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Pharmacology > Quiz 2 > Flashcards

Quiz 2 Flashcards

1
Q

All of the Cells in the Hematopoietic System develop from what cell in the bone marrow?

A

The pluripotent hematopoietic stem cell

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2
Q

What are the main cells of the lymphatic system?

A

T and B cells are the main cells of the lymphatic system

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3
Q

What is the function of T & B cells?

A

The function of T cells and B cells is to recognize specific “non-self” antigens, during a process known as antigen presentation

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4
Q

What is a controlled substance?

A

Controlled substances are drugs that have some potential for abuse or dependence
FDA regulates Controlled Substances

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5
Q

Name the Schedule for controlled substances

A

Schedule I: drugs with no currently accepted medical use and a high potential for abuse

Schedule II: drugs with a high potential for abuse; less than Schedule I drugs

Schedule III: drugs with a moderate to low potential for physical and psychological dependence

Schedule IV; drugs with a low potential for abuse and low risk of dependence

Schedule V: drugs with lower potential for abuse than Schedule IV

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6
Q

Schedule I for controlled substances, with examples

A

Schedule I: drugs with no currently accepted medical use and a high potential for abuse
- Most dangerous of all drug schedules w/ potentially severe psychological and/or physical dependence

Ex: Heroin, Ecstasy, LSD

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7
Q

Schedule II for controlled substances, with examples

A

Schedule II: drugs with a high potential for abuse; less than Schedule I drugs
- Can potentially lead to severe psychological or physical dependence and are also considered dangerous

ex: Morphine & Fentanyl , Oxycodone (OxyContin), Adderall and Ritalin (used for ADHD)

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8
Q

Morphine & Fentanyl
Oxycodone (OxyContin)
Adderall and Ritalin

A

Schedule II

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9
Q

Schedule III for controlled substances, with examples

A

Schedule III: drugs with a moderate to low potential for physical and psychological dependence
- abuse potential is less than that of Schedule I & II drugs but greater than Schedule IV drugs

ex: Ketamine, Anabolic steroids –Testosterone, Marijuana (cannabis)

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10
Q

Schedule IV for controlled substances, with examples

A

Schedule IV; drugs with a low potential for abuse and low risk of dependence

ex: Xanax, Valium, Ambien

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11
Q

Schedule V for controlled substances, with examples

A

Schedule V: drugs with lower potential for abuse than Schedule IV
- containing limited quantities of certain narcotics
- generally used for antidiarrheal, antitussive, and analgesic purpose

ex: Lomotil, Lyrica, Cough medicine

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12
Q

What are Adverse effects/reactions (ADRs)

A
  • Any undesirable action - side effects - that can include
    Undesirable effects, many of which
    can be tolerated
    These are generally reversible upon
    drug discontinuation
    They are dose related
  • Toxicity reactions
    Resulting in cell and tissue damage
    Permanent and generally intolerable
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13
Q

Factors that increase the risk of ADR are reactions

A

Increasing age of the child
Increasing number of drugs
Oncological treatment

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14
Q

ADRs Symptoms for Nervous System Name 3

A

Dizziness
Drowsiness
Depression
Delusions
Confusion
Headaches

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15
Q

ADRs Symptoms for eyes name 3

A

Eyelids & Conjunctiva are frequent targets for drug toxicity
Blurred/double vision
Increased Ocular Pressure
Damage to the retina and optic nerve
Erythema multiforme
Stevens-Johnson Syndrome: (Erythema multiforme in its most severe form)

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16
Q

ADRs Symptoms for Auditory-vetibular system

A

Dizziness
Vertigo
Other balance disorders
Hearing loss
Tinnitus
-Tinnitus and dizziness are the most common side effects of medications

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17
Q

What are the most common side effects of ADR for Auditory-vetibular system

A

Tinnitus and dizziness are the most common side effects of medications

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18
Q

ADRs Symptoms for SKIN

A

Acne
Alopecia
Herpes simplex
Sweating
Urticaria (hives)

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19
Q

What is an antigen?

A

antigen - a substance that elicits an immune response

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20
Q

What are the Immune System Components

A

Antigen-Specific
Systemic
Memory
Self/non-Self recognition

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21
Q

what Recognize and act against particular antigens

A

Antigen-Specific:

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22
Q

Antigen Specific

A

Immune System Component
Antigen-Specific: Recognize and act against particular antigens

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23
Q

Systemic

A

Immune System Component
Systemic: Not Confined to the initial infection but work throughout the body

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24
Q

Memory

A

Immune System Component
Memory : Recognizes and mounts an even stronger attack to the same antigen next time
Builds immunity; Vaccinations or Cold/flu

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25
Q

Self/Non-Self Recognition

A

Most Important Component of the immune system

Self/non-self recognition is achieved by every cell displaying a marker based on the major histocompatibility complex (MHC)
- MCH are group of genes that code for cell surface proteins essential for the immune system

Any cell not displaying this marker is treated as non-self and attacked

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26
Q

What is Not Confined to the initial infection but work throughout the body

A

Systemic

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27
Q

What Recognizes and mounts an even stronger attack to the same antigen next time

A

Memory

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28
Q

What is Achieved by every cell displaying a marker based on the major histocompatibility complex (MHC); Any cell not displaying this marker is treated as non-self and attacked

A

Self/Non-Self Recognition

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29
Q

autoimmune disease & examples

A

Sometimes the process breaks down and the immune system attacks the body’s own cell
Ex: multiple sclerosis (MS), sudden sensorineural hearing loss (SSNHL), rheumatoid arthritis

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30
Q

Sometimes the process breaks down and the immune system attacks the body’s own cell

A

autoimmune disease & examples

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31
Q

Allergies

A

There are instances when the immune response to innocuous substances is inappropriately overwhelming = Allergies

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32
Q

There are instances when the immune response to innocuous substances is inappropriately overwhelming

A

Allergies

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33
Q

Two Main Fluid Systems of Immune System

A

The Hematopoietic (blood) and Lymphatic Systems

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34
Q

Cells in the hematopoietic system

A

Erythrocytes or red blood cells (RBCs)
Leukocytes or white blood cells (WBCs)
Thrombocytes or platelets

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35
Q

What do Erythrocytes function and what system are they apart of?

A

Erythrocytes or red blood cells (RBCs) - Carry oxygen
Hematopoietic system

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36
Q

What do Leukocytes function and what system are they apart of?

A

Leukocytes or white blood cells (WBCs) ; Fight infections
Hematopoietic system

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37
Q

What do Leukocytes function and what system are they apart of?

A

Thrombocytes or platelets - Help control bleeding; clotting
Hematopoietic System

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38
Q

All these cell types in the Hematopoietic system develop from a common cell in the ________ ________ ; The _______ ____________ _______ _______

A

Bone Marrow ; The pluripotent hematopoietic stem cell

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39
Q

If all the cells in the hematopoietic system all develop from The pluripotent hematopoietic stem cell how do they become different?

A

They differentiate into these different cell types by interactions with dozens of glycoproteins called hematopoietic growth factors

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40
Q

Leukocytes; Function, types and location

A

Leukocytes or white blood cells (WBCs), are responsible for protecting the body from infection and part of the immune system

Granulocytes (containing large granules in the cytoplasm)
Agranulocytes (without granules)

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41
Q

What white blood cells contain granules

A

Granulocytes are WBCs with secretory granules & consist of
Neutrophils
Eosinophils
Basophils

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42
Q

What white blood cell do not contain granules

A

Agranulocytes are lymphocytes (single large nucleus, no granules)

Consisting of B cells, T cells, and monocytes

Lymphocytes circulate in the blood and lymph systems and make their home in the lymphoid organs

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43
Q

What are Lymphocytes?

A

Agranulocytes are lymphocytes (single large nucleus, no granules)

Consisting of B cells, T cells, and monocytes

Lymphocytes circulate in the blood and lymph systems and make their home in the lymphoid organs

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44
Q

What are the main cells of the lymphatic system

A

T and B cells are the main cells of the lymphatic system

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45
Q

______ is clear, transparent, and colorless

A

Lymph

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46
Q

what is Lymph?

A

Lymph is clear, transparent, and colorless

It flows in the lymphatic vessels alongside the blood vessels, bathing tissues and organs in its protective covering

Along the lymph vessels, there are lymph nodes that serve as filters of the lymphatic fluid

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47
Q

It is in the lymph nodes where ______ are usually presented to the immune system

A

Antigens

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48
Q

Along the lymph ________ , there are _____ ______ that serve as _______ of the lymphatic fluid

A

Along the lymph vessels, there are lymph nodes that serve as filters of the lymphatic fluid

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49
Q

It is in the_______ _______where antigens are usually presented to the immune system

A

Lymph nodes

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50
Q

What are the Primary Organs of the Immune System

A

Bone Marrow & Thymus Gland

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51
Q

What produces B Cells

A

Bone Marrow

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52
Q

What produces T Cells?

A

Thymus Gland

They are produced in the bone marrow and mature in the thymus

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53
Q

What cells are involved in humoral immunity (related to antibodies)

A

B Cells

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54
Q

________ ________ produces antigen-specific antibodies and is primarily driven by B cells

A

Humoral Immunity

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55
Q

Humoral immunity produces antigen-specific antibodies and is primarily driven by _____ cells

A

B Cells

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56
Q

Cell-mediated immunity does not depend on antibodies for its adaptive immune functions and is primarily driven by mature_____ cells

A

T Cells

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57
Q

_______ ________ does not depend on antibodies for its adaptive immune functions and is primarily driven by mature T cells

A

Cell-mediated immunity

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58
Q

T- Cells; Produced & Function

A

Thymus gland = T cells
They are produced in the bone marrow and mature in the thymus

T cells are involved in cell-mediated immunity
- Cell-mediated immunity does not depend on antibodies for its adaptive immune functions and is primarily driven by mature T cells

The function of T cells and B cells is to recognize specific “non-self” antigens, during a process known as antigen presentation

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59
Q

B- Cells; Produced & Function

A

Bone marrow = B Cells

B cells are involved in humoral immunity (related to antibodies)
- Humoral immunity produces antigen-specific antibodies and is primarily driven by B cells

The function of T cells and B cells is to recognize specific “non-self” antigens, during a process known as antigen presentation

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60
Q

What is the function of T & B cells?

A

The function of T cells and B cells is to recognize specific “non-self” antigens, during a process known as antigen presentation

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61
Q

Secondary organs for the immune system

A

Adenoids, tonsils, spleen, lymph nodes, appendix and Peyer’s patches (within the intestines)

WBCs originate in the bone marrow and then migrate to the other primary and secondary lymph organs

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62
Q

What cells originate in the bone marrow and then migrate to the other primary and secondary lymph organs

A

White Blood Cells

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63
Q

WBCs originate in the _____ ______ and then migrate to the other primary and secondary ______ ______

A

Bone Marrow; Lymph Organs

64
Q

What are Immunoglobulins

A

Immunoglobulins are large y shaped proteins secreted by the plasma and are clones of primed B cells

65
Q

Immunoglobulins are used by what?

A

Immunoglobulins used by the immune system to identify and neutralize foreign objects such as bacteria and viruses

66
Q

Function of Immunoglobulins

A

Immunoglobulins used to identify & neutralize foreign objects like bacteria or viruse
- The antibody recognizes a unique molecule of the pathogen, called an antigen

67
Q

What forms gamma gobulins?

A

Antibodies form gamma globulin part of the blood proteins

68
Q

_______ inactivate_________ through various mechanisms

A

antibodies inactivate antigens through various mechanisms

68
Q

Constituents of gamma globulin are (Types of immunoglobulins)

A

IgG - 76%
IgA - 15%
IgM - 8% (much larger than the other immunoglobulins)
IgD - 1%
IgE - 0.002%

69
Q

Immunity can be either

A

Natural or artificial
Innate or acquired/adaptive
Active or passive

70
Q

Active natural (contact with infection)

A

Develops slowly, is long term, and antigen specific

71
Q

Develops slowly, is long term, and antigen specific

A

Active natural (contact with infection)

72
Q

Active artificial (immunization-vaccines)

A

Develops slowly, lasts for several years, and is specific to the antigen for which the immunization was given

73
Q

Develops slowly, lasts for several years, and is specific to the antigen for which the immunization was given

A

Active artificial (immunization-vaccines)

74
Q

Passive natural

A

Develops immediately, is temporary, and affects all antigens to which the mother has immunity
(trans-placental mother-to-child)

75
Q

Develops immediately, is temporary, and affects all antigens to which the mother has immunity

A

Passive natural (trans-placental mother-to-child)

76
Q

Develops immediately, is temporary, and affects all antigens to which the donor has immunity

A

Passive artificial (injection of gamma globulin)

77
Q

Passive artificial

A

Develops immediately, is temporary, and affects all antigens to which the donor has immunity

(injection of gamma globulin)

78
Q

IgG

A

IgG dominates in the secondary immune responses
IgG is the only antibody that crosses the placental barrier to the fetus
Most common Immunoglobulin
It is responsible for the 3 to 6 month immune protection of newborns that is conferred by the mother
Mediates Type II & Type III reactions

79
Q

Most common Immunoglobulin

A

IgG

80
Q

only antibody that crosses the placental barrier to the fetus

A

IgG

81
Q

dominates in the secondary immune responses

A

IgG

82
Q

It is responsible for the 3 to 6 month immune protection of newborns that is conferred by the mother

A

IgG

83
Q

dominates in primary immune responses

A

IgM

84
Q

IgM

A

IgM dominates in primary immune responses
Less of them but much lager than other immunoglobulins
Mediates Type II reaction

85
Q

Vaccines ______ the immune system’s _______, which are responsible for ______ the presence of a ________ and typically peak 10 to 18 days after the shot

A

Vaccines activate the immune system’s T cells, which are responsible for detecting the presence of a virus and typically peak 10 to 18 days after the shot

86
Q

Vaccine___ __, to create _ that ____ the virus from being able to __________ and the________ _______ to destroy the infected cells

A

Vaccines also instruct B-cells to create antibodies that block the virus from being able to replicate and the T-killer cells to destroy the infected cells

87
Q

Vaccines offer what type of Immunization

A

Vaccines offer Active Artificial Immunization

88
Q

What is the goal of vaccines?

A

The aim of vaccines is to teach the body’s immune system to recognize and block viruses

89
Q

True or false?
With all types of vaccines, the body is left with a supply of “memory” T-lymphocytes as well as B-lymphocytes that will remember how to quickly fight that particular antigen (virus) in the future

A

TRUE

90
Q

mast cells & basophils (type of WBCs) do what

A

target cells in the immune system for immediate-type reactions

91
Q

Where are mast cells found?

A

mast cells are found in connective tissue
contain histamine, an important chemical for fighting infections

92
Q

What are basophils?

A

basophils are a type of white blood cell and contain histamine

93
Q

What does mast cells and basophils have in common?

A

They both contain histamine an important chemical for fighting infections

Unfortunately, when released into the body inappropriately or in too high a quantity, histamine is a potentially devastating substance resulting in allergic reactions

94
Q

It takes between 7 to 10 days of ______ exposure for the ____ _____ and _____ to become primed with IgE antibodies

A

It takes between 7 to 10 days of sensitizing exposure for the mast cells and basophils to become primed with IgE antibodies

95
Q

A mast cell is part of the ______ ______ and contains granules rich in ______ and ________

A

A mast cell is part of the immune system and contains granules rich in histamine and heparin(anticoagulant to prevent blood clots)

96
Q

What can happen if too much histamine is released into the body?

A

when released into the body inappropriately or in too high a quantity, histamine is a potentially devastating substance resulting in allergic reactions

97
Q

How long does sensitizing take and what is it primed by?

A

It takes between 7 to 10 days of sensitizing exposure for the mast cells and basophils to become primed with IgE antibodies

98
Q

What is an allergic Cascade?

A

If a second exposure occurs to the same allergen , it triggers a destructive domino effect within the system called the allergic cascade

99
Q

True or false
Antigens combines with adjacent molecules of the IgG antibodies that have become attached to the mast or basophil cell surface

A

FALSE
IgE

Antigens combines with adjacent molecules of the IgE antibodies that have become attached to the mast or basophil cell surface

100
Q

Name the 3 types of allergic reactions associated with drugs

A

Type I reaction medicated by IgE
Type II reaction mediated by IgG, IgM
Type III reaction mediated by IgG

101
Q

Type I allergic reaction

A

Type I reaction mediated by IgE
- Most severe types of reactions
Anaphylaxis
Asthma syndrome
Dermatitis

102
Q

Type II Allergic Reaction

A

Type II reaction mediated by IgG, IgM
- Hemolysis (break down) of red blood cells
(blood disorder)
Ex: some forms of anemia, blood
transfusion reactions, and some type
of tissue transplant rejection

103
Q

Type III Allergic Reaction

A

Type III reaction mediated by IgG

Arthralgia (muscle/joint pain) and fever
Lymphadenopathy (swollen lymph glands

104
Q

What Allergic reaction type mediated by IgE

A

Type I reaction mediated by IgE

105
Q

What Allergic reaction type mediated by IgG, IgM

A

Type II reaction mediated by IgG, IgM

106
Q

What Allergic reaction type mediated by IgG

A

Type III reaction mediated by IgG

107
Q

What Allergic reaction type is Most severe types of reactions

A

Type I Most severe types of reactions
Anaphylaxis
Asthma syndrome
Dermatitis

108
Q

What Allergic reaction type Hemolysis (break down) of red blood cells (blood disorder)

A

Type II reaction mediated by IgG, IgM
Hemolysis (break down) of red blood cells (blood disorder)

Ex: some forms of anemia, blood transfusion reactions, and some type of tissue transplant rejection

109
Q

What Allergic reaction type occurs in Arthralgia or swollen lymph nodes?

A

Type III reaction mediated by IgG

Arthralgia (muscle/joint pain) and fever
Lymphadenopathy (swollen lymph glands

110
Q

What is a life-threatening and can occur at any time within minutes to a couple of hours

A

Anaphylaxis

111
Q

Anaphylaxis

A

Anaphylaxis is life-threatening and can occur at any time within minutes to a couple of hours

112
Q

What is Anaphylaxis or anaphylactic shock

A

Anaphylaxis or anaphylactic shock is a severe, progressive, whole-body allergic reaction to a chemical that has become an allergen

113
Q

Whay is a severe, progressive, whole-body allergic reaction to a chemical that has become an allergen

A

Anaphylaxis or anaphylactic shock

114
Q

what happens when you are exposed to an allergen the first time?

A

After being exposed to a substance such as bee sting venom and suffering a mid allergic reaction, the person’s immune system becomes sensitized to it

115
Q

What typically occurs the second time you are exposed to an allergen?

A

When the person is exposed to that allergen again, anaphylaxis happens quickly after; it is severe, and potentially life threatening
Occurs typically after the second time of being exposed to it

115
Q

True or False
Anaphylaxis is an immune response; that occur after the first exposure to an allergen

A

FALSE
Anaphylaxis is an immune response; that occur after the second exposure because you need to be sensitized

116
Q

What is Anaphylactoid?

A

Some drugsmay cause an anaphylactic-like (anaphylactoid) reaction when people are first exposed to them

These are systemic not immune system reactions that do NOT require prior sensitization to an antigen as required in true anaphylaxis

117
Q

These are systemic not immune system reactions that do NOT require prior sensitization to an antigen.

A

Anaphylactoid; anaphylactic-like (anaphylactoid) reaction

117
Q

True or false

Anaphylactoid is an immune response; because it happens on first exposure. is just as important & Serious as anaphylaxis

A

FALSE
Anaphylactoid is not an immune response; because it happens on first exposure. But just as important & Serious

118
Q

How does treatment and response differ between Anaphylaxis vx anaphylactoid?

A

They are equally important & Serious
The symptoms, risk of complications, and treatment are the same for both types of reactions

119
Q

Risks of anaphylaxis

A

history of any type of allergic reaction
for some it appears with no known cause usually because first exposure causes mild/no symptoms

120
Q

True or False
anaphylactoid or an anaphylaxis/anaphylactic shock is an EMERGENCY medical condition!

A

TRUE
anaphylactoid or an anaphylaxis/anaphylactic shock is an EMERGENCY medical condition!

121
Q

During anaphylaxis, tissues in different parts of the body release histamine and other substances, which causes the airways to tighten and leads to other symptoms such as (know at least 4)

A

Abdominal pain
Anxiety
Chest discomfort or tightness, wheezing, pulmonary edema
Cough and difficulty breathing
Difficulty swallowing due to swelling of the throat
Dizziness, light-headedness, unconsciousness
Skin redness, hives, itchiness, pale and blue skin (from lack of O2)
Nausea/vomiting and diarrhea
Weak and rapid pulse and low blood pressure
Abnormal heart rhythm
Slurred speech
Swelling of the face, eyes, and/or tongue
Mental confusion

122
Q

Treatment for anaphylactoid or an anaphylaxis/anaphylactic shock

A

Epinephrine (adrenaline) to reduce body’s allergic response

Oxygen to help compensate for restricted breathing

Intravenous (IV) antihistamines and cortisone to reduce inflammation and swelling in order to open airways

A beta-agonist (such as albuterol) to relieve breathing symptoms

123
Q

What are Teratogens?

A

Any substance, organism, or physical agent that can cause developmental abnormalities or birth defects in a developing embryo or fetus. Teratogens can interfere with normal development, leading to congenital malformations or functional deficits that can manifest at birth or later in life

124
Q

_____ is any substance, organism, or physical agent that can cause developmental abnormalities or birth defects in a developing embryo or fetus. Teratogens can interfere with normal development, leading to congenital malformations or functional deficits that can manifest at birth or later in life.

A

Teratogen

125
Q

What is Pharmacogenomics

A

is the study of the role of the genome in drug response – a combination of pharmacology & genetics

studies how the genetic makeup of a patient affects their response to drugs

126
Q

_______ studies how the genetic makeup of a patient affects their response to drugs

A

Pharmacogenomics

127
Q

True or False
A drug can still be approved by the FDA is that drug is proven to be a teratogen?

A

TRUE
Drugs that are teratogenic may still be approved by the FDA, if
- The therapeutic benefits outweigh the risk
- Physician labeling clearly contraindicates use during pregnancy

128
Q

Drugs that are teratogenic may still be approved by the FDA, if

A

The therapeutic benefits outweigh the risk
Physician labeling clearly contraindicates use during pregnancy

129
Q

How does the FDA monitor or teratogentity in drugs?

A

The FDA requires testing of all new drugs for teratogenic potential during the drug toxicity trails in animal studies.

130
Q

Teratogen examples

A

Accutane; for severe cystic acne (99% teratogenic)
Thalidomide
Infections such as rubella (German measles)- She said this is one of the worst Teratogens
Environmental factors like radiation

131
Q

The FDA new Pregnancy & Lactation Labeling Rule (PLLR) recommendations include 3 main categories

A

Fetal risk summary
- Characterizes the likelihood, from both
human and animal data, that a drug
increases the risk of four types of
developmental abnormalities

Clinical considerations
- Discussing fetal risk from inadvertent
exposure and prescribing decisions
based on drug effects on labor,
delivery, and fetus

Data
- Detailed discussion of available data;
human data appears before animal data

132
Q

______ is the study of the role of the genome in drug response – a combination of pharmacology & genetics

A

Pharmacogenomics

133
Q

Drug target receptors are sufficiently ______ in the population such that most __________ act as ________ on most people

A

Drug target receptors are sufficiently common in the population such that most medications act as intended on most people

134
Q

Name inter-individual differences examples

A

In genes that can encode these drug targets
OR
In genes that encode proteins for drug metabolism

135
Q

The genetic difference can what

A

These genetic differences can be highly significant for the success or failure of drug therapy

136
Q

If one nucleotide in a specific position is exchanged with another nucleotide, the alteration is referred to as a

A

Single nucleotide polymorphism or SNP (pronounced “SNIP”)
Majority of nucleotide variations are SNPs

137
Q

Other variations (mutations) include

A

Insertions, deletions, duplications, and translocations of one or more nucleotides or even entire chromosomes

138
Q

What can affect protein amount or function by altering coding sequence of transcription or mRNA translation, which could be pharmacologically important

A

SNPs or other genetic variations can affect protein amount or function by altering coding sequence of transcription or mRNA translation, which could be pharmacologically important

139
Q

Genetic polymorphisms in pharmacokinetics are common in ______ _______ that metabolize both ______ and _______ reactions

A

Genetic polymorphisms in pharmacokinetics are common in major enzymes that metabolize both phase I and II reactions

140
Q

drugs with no currently accepted medical use and a high potential for abuse
most dangerous of all drug schedules with potentially severe psychological and/or physical dependence

A

Schedule I

141
Q

Heroin
LSD
Ecstasy

A

Schedule I

142
Q

drugs with accepted medical usewith a high potential for abuse
lead to severe psychological or physical dependence and are also considered dangerous

A

Schedule 2

143
Q

drugs with a moderate to low potential for physical and psychological dependence

A

Schedule III

144
Q

Ketamine
Anabolic steroids –Testosterone

A

Schedule III

145
Q

drugs with a low potential for abuse and low risk of dependence

A

Schedule IV

146
Q

Xanax
Valium
Ambien

A

Schedule IV

147
Q

drugs with lowest potential for abuse
containing limited quantities of certain narcotics
generally used for antidiarrheal, antitussive, and analgesic purpose

A

Schedule V

148
Q

Lomotil (for diarrhea)
Lyrica (for nerve pain/neuropathy)
Cough Medicine

A

Schedule V

149
Q

True or False
Drug hypersensitivity and allergies are an adverse drug reaction

A

TRUE

150
Q

______________ is a constellation of responses mounted by body to attacks from outside the body

A

Immune System

151
Q

Drug hypersensitivity and allergies are an adverse drug reaction why do they occur?

A

They occur because of the body’s immune system
The immune system is a group of responses mounted by the body to attacks from outside the body

152
Q
A
153
Q

Develops immediately, is temporary, and affects all antigens to which the donor has immunity

A

Passive artificial (injection of gamma globulin)

Pharmacology (9 decks)

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