
(tran, y)

139
Q

does the humeral head face slightly forward or backward?

A

backward (retroverted)

140
Q

how does the humerus face?

A

retroverted, up, and medially

141
Q

what is the role of the rostral/caudal rotation of the humerus?

A

so the humerus can resist greater twisting forces

puts the elbow in the appropriate angle

142
Q

what is the function of the soft tissue at the GH jt?

A

to put the hand where it needs to be

143
Q

what are the ligaments of the GH jt?

A

glenohumeral

coracohumeral

coracoacromial

144
Q

what is the significance of the coracoacromial arch and ligament?

A

it provides a very small space for tendons including the rotator cuff tendons to pass through

it has an increased tendency to get swollen and causes subacromial impingement

145
Q

how many bursae are at the GH joint?

A

8

146
Q

what is the function of negative pressure at the GH jt?

A

it keeps the head of the humerus in the glenoid fossa in addition to the muscle activity

147
Q

what is a location of weakness in the GH j capsule?

A

the foramen of Weitbrecht

148
Q

what is the foramen of Weitbrecht?

A

an area of weakness of the GH capsule and frequent site of anterior dislocation of the humerus

149
Q

what is normal flexion at the GH jt?

A

180 deg

150
Q

what is normal extension at the GH jt?

A

65 deg (passive)
80 deg (active)

151
Q

what is the normal abduction at the GH jt?

A

180 deg

152
Q

what is normal internal rotation at the GH jt?

A

70 deg

153
Q

what is normal external rotation at the GH jt?

A

90 deg

154
Q

what is OPP of the GH jt?

A

20-30 deg horizontal abduction
55 deg flexion

155
Q

what is CPP of the GH jt?

A

full abduction
full lateral rotation

156
Q

what OPP of the SC jt?

A

arm resting at the side

157
Q

what is CPP of the SC jt?

A

arm in full elevation

158
Q

what is OPP of the AC jt?

A

arm resting at the side

159
Q

what is CPP of the AC jt?

A

arm at 90 deg abduction

160
Q

what is scapulohumeral rhythm?

A

for every 1 degree of scap motion there is 2 degrees of GH motion after 30 degrees of abduction

161
Q

when does scapular motion kick in in abduction?

A

after the 1st 30 deg

162
Q

what scapular motions accompany GH flexion?

A

upward rotation

pronation

elevation

163
Q

what scapular motions accompany GH extension?

A

downward rotation

retraction

depression

164
Q

what scapular motions accompany GH abduction?

A

upward rotation

elevation

maybe protraction???

165
Q

what scapular motions accompany GH adduction?

A

downward rotation

depression

maybe retraction????

166
Q

what scapular motions accompany GH lateral rotation?

A

retraction

167
Q

what scapular motions accompany GH medial rotation?

A

protraction

168
Q

what scapular motions accompany GH horizontal abduction?

A

retraction

169
Q

what scapular motions accompany GH horizontal adduction?

A

protraction

170
Q

what is the function of the rotator cuff?

A

to depress the humeral head into the glenoid fossa

provide GH motion

171
Q

what is the only SITS muscles that inserts on the lesser tubercle of the humerus?

A

subscap

172
Q

supraspinatus

A

O: supraspinous fossa
I: greater tubercle
A: stabilize GH jt, GH abduction
N: suprascapular

173
Q

how is the supraspinatus palpated?

A

in prone with the arm off the table

small bursts of abduction

174
Q

what is the supraspinatus outlet?

A

the subacromial space below the coracoacromial arch

175
Q

infraspinatus

A

O: infraspinous fossa
I: greater tubercle
A: stabilize GH jt, GH lat rot, hor abd
N: suprascapular

176
Q

teres minor

A

O: axillary border of the scap
I: greater tubercle
A: stabilize GH jt, GH lat rot, hor abd
N: axillary

177
Q

what is a synergist to the infraspinatus?

A

the teres minor

178
Q

subscapularis

A

O: subscap fossa
I: lesser tubercle
A: stabilize GH jt, med rot
N: subscapular

179
Q

deltoid

A

O: ant: lat 1/3 clavicle
mid: acromion
post: scap spine
I: deltoid tuberosity
A: all: GH abd
ant: flex, med rot, hor abd
mid: abd only
post: ext, lat rot, hor abd
N: axillary

180
Q

t/f: the ant and post deltoids are neutralizers of GH abd

A

true

181
Q

pec major

A

O: clavicular: mid 1/3 clavicle
sternocostal: sternum, 1-6 ribs
I: lat lip of bicipital groove
A: clavicular: 1st 60 deg flex
sternocostal: 1st 60 deg ex
both: GH add, med rot, hor add
N: pectoral

182
Q

how do you show the pec major 2 heads?

A

put one fist on top of the other and push them into each other

the one pushing down is showing the sternocostal portion?

the one pushing up is showing the clavicular portion?

183
Q

coracobrachialis

A

O: coronoid process
I: mid humerus medially
A: GH flex
N: musculocutaneous

184
Q

how is the coracobrachialis palpated?

A

with a flexed elbow to try and remove the biceps

185
Q

latissimus dorsi

A

O: T7-12, posterior sacrum, illiac crest, and lower 3 ribs and some of inferior scap angle
I: med lip of bicipital groove of humerus
A: GH ext, add, med rot, and scap depression (reverse in CKC)
N: thoracodorsal

186
Q

teres major

A

O: axillary border of scap near inf angle
I: lesser tubercle, below lats attachment
A: GH ext, add, med rot
N: subscapular

187
Q

what are the prime movers of GH extension?

A

lats, teres major, post delt, pec major (sternocostal)

188
Q

what are the prime movers of GH flexion?

A

coracobrachialis, ant delt, pec major (clav)

189
Q

what are the prime movers of GH abduction?

A

mid delt, supraspinatus

190
Q

what are the prime movers of GH adduction?

A

pec major, lats, teres major

191
Q

what are the prime movers of GH lateral rotation?

A

teres minor, infraspinatus, post delt

192
Q

what are the prime movers of GH medial rotation?

A

subscap, ant delt, lats, teres major, pec major

193
Q

what are the prime movers of GH horizontal abduction?

A

post delt, infraspinatus, teres minor

194
Q

what are the prime movers of GH horizontal adduction?

A

ant delt, pec major

195
Q

what is a subluxation?

A

partial dissociation of articular surfaces common with low muscle tone

196
Q

what is a dislocation?

A

complete dissociation of the articular surfaces that can also include labral tears and capsule damage

197
Q

which is worse a subluxation or dislocation?

A

a dislocation

198
Q

what results in subacromial impingement syndrome?

A

limited medial rotation and abduction due to impingement

199
Q

what is one of the most commonly diagnosed shoulder injuries?

A

subacromial impingement syndrome

200
Q

what is a rotator cuff tear?

A

a tear of one or all SITS muscles/tendons especially with overhead and throwing motions

201
Q

what is bicipital tendinitis?

A

inflammation of the tendon passing through the bicipital groove (long head of biceps tendon)

202
Q

what is adhesive capsulitis?

A

frozen shoulder

203
Q

what are the 3 jts in the elbow?

A

humeroulnar
humeroradial
radioulnar

204
Q

what are the motions of the humeroulnar jt?

A

flex/ex (sag, x)

205
Q

what are the motions of the humeroradial jt?

A

flex/ex (sag, x)

206
Q

what are the motions of the radioulnar jt?

A

pronation/supination (tran, y)

207
Q

what are the functions of the elbow jts?

A

stability via bony configuration and soft tissue

mobility via muscular pull or multi-jt function

208
Q

what side is the trochlea of the humerus on?

A

medial above the ulna

209
Q

what side is the capitulum of the humerus on?

A

lateral above the radius

210
Q

the axis of flex/ex at the elbow is through what 2 landmarks?

A

the trochlea and capitulum

211
Q

what tendons attach to the medial epicondyle?

A

wrist flexors and pronators

flexor carpi radialis, flexor carpi ulnaris, flexor disitorum profundus, flexor digitorum superficialis

212
Q

what tendons attach to the lateral epicondyle?

A

wrist extensors and supinators

213
Q

why are the epicondyles a frequent site for pathologic changes?

A

bc of overuse

214
Q

where is the elbow the most stable?

A

at full extension or the last 20% of flexion????

215
Q

when do ligaments provide the elbow with the most support?

A

at greater than 20% flexion

216
Q

what kind of jts are the humeroulnar and humeroradial jts?

A

hinge jts

217
Q

how many DF do the HR and HU jts have?

A

1

218
Q

what is normal flexion at the elbow?

A

145-160 deg

219
Q

what is normal extension at the elbow?

A

0 deg

220
Q

what landmark of the elbow is more distal, the capitulum or trochlea?

A

trochlea

221
Q

the distal humerus is rotated ____ and the proximal ulna is rotated ____

A

anteriorly, posteriorly

222
Q

what is the carrying angle?

A

the angle b/w the long axis of the humerus and long axis of the forearm

223
Q

what is a normal carrying angle?

A

5-15 deg

224
Q

what is cubitus valgus?

A

an increased carrying angle

30 deg

forearm is more laterally headed

225
Q

what is cubitus varus?

A

decreased carrying angle

-5 deg

forearm is more medially headed

226
Q

how many DF does the RU jt have?

A

1

227
Q

what happens to the radius and ulna during pronation/supination?

A

the radius crosses over the stable ulna

228
Q

describe the arthrokinematics of the humeroulnar jt

A

the concave ulnar trochlear notch moving on the convex humeral trochlea)

same roll and glide

extension to flexion=ant roll and glide

flexion to extension=post roll and glide

229
Q

flexion of the humeroulnar joint is b/w what 2 bony landmarks?

A

coronoid-coronoid fossa

230
Q

flexion at the HU jt requires…

A

sufficient length of posterior capsule, posterior fibers of MCL, ulnar nerve, and elbow extensors

231
Q

extension at the HU jt requires…

A

sufficient length of anterior capsule, anterior fibers of MCL, elbow flexors

232
Q

extension of the HU jt is b/w what 2 bony landmarks?

A

olecranon-olecranon fossa

233
Q

describe the humeroradial arthrokinematics

A

concave proximal radius on moving on the convex capitulum

same roll and glide

234
Q

at the HR jt, with flexion the radial head slides into the ____ ____

A

capitulotrochlear groove

235
Q

t/f: at the HR jt, in full extension there is no contact b/w the radius and humerus

A

true

236
Q

describe the arthokinematics of the proximal RU jt

A

the convex radial head moving on the concave radial notch on the ulna

radial head spinning on the radial notch

237
Q

describe the arthrokinematics at the distal RU jt

A

concave ulnar notch of the radius moving on the convex ulnar head

in pronation, the radius rolls and glides anterior

in supination, the radius rolls and glides posterior

238
Q

what soft tissues provide proximal jt stability at the RU jt?

A

annular ligament

LCL

oblique cord

quadrate ligament

239
Q

what is the function of the annular ligament?

A

it circles around the radial head keeping it in contact w/the radial notch

240
Q

what is the function of the oblique cord?

A

connects the lateral ulna and medial radius

becomes tight with supination to provide stability in supination

241
Q

what is the function of the quadrate ligament?

A

a short and strong ligament that maintains jt b/w radial head and notch

242
Q

what soft tissues provide distal RU jt stability?

A

articular disc (TFCC)

dorsal and palmar RU ligaments

interosseous membrane

243
Q

what is a function of the interosseous membrane?

A

transmit forces efficiently into bigger bones

244
Q

what is the CPP of the HU jt?

A

full elbow extension and supination

245
Q

what is the OPP of the HU jt?

A

70 deg flex
10 deg sup

246
Q

what is the CPP of the HR jt?

A

90 deg flex
5 deg sup

247
Q

what is the OPP of the HR jt?

A

ext and sup

248
Q

what is the OPP of the RU jt?

A

70 deg flex
35 deg sup

249
Q

what is the CPP of the RU jt?

A

5 deg sup

250
Q

brachialis

A

O: ant humerus distal 1/2
I: coronoid process, ulnar tuberosity
A: elbow flex (main elbow flexor)
N: musculocutaneous

251
Q

biceps brachii

A

O: long head: supraglenoid tubercle of scap
short head: coracoid process of scap
I: radial tuberosity
A: elbow flex, sup, GH flex
N: musculocutaneous

252
Q

brachioradialis

A

O: lat supracondylar ridge of humerus
I: radial styloid process
A: elbow flex, pro/sup from mid position
N: radial

253
Q

triceps brachii

A

O: long head: infraglenoid tubercle of scap
lat (short) head: post lat humerus info to greater tubercle
med head: distal post humerus
I: olecranon process
A: elbow ext (main elbow extensor), GH ext
N: radial

254
Q

anconeus

A

O: lat epicondyle of humerus
I: prox ulna inf to olecranon process
A: “unpinching”, weak elbow extensor
N: radial

255
Q

pronator teres

A

O: humeral head: medial epicondyle
ulnar head: coronoid process of ulna
I: lat midpoint of radius
A: pronation (strongest pronator), weak elbow extension
N: median

256
Q

pronator quadratus

A

O: ant distal 1/4 ulna
I: ant distal 1/4 radius
A: weak pronator
N: median

257
Q

supinator

A

O: lat epicondyle of humerus and prox ulna
I: ant and lat prox radius
A: supination
N: radial

258
Q

what are the prime movers of elbow flexion?

A

brachialis

biceps brachii (esp w/sup)

brachioradialis (esp w/forearm in midposition)

pronator teres (only w/forearm in pronation)

259
Q

what are the prime movers of elbow extension?

A

triceps brachii

260
Q

what are the prime movers of supination at the elbow?

A

supinator

biceps brachii (esp w/ elbow flex)

261
Q

what are the prime movers of pronation at the elbow?

A

pronator teres

pronator quadratus

262
Q

functional movement of the elbow and forearm is affected by ___ ___ and ____ ____

A

task demands, force requirements

263
Q

t/f: injuries can change synergy requirements

A

true

264
Q

are single joint or multijoint muscles recruited first?

A

single joint muscles

265
Q

what is the recruitment order of the elbow flexors?

A

brachialis, biceps, brachioradialis

266
Q

when is the biceps recruited first?

A

when elbow flexion and supination is needed

267
Q

what is the order or recruitment of the elbow extensors?

A

anconeus, triceps

268
Q

when is the triceps recruited?

A

with larger loads

269
Q

what is the order of recruitment of supinators?

A

supinator, biceps

270
Q

when is the biceps recruited for supination?

A

with the elbow flexed to 90 deg

271
Q

t/f: the supinator is influenced by elbow angle

A

false

272
Q

what is the order of recruitment of pronators?

A

pronator teres, pronator quadratus

273
Q

is the pronator teres or quadratus consistently active?

A

the pronator quadratus

274
Q

t/f: the pronator teres is influenced by elbow position

A

true

275
Q

in the CKC, in extension does the elbow rely on bony geometry or muscles for stability?

A

bony geometry

276
Q

in the CKC, in flexion, does the elbow rely on bony geometry or muscles for stability?

A

muscles

277
Q

what factors affect maximum isometric force?

A

elongated position and/or IMA length

278
Q

in what position do the supinators produce the greatest force?

A

in pronation

279
Q

in what position do the pronators produce the greatest force?

A

in supination

280
Q

the greater the IMA, the _____ the torque/force

A

greater

281
Q

what are some common elbow pathologies?

A

medial epicondylitis

lateral epicondylitis

bicipital tendinitis

gunstock deformity

nursemaid’s elbow

282
Q

what is medial epicondylitis?

A

overuse of worst flexors, pronators, and extrinsic finger flexors

also called golfer’s elbow or little league elbow

loss of full elbow extension

common in R elbow of R handed golfers from valgus forces

283
Q

what is lateral epicondylitis

A

tennis elbow

overuse of backhand motions (extensors and supinators)

284
Q

what is bicipital tendinitis?

A

inflammation and overuse of the biceps tendon (long head) passing through the bicipital groove

285
Q

what is a gunstock deformity?

A

bow elbow

can result from a supracondylar fracture or malunion that causes a reduction in carrying angle

286
Q

what is nursemaid’s elbow?

A

pulling the radius out of the annular ligament

can be a sign of child abuse

radial head subluxation

common among toddlers

causes pain, but is easy to fix w/no long term issues

DPT 502 (9 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions