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Pharmacology > Midterm Part 2 > Flashcards

Midterm Part 2 Flashcards

1
Q

True or false
polar molecule, such as steroids can easily diffuse through the cell membrane

A

FALSE
Nonpolar molecule, such as steroids can easily diffuse through the cell membrane

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2
Q

True or false
Most drugs and polar molecules are larger and, therefore, simple diffusion through the layers of the cell membrane is not an option

A

TRUE

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3
Q

What factors affect a drug’s ability to cross a bilayer membrane?

A

Lipid solubility
Degree of ionization (charge)
Molecular size
Shape of the drug molecule

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4
Q

How does Lipid Solubility affect a drug’s ability to cross a bilayer membrane?

A

The more lipid soluble the drug the easier it will cross

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5
Q

How does degree of ionization (charge) affect a drug’s ability to cross a bilayer membrane?

A
  • Charged molecules cannot cross (they must used pores/channels)
  • Hydrophobic drug molecules can generally pass through easily
    - Water hating fat loving
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6
Q

How does molecular size affect a drug’s ability to cross a bilayer membrane?

A

Small - sized molecules can cross the cell membrane easily

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7
Q

How does shape of the drug molecule affect a drug’s ability to cross a bilayer membrane?

A

Molecules that can contort to fit through the cell membrane can cross more easily

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8
Q

an extremely selective barrier that separates the circulating blood from the brain extracellular fluid in the CNS

A

The blood-brain barrier (BBB)

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9
Q

a specialized barrier formed by capillary endothelial cells connected by tight junctions

A

The blood-brain barrier (BBB)

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10
Q

__________ are necessary to create the BBB

A

Astrocytes

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11
Q

What Physiologic Barrier allows passage of water, some gases, and lipid soluble molecules by passive diffusion

A

The blood-brain barrier (BBB)

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12
Q

What Physiologic Barrier allows selective transport of molecules such as glucose and amino acids that are crucial to neural function

A

The blood-brain barrier (BBB)

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13
Q

What Physiologic Barrier can prevent the entry of potential neurotoxins by way of an active transport (requires energy) mechanism

A

The blood-brain barrier (BBB)

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14
Q

What Physiologic Barrier prevents passive diffusion of most drugs from systemic to cerebral circulation

A

The blood-brain barrier (BBB)

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15
Q

an important homeostatic mechanism that protects the inner ear

A

The blood-labyrinth barrier (BLB)

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16
Q

What Physiologic Barrier Maintains a constant composition of the inner ear fluids and is essential for its function?

A

The blood-labyrinth barrier (BLB)

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17
Q

What Physiologic Barrier allows for antigens and antibodies to cross both ways

A

The blood-placental barrier

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18
Q

What Physiologic Barrier is not a strong barrier for drugs as most can cross easily; Non-ionized and lipid-soluble drugs cross most easily

A

The blood-placental barrier

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19
Q

The blood-placental barrier Small molecules can cross the placental barrier such as & what can it cause ?

A

Many viruses, including
cytomegalovirus (CMV),
rubella (German measles),
varicella-zoster (chicken pox),
measles,
HIV (AIDS),
Zika, and
poliovirus can cross the placenta

All of these viruses can potentially cause congenital deafness/ hearing loss

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20
Q

what does not typically cross the blood-placental barrier

A

Bacteria and other protozoa do not ordinarily cross the barrier

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21
Q

what Exceptions can cross the blood-placental barrier

A

tre­ponema palladium (syphilis) &
toxoplasma gondii (Toxoplasmosis),
- which can cause congenital hearing loss

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22
Q

Disruption of __________ can disrupt ion transport system of the lateral cochlear wall, lead to disturbances of inner ear homeostasis, resulting in functional disruption of the auditory system

A

The blood-labyrinth barrier (BLB)

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23
Q

True or false
for the blood-labyrinth barrier (BLB) large molecular weight molecules can enter the perilymph in a dose and time dependent manner

A

FALSE!

SMALL molecular weight molecules can enter the perilymph in a dose and time dependent manner

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24
Q

Several ototoxic drugs and bacteria can cross the __________ and enter the perilymph

A

The blood-labyrinth barrier (BLB)

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25
Q

True of false
In the blood-labyrinth barrier The rate of elimination from perilymph is much slower than that from serum

A

True

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26
Q

Only occur in a women, a pregnant women

A

The blood-placental barrier

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27
Q

It serves as a barrier between maternal and fetal circulation and protects the fetus from noxious agents

A

The blood-placental barrier

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28
Q

what are other factors that affect the rate of drug movement across the cell membranes

A

Solubility of the drug
- The drugs dissolved in solutions are
more rapidly absorbed than insoluble
drugs.

Route of drug administration
- There are many routes of drug
administration, which will affect the
rate of drug absorption

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29
Q

Name the Main Routes of Drug Administration

A

Enteral route
Topical route
Parenteral route

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30
Q

Oral administration
Rectal administration

A

Enteral route of Drug Administration

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31
Q

Drugs given by _______ route are placed directly into the gastrointestinal tract

A

Enteral route of Drug Administration

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32
Q

Name Enteral route of Drug Administration

A

Oral administration
&
Rectal administration

Drugs given by this route are placed directly into the gastrointestinal tract and includes

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33
Q

Drugs applied to the surface of body (route type)

A

Topical route of Drug Administration

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34
Q

Name Topical route of Drug Administration

A

Transdermal administration
- Example skin patches
Otic
nasal
Ophthalmic

Drugs applied to the surface of body and includes

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35
Q

Drugs administered through routes other than enteric or topical is known as what

A

Parenteral route of Drug Administration

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36
Q

The drug route bypasses the GI tract and its barriers

A

Parenteral route of Drug Administration

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37
Q

Name Parenteral route of Drug Administration types (9)

A
  • Intramuscular
  • Intravenous
  • Intrathecal (injected into the spinal
    canal/subarachnoid space)
    Inhalation
    Intradermal
    Bypassed the first layer and
    interested into the second layer-
    some dermal layer
    intrarterial
    intraosseous
    Sublingual (enters venous circulation)
    Intraperitoneal (injected in the peritoneum)
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38
Q

Enteral route of Drug Administration Advantages

A
  • Ease of self administration
  • Very portable
  • Less likely to introduce systemic infection unlike parenteral route
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39
Q

Enteral route of Drug Administration Disadvantages

A
  • E route expose drug to harsh environments
  • Food in stomach may or may not alter the rate of absorption
  • Presences of drugs in the stomach may cause a drug interaction (in oral route)
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40
Q

_________ drug admin Generally involves injection-able drugs using syringes/needles

A

Parenteral Drug Administration

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41
Q

Parenteral Drug Administration advantages

A
  • Fast onset of drug action
  • One injection can have effects for days or months
    -IV administration allows for more controlled delivery
  • IV route can deliver continuous medication
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42
Q

Parenteral Drug Administration disadvantages

A
  • Greater risk of addiction with drugs that are injected as the onset of action is very rapid
  • Not practical for patients who cannot self administer injections
  • High risk for hepatitis, HIV, etc., if needles are shared
  • Most dangerous route of administration as it bypasses all the body’s natural defenses,
  • Potentially fatal air bubbles (especially IV) can be introduced
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43
Q

All orally administered drugs are subjected to a ___________ in the liver

A

first-pass metabolism

44
Q

Drugs that are administered orally pass from the __________ to the _______ and enter the __________ before entering the systemic circulation

A

Drugs that are administered orally pass from the GI tract to the portal veins and enter the liver before entering the systemic circulation

45
Q

This system protects individuals from the effect of ingested toxins, which are detoxified in the liver

A

First-Pass Metabolism

46
Q

True or false
Any drug that exhibits first-pass metabolism must have appropriate dosage to ensure effective concentration on target organs because of some inactivation in the liver

A

TRUE

47
Q

True or False
Non-enteral routes of administration do through first-pass metabolism by the liver

A

FALSEE

Non-enteral routes of administration are not subject to the first-pass metabolism by the liver

ENTERAL ROUTE ONLY

48
Q

Bioavailability is a subcategory of _______

A

Drug Absorption

49
Q

Bioavailability =

A

Bioavailability = Quantity of drug reaching systemic circulation ÷ Quantity of drug administered

50
Q

I/V drugs are injected directly into the systemic circulation have a bioavailability of what

A

Their bioavailability is generally 1 maximum

51
Q

drugs administered orally have a bioavailability of

A

drugs administered orally have a bioavailability of < 1 primarily

Their dose than would have to be increased to reach the same amount of drug received via the I/V route

52
Q

True or False
Drugs soluble in aqueous solutions at physiologic pH often can be administered orally

A

TRUE

53
Q

Oil soluble drugs must be administered subcutaneously or Intravenous (IV)

A

FALSE
Oil soluble drugs must be administered subcutaneously or intramuscular (IM)

54
Q

After a drug is absorbed from its site of administration, it is distributed to its site of action primarily by the _______ and to a minor degree by the ____________

A

the circulatory system (the blood plasma,
lymphatic system

55
Q

Only the ________ ______ form can pass across gaps between ________ ________ to leave plasma and enter interstitial fluids

A

Only the free drug form can pass across gaps between capillary cells to leave plasma and enter interstitial fluids

56
Q

Within each compartment of the body, the drug is split between the bound and free forms

A
  • Plasma protein binding reduces the drug’s availability for diffusion (transport) to its target site
  • Only the free drug form can pass across gaps between capillary cells to leave plasma and enter interstitial fluids
  • As free drug leaves the plasma, the bound drug becomes “unbound”
  • Ratio of bound:unbound drug remains the same in the blood
57
Q

Plasma protein binding reduces the drug’s …

A

Plasma protein binding reduces the drug’s availability for diffusion (transport) to its target site

58
Q

As free drug ________ the bound drug becomes ____________

A

As free drug leaves the plasma, the bound drug becomes “unbound”

59
Q

True or false
Ratio of bound:unbound drug vary in the blood

A

FALSE
Ratio of bound:unbound drug remains the same in the blood

60
Q

Bound form of the drug

A
  • No effect
  • Remains in the compartment (vasculature) longer
  • A drug that exhibits high level of protein binding requires a higher concentration
61
Q

Free form of the drug (unbound)

A

Exerts desired effect on target drug receptor sites in the target organ(s)

62
Q

Free drug; ___________ → __________ → _________ → __________→ __________

A

Free drug; Leave plasma membrane → Exert effect → return to Plasma → Bound to proteins → go to liver

63
Q

The ________ form of drug has no effect and remains in the vasculature longer

A

Bound form

64
Q

___________ form of drug will leave the Plasma membrane, exert its effect on target drug receptor sites in the target organs then go back into the plasma membrane and get bound to proteins again because now it has to go to the liver

A

Free form

65
Q

The most common pathway in the liver is the ______________________ that mediates oxidative reactions

A

cytochrome P450 system (CYP )

66
Q

This prodrug strategy helps to

A

Facilitate oral bioavailability
Decrease GI toxicity
Prolong the elimination ½ life of the drug

67
Q

What is prodrug

A

Some drugs are administered in an inactive prodrug form so that they can be metabolically altered in the liver to the activated form
( they are not active until it goes though metabolism)

68
Q

in Oxidation/Reduction or Phase I How many CYP enzymes you have a will determine ……

A

How many CYP enzymes you have a will determine how quickly or slowly the drug will metabolize

69
Q

More enzymes →Faster metabolism = Decrease drug action

A

More enzymes →_________ metabolism =__________ drug action

70
Q

Less enzymes → _________ metabolism = ________ in drug action

A

Less enzymes → Slower Metabolism = increase in drug action

71
Q

An individual’s complement of _______ ________ in the liver determines the rate and extent to which individuals can ________ various drugs

A

An individual’s complement of cytochrome P450 (CYP) enzymes in the liver determines the rate and extent to which individuals can metabolize various drugs

72
Q

If cytochrome P450 liver enzymes (CYP enzymes) are induced, it would cause what

A

it would increase the rate of metabolism

Increasing the rate of metabolism would decrease the action of the drug

More enzymes →Faster metabolism = Decrease drug action

73
Q

If cytochrome P450 liver enzymes are inhibited, it would cause what

A

it would decrease the rate of metabolism

Decreasing the rate of metabolism would increase the action of the drug

Less enzymes → Slower Metabolism = increase in drug action

74
Q

What is Conjugation/Hydrolysis or Phase II

A

Phase II reactions hydrolyze or conjugate a drug to a larger polar molecule by adding other molecular groups such as glutathione, sulfate, and acetate
This reaction inactivates the drug or enhances the drug solubility and excretion rate into urine or bile

75
Q

Certain classes of drugs such as barbiturates are ____

A

are powerful inducers of enzymes mediating Phase I reactions

Barbiturates can speed up the metabolic process and decrease the action of drugs being taken concomitantly

76
Q

True or False
Phase I and II reactions can be effected by a particular drug or dependent on the presence of other drugs taken by the patient at the same time

A

TRUE

The effect of Phase I and II reactions on a particular drug also are dependent on presence of other drugs taken by the patient at the same time

77
Q

Liver can Convert an active drug to inactive

A

Most common outcome
The inactive drug is formed from the active parent drug

78
Q

Most common outcome
The inactive drug is formed from the active parent drug

A

Convert an active drug to inactive

79
Q

Liver can Convert an inactive drug form (prodrug) to active

A

Inactive parent drug is converted to active drug after metabolism

80
Q

Inactive parent drug is converted to active drug after metabolism

A

Convert an inactive drug form (prodrug) to active

81
Q

Convert an active drug to active

A

An active parent drug is converted to a second active drug

82
Q

An active parent drug is converted to a second active drug

A

Convert an active drug to active

83
Q

What is the function of phase I and II biotransformation

A

The function of Phase I and II biotransformation is to enhance the hydrophilic nature of a hydrophobic drug so that it can be excreted easily out of the body

84
Q

It is the movement of a drug and/or its metabolites out of the body

A

Drug Excretion or Elimination

85
Q

Renal flow comprises ______ %of total systemic blood flow

A

~25%

86
Q

True or false
As a majority of drugs in the blood stream are filtered and excreted out by the kidneys, therefore, kidney function will affect drug excretion

A

TRUE

87
Q

the rate of elimination of a drug from the body relative to the concentration of the drug in the plasma

A

Drug Clearance

88
Q

Drug Clearance

A

Drug clearance is the rate of elimination of a drug from the body relative to the concentration of the drug in the plasma

OR

the rate at which the drug would need too be cleared from the plasma to account for the change sought by the drug in the body

89
Q

the rate at which the drug would need too be cleared from the plasma to account for the change sought by the drug in the body

A

Drug Clearance

90
Q

Drug Clearance equation

A

Clearance = Metabolism + Excretion ÷ Drug(plasma)

91
Q

Elimination of a constant quantity per time unit of the drug quantity present in the organism

A

Zero-order elimination kinetics

Rather rare, mostly occurring when the elimination system is saturated

92
Q

Constant elimination; the amount leaving isn’t affected on the amount of dose taken;

A

Zero-order elimination kinetics

Ex: if you take 100mg - 20 will be removed ; if you take 200mg 20 will still be removed. IT DOES NOT change it is constant

93
Q

Elimination of a constant fraction per time unit of the drug quantity present in the organism

A

First order elimination kinetics

94
Q

The elimination is proportional to the drug concentration

A

First order elimination kinetics

95
Q

Proportional elimination; the amount of elimination is based on the amount of drug you are taking.

A

First order elimination kinetics

Ex: if you take 100mg - 20 will be removed; if you take 200mg - 40 mg will be removed (based on the increase in intake there is an increase in elimination)

96
Q

the time required for the serum drug concentration to decrease by 50% (T½)

A

Drug Elimination Half-Life

97
Q

When the half-life of a drug is short, it is removed ________ from the body

A

When the half-life of a drug is short, it is removed quickly from the body, i.e., short duration of action

98
Q

Short Half-life = Removed _______ → _______ duration of action

A

Short Half-life = Removed quick → short duration of action

99
Q

Long Half-life = Removed ________ →________ duration of action

A

Long Half-life = Removed slowly → long duration of action

100
Q

When the half-life is long, the drug is removed _______ from the body,

A

When the half-life is long, the drug is removed slowly from the body, i.e., long duration of action

101
Q

A drug is cleared (removed) from the body in ~_____ to ____ half-lives

A

A drug is cleared (removed) from the body in ~ four to five half-lives

102
Q

True or false

Renal failure decreases excretion rates and decreases the half-life of drugs

A

FALSE
Renal failure decreases excretion rates and increases the half-life of drugs

103
Q

what formula can be used to calculate the elimination half-life of a drug based on the volume of distribution and clearance of the drug

A

t1/2 = 0.693 x Vd ÷ Clearance (memorize)

t1/2 = Elimination of half - life
Vd = volume of distribution
0.693 = Approximation of inverse of 2

104
Q

t1/2 =

A

t1/2 = Elimination of half - life

105
Q

Vd =

A

Vd = volume of distribution

106
Q

0.693 =

A

0.693 = Approximation of inverse of 2

107
Q
A

Pharmacology (9 decks)

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