Quiz 1 Flashcards
1
Q
Rapid and uninterrupted development of symptoms over days to weeks suggests…
A
Infection, quickly growing tumor, or a progressive degenerative disease
2
Q
Which of the following imaging procedures does not cause exposure to radiation?
A
MRI
3
Q
Chora is
A
Quick, irregular muscle contractions that are unpredictable and involuntary
4
Q
What is the difference between hereditary neurologic diseases and familial neurologic diseases?
A
Hereditary diseases have a definite inheritance pattern
5
Q
Which of the following methods are NOT used to evaluate the trigeminal nerve (CN 5) for injury?
A
Observe the position of the patient’s velum at rest
6
Q
“Microscopic contractions of smallgroupsof muscle fibers” is characteristic of which abnormal movement?
A
Fibrillations
7
Q
- _______ is a condition in which resting musclegroupsare disturbed by slow, writhing movements that increases with emotional tension and disappears during sleep.
A
Athetosis
8
Q
- Transitory loss of consciousness caused by reduction of blood supply to the brain that does not result in coma or death….
A
Syncope
9
Q
1.Which two Cranial nerves are most commonly tested together?
A
Glossopharyngeal (IX) and Vagus (X)
10
Q
- What is the name for increased resistance to passive movement?
A
Hypotonia
11
Q
- How many branches does the Trigeminal (V) Cranial Nerve have?
A
3
12
Q
- A patient’s jaw muscles are weak and the jaw deviates to one side when being opened and closed against resistance. Which Cranial Nerve would we suspect is damaged?
A
Trigeminal (5)
13
Q
5.Which of the following reflexes could indicate a nervous system pathology?
A
Diminished reflex
Exaggerated reflex
Palmar reflex
14
Q
6.Damage to the oculomotor nerve (III) can cause which of the following?
A
Ptosis on the affected side
15
Q
- A patient comes in for neurologic testing and exhibits a resting tremor, noticeable rigidity of the limbs and facial muscles, and a festinating gait. Along with the results of other tests, these signs could be indicative of which of the following conditions?
A
Parkinson’s disease
16
Q
- Which reflex is tested by stroking the sole of the foot and thereby causing the toes to bend upward and fan out?
A
Babinski reflex
17
Q
- The ____________ describes the patient’s medical record and provides information on his/her previous illnesses, injuries, medical conditions, and current disabilities and complaints.
A
Medical History
18
Q
- When a clinician is determining a patient’s prognosis he/she considers the neurologic findings, his/her health, and ________________.
A
Patient Characteristics
19
Q
- When testing adults who have brain injuries, it is crucial that the clinician obtains a large enough sample of patient performance to ensure ____________ stability.
A
Test-Retest
20
Q
- What publication broadened the concept of disability to not only include the physiologic effects of a health condition but also the social effect of a disabling condition on a person’s daily life participation and well-being?
A
International Classification of Impairment, Disability, and Handicap (ICIDH or ICF)
21
Q
- Knowing the source of a consultation request can be beneficial when determining a patient’s probable length of stay, physical, and medical conditions. Which source would a patient stay typically for several weeks or months, are not acutely ill, and have chronic medical problems?
A
Extended care center
22
Q
- After a patient is admitted, what is the first laboratory test ordered by a neurologist to determine if the patient had a hemorrhagic stroke or an occlusive stroke?
A
Computed tomography (CT)
23
Q
- The patient’s _________retains primary responsibility for the patient’s overall Plan of Care.
A
physician
24
Q
- According to the ICF, represents the effects of an impairment or collection of impairments on a skill or ability.
A
Disability
25
1. What information is most important for a clinician when determining the prognosis for a patient?
. The location and size of the patient’s neurological abnormality
B. A patient’s general health
26
2. Which of the following should be avoided when interviewing the patient?
B. Address the patient by his/her first name
27
3. _________ is a term to represent a structural or functional abnormality in a person
Impairment
28
4. The SLP’s typical role when referred to patients in the ICU:
establish a means of basic communication to unit personnel
| B. Evaluate a person’s swallowing
29
5. Which word refers to whether a treatment has a meaningful positive effect on a disease or condition; could also be defined as change in performance on a standardized test?
Efficacy
30
6. Which of the following pieces of information is typically NOT included in a patient’s consultation request?
C. Relevant family medical history
31
7. Which of the following is NOT appropriate to do regarding a patient interview?
C. Stand during the interview
32
8. Which of the following are common purposes of testing a patient with neurogenic cognitive-communication disorders?
To detect the presence of a cognitive-communicative impairment
B. To arrive at a prognosis for the patient’s recovery
C. Measuring the efficacy of treatment
33
TRUE or FALSE: Normal, superficial reflexes are triggered by tapping tendons or by suddenly stretching muscles.
F
34
Which cranial nerve causes a patient’s eyelid to droop on the affected side if injured?
a. Oculomotor (III)
35
3. Damage to the CNS sensory or motor nerves above the medulla causes an impairment on the ____ side of the body; damage to the CNS or PNS sensory or motor nerves below the medulla causes an impairment on the ___ side of the body.
c. Opposite; same (Pyramidal fibers decussate in the medulla)
36
4. TRUE or FALSE: A tic, a habitual movement or spasm like blinking or coughing, is an abnormal movement that is a known symptom of a neurologic disease.
F
37
5. TRUE or FALSE: Damage to the cranial nerve Vagus can cause weakness or paralysis of its ipsilateral (same side) vocal fold.
T
38
6. Increased resistance to passive movement is called______, while decreased resistance to passive movement is called______.
c. Hypertonia, Hypotonia
39
7. TRUE or FALSE: Cerebral angiography (cerebral arteriography) is an x-ray procedure that provides an image of the veins and arteries of the brain and brainstem.
T
40
8. Which of the following are examples of items that are typically included in Screening Tests of Mental Status:
Writing
b. Attention
c. Orientation to Self
41
1. A patient who is in ICU may need a speech language pathologist to assist them with:
Establishing a means for communicating basic needs
| b. Aiding
42
2. TRUE or FALSE: It is best for a clinician to have a seat when interviewing their patient
T
43
a. TRUE- It can be intimidating for the patient if a clinician remains standing during the interview process. Be relaxed and engaged. Make the patient as comfortable as possible.
T
44
3. What 3 categories of information do clinicians consider when deciding on a prognosis, and why:
a. Neurological findings (because the location and extent of nervous system can impact the patient’s recovery).
b. Patient’s health (because the general health of someone and their current impairments can influence recovery as well)
c. Patient’s characteristics (because someone's age, education, and previous intelligence can have relatively weak effects on recovery)
45
4. TRUE or FALSE: Once you think you have arrived at a diagnosis you can ignore all other evidence or new information about the patient.
F
46
5. TRUE or FALSE: Family members and/or significant others should never be included in the patient interview.
F
47
6. TRUE or FALSE: The speech language pathologist should NEVER explain the purpose of the tests given or allow the patient to ask questions.
F
48
7. TRUE or FALSE: The patient or the patient’s legal guardian has the right to refuse any testing.
T
49
8. In speech language pathology, _____ usually is defined as positive change on a standardized test of swallowing, speech, cognition, language, or communication. ______ frequently is defined by subjective reports of patients or family member or by observation of patients in daily life activities.
a. Efficacy, Effectiveness
50
1. Which nerve is not part of the extraocular muscles
Trigeminal
51
2. What does a doppler ultrasound examine?
b. Blood vessels
52
3. Lymphadenopathy means enlarged lymph nodes.
T
53
4. Which of the following is not assessed in a neurological exam
Tissue Density
54
5. True/ False. One of the functions of cranial nerve 7 is to coordinate eye movements.
F
55
6. During a patient interview, what position should a neurologist, SLP, or any interviewer be in?
Sitting
56
7. True/ false. The effects of an impairment on a skill or ability is a handicap.
F
57
8, Decreased resistance to passive movement is called ________.
Hypotonia
58
9. Which scenario is an example of circumducted gait?
Patient tilts toward the unaffected side and swings the paralyzed leg out and forward from the hip without flexing the knee
59
10. Gradual and uninterrupted development of symptoms over months to years suggests:
A slowly progressive degenerative disease or the pathologic processes underlying the variants of primary progressive aphasia or progressive apraxia of speech
60
11. Gradual development of symptoms over months or years, punctuated by periods of remission ranging from weeks to months, suggests:
Occlusive vascular disease of small arteries or a slowly developing degenerative disease
61
12. When assessing cranial nerve functions it is not typical to start at CN1 and progress to CN12.
F
62
13. All of the following may be used in screening tests of mental status except:
Coordination
63
14. When clinicians decide on a prognosis they must consider:
Patient health
Neurological findings
Patient characteristics
64
15. How do clinicians gather facts about their patients?
Client history
The client’s medical records
Interview with the patient and family members
Test results
65
16. Which of the following is NOT one of the speech pathologist’s purposes of testing?
To give the client more practice with taking assessments
66
17. What does the acronym WHO stand for?
World Health Organization
67
18. Tremor is characterized by…
Rhythmic, small-amplitude movements
68
1. When a physician is testing a patient who is suspected of having Cranial Nerve (CN) damage, not related to the olfactory nerve, the physician often begins with what cranial nerve?
b. CN Two
69
2. When evaluating a client, what might we conclude the patient has if his/her muscles feel hard to the touch & resist stretching (especially fast stretching)?
d. Spastic hypertonia
70
3. The loss of the sense of smell is frequently an early sign of Alzheimer’s disease.
T
71
4. An altered mental state in which the patient experiences episodic loss of consciousness from impaired blood flow to the brain; usually paired with autonomic irregularities.
Syncope
72
5. Imaging procedure that has the advantages of not exposing the patient to radiation and will show differences in chemical composition of tissue; disadvantages include length of time needed for the scan and the inability to scan a patient with mental in their body.
MRI
73
6. Patients with cerebellar damage often complain of:
c. Slurred speech and clumsy arms, hands, fingers, legs, and feet
74
7. Injury to upper motor neurons above the medulla and after decussations causes contralateral muscle weakness and exaggerated reflexes.
T
75
8. The neurologic signs of an Upper Motor Neuron Pathology would include:….
a. Increased tendon reflexes
76
1. ________ is the subjective data reported by the patient. _______is the objective data observed by the physician/clinician. These combined create the _______, which represents the inferences made by the examiner.
a. Symptoms, signs, syndromes
77
2. “Doctor’s Orders” are written to give an overall sense of the patient’s care. Who could be involved in writing these?
d. Patient and primary physician collaborate to decide on best treatments
78
3. Disability is defined as __________
d. The effects of impairment or collection of impairments on a skill or ability.
79
4. In order to have an effective client/patient and clinician relationship, you should start each interview by:
d. Sit down and attempt to make the client/patient as comfortable as possible
80
5. Categories of clinical information considered when forming a patient’s prognosis include:
Neurologic findings
b. Patient characteristics (age, education, etc.)
c. Patient health (general)
81
6. The purpose of testing patients with neurogenic cognitive-communicative disorders is:
Detect the presence of a cognitive-communicative impairment
b. Determine the nature and severity of a patient’s impairments
c. Measure a patient’s recovery
82
7. Which behavior describes somnolence in clients?
b. Drowsiness that may end in a coma or death.
83
8. What do clinicians do to prepare for a client interview?
c. Review the client file and discuss their situation with the physician and nursing staff.
84
1. A patient with damage in the temporal lobe may have difficulty with?
.
85
2. What structure allows awareness of one’s own bodily state, aka comfort level?
.
86
3. A patient reports to you that he/she no longer feels fear in situations that are appropriate. What structure is mostly likely damaged?
Amygdala
87
4. What concept allows new neural pathways to be created after damage?
Neuroplasticity
88
5. A patient is experiencing involuntary facial twitching, what part of the brain may be damaged?
.
89
What fluid when it builds up is known as “water on the brain”?
Cerebrospinal fluid
90
2. The area of the frontal lobe that is responsible for initiating volitional movement is the:
Primary motor cortex
91
3. Which artery supplies the occipital lobe and the inferior temporal lobe?
Posterior cerebral artery
92
4. Damage to the angular gyrus may result in difficulty with memory retrieval, speech and language comprehension, attention, and disorientation.
T
93
5. Which of the following cranial nerves is not to be found in the pons?
Accessory (XI)
94
What is the main function of the occipital lobe?
C: Vision Processing
95
T/F The corpus callosum is the inner part of the brain that connects both of the cerebral hemispheres.
.
96
What can cause damage to the perisylvian zone?
.
97
What does the prefix in the term neurogenesis refer to?
.
98
1. What fluid when it builds up is known as “water on the brain”?
Cerebrospinal fluid
99
2. The area of the frontal lobe that is responsible for initiating volitional movement is the:
Primary motor cortex
100
3. Which artery supplies the occipital lobe and the inferior temporal lobe?
Posterior cerebral artery
101
4. Damage to the angular gyrus may result in difficulty with memory retrieval, speech and language comprehension, attention, and disorientation.
T
102
5. Which of the following cranial nerves is not to be found in the pons?
Accessory (XI)
103
T/F: The meninges DO NOT cover both the brain and the spinal cord.
F
