Questions 1-350 Flashcards
Posterior costal tenderpoints are typically associated with (inhalation/exhalation) somatic dysfunction (elevated/depressed) ribs.
inhalation
elevated
What is the treatment for burkitt lymphoma?
rituximab
CD20 antibody
How do you treat small cell lung cancer?
radiation and chemo
iron is absorbed in the ….
folate is absorbed in the ….
duodenum
jejunum
window period of hep B serology will show
core ab IgM then IGg positive
II, III, aVF infarct location
RV infarction
treatment for RV infarction
isotonic flusids, aspirin and cardiac cath
NO nitrates
How do you prevent infection from foley cath after surgery?
keeping urine collecting bag below the level of the bladder, ensuring good downward flow
abundance of small normal appearing lymphocytes and ruptured smudge cells
CLL
plasma cells with fried egg appearance
multiple myeloma
Dutcher bodies /PAS positive staining IgM deposits around nucleus
waldenstrom macroglobulinemia (non-hodgkin like lymphoma)
lymphoid cells with cytoplasmic projections
hairy cell leukemia
TRAP stain (tartrate resistant acid phosphatase)
hairy cell leukemia
giant cells with bilobar nuclei and eosinophilic nucleoli
Reed sternberg cells
hodgkin lymphoma
PT, PTT, and platelet count in Vit C deficiency
normal PT, normal PTT, normal platelet count
gingivitis, ecchymoses, perifollicular hemorrhage, petechiae, curly hairs
vit C deficiency/scurvy
PT, PTT, platelet count in hemophilia A
normal PT, increased PTT, normal platelet count
(factor 8 deficiency, intrinsic pathway affected)
PT, PTT, platelet count in von willebrand disease
normal PT, increased PTT, normal platelet count
(vwf carries factor 8)
PT, PTT, platelet count in ITP
normal PT, normal PTT, decreased platelet count
what type of RTA is common in sickle cell disease pts and diabetics?
type IV RTA
What medications can cause a type IV RTA
ACE-I and NSAIDs
What is the physiologic defect in type IV RTA?
hypoaldosteronism or aldosterone resistance
hyperK, urine pH <5.5, positive urine anion gap
type I RTA is (distal/proximal)
distal
type II RTA is (distal/proximal)
proximal
impaired distal acid secretion, hypoK, urine pH > 5.5, positive urine anion gap
type I RTA
impaired proximal bicarb reabsorption, hypoK, urine pH <5.5, negative urine anion gap
type II RTA
thromboangiitis obliterans aka
buerger disease
thromboangiitis obliterans is closely linked to…
tobacco use
young smoker with symptoms of claudication, extremity or digit ischemia, or superficial thrombophlebitis
thomboangiitis obliterans
granulomatous skin disorder occurring primarily in diabetics, present with well-demarcated papule or plaque that gradually enlarges; generally non painful and on shins
necrobiosis lipodica
down and out right eye with pupillary dilation
oculomotor nerve palsy due to compression by a posterior communicating artery aneurysm
overall most common site of anuerysm rupture
anterior communicating artery branching point with ACA
aneurysm spot causing bitemporal heteronymous hemianopsia
compressing optic chiasm, ACOM artery aneurysm
decreased pain and or temp of the ipsilateral face and contralateral body
wallenberg syndrome
posterior inferior cerebellar artery
First, second, and third line treatments of status epilepticus
- benzos (lorazepam)
- Antiseizure drugs (fosphenytoin)
- rapid sequence intubation with propofol
testicular tumor with AFP + and no b-hCG
prepubertal males
yolk sac tumor/endodermal sinus tumor
testicular tumor that is well-defined hypoechoic lesions in testicular parenchyma without cystic areas on US
mild elevation b-hCG, no increase of AFP
seminoma
testicular tumor characterized by areas of necrosis and hemorrhage
choriocarcinoma
testicular tumor with symptoms of gynecomastia, loss of libido, or ED in adult males/precocious puberty in children
leydig cell tumors
treatment of CAP in non-ICU inpatient setting
beta-lactam abx plus a macrolide or respiratory fluoroquinolone to cover both typical and atypical bugs
ceftriaxone and azithromycin
MC typical bug in CAP
MC atypical bug in CAP
S. pneumo
mycoplasma pneumoniae
What are two respiratory fluoroquinolones?
levofloxacin and moxifloxacin
What is CURB-65 and what is it used for?
Pneumonia severity
Confusion
Uremia (BUN >20)
Respirations (>30)
Blood pressure (<90 systolic)
65 - age 65 or greater
All HIV pts, regardless of CD4 count should receive what vaccinations?
influenza and pneumonia vax
CD4 ct <200, ppx for….. with….
PCP with TMP-SMX or dapsone
CD4 ct <100, should ppx for …. with ….
Toxoplasma with TMP-SMX
CD4 ct < 50-100 ppx for…. with …
MAC with weekly azithromycin or daily clarithromycin
formation of a biliary-enteric fistula from long-standing cholelithiasis eroding through the wall of the gallbladder will possibly cause…
gallstone ileus
where does gallstone ileus occur?
MC at ileocecal valve due to narrowing, but can be anywhere along GI tract, especially where prior surgical anastomosis is
What is the Rigler triad in gallstone ileus
radiographic findings of bowel obstruction, pneumobilia, and RLQ gallstone
what is definitive treatment of gallstone ileus?
enterolithotomy
what staging systems are used for CLL?
Rai and binet
this staging system for CLL is based on the gradual and progressive increase in the body burden of leukemic lymphocytes
- lymphocytosis
- lymphadenopathy
- organomegaly
- anemia, thrombocytopenia
Rai system
this staging system of CLL considers 5 potential sites of involvement:
cervical, axillary, inguinal lymph nodes, and spleen and liver
determined by physical exam
Binet staging
What is the Ann Arbor staging system used for?
stage lymphomas, classically associated with Hodgkin Lymphoma
What is the revised international prognostic index used for?
prognosis tool of choice for diffuse large B cell lymphoma (MC NHL) in pts receiving R-CHOP chemo
three drugs commonly causing hyperkalemia
TMP-SMX, ACE-Is/ARBs, NSAIDs
empiric therapy for adults >50 yo with bacterial meningitis
ceftriaxone, vanc, ampicillin
empiric abx for bacterial meningitis in neonates ( <1 mo)
ampicillin and cefotaxime
empiric abx for bacterial meningitis in children to adults < 50 yo
ceftriaxone and vanc
in multiple myeloma, plasma cells produce
IgG, IgA, and light chains
HIV pregnancy at 38 weeks and >1000 viral load
C section with IV zidovudine 3 hours pre op
muscle pain, depressed mood, polyuria, constipation
hypercalcemia
hydatid cyst in the liver is due to
echinococcus granulosus
eggshell calcification of a hepatic cyst on CT
hydatid cyst
treatment of hydatid cyst
surgical resection under the cover of albendazole
What is the second MCC of intracerebral hemorrhage after hypertension?
cerebral amyloid angiopathy
where will cerebral amyloid angiopathy typically be located within the brain?
lobar
What is the MCC of intracerebral hemorrhage in children?
cerebral AV malformation
on fetal heart rate tracing, this appears as persistent fetal bradycardia (ie <110)
fetal AV block
What is the most serious complication of neonatal lupus?
fetal AV block
What is a stool marker for inflammatory diarrhea? (typically elevated in pts with IBD)
fecal calprotectin
family history of sudden death, congenital sensorineural deafness, and QT interval prolongation are concerning for…
Jervell and Lange-Nielsen syndrome (AR congenital long QT syndrome)
tx of congenital long QT syndrome
beta blockers with pacemaker
MC complication of influenza
secondary bacterial pneumonia
secondary bacterial pna s/p influenza in a young person is likely…
CA-MRSA
(severe, necrotizing pneumonia)
MCC of pediatric stroke
sickle cell disease
cyanosis occurs with feeding, relieved by crying
choanal atresia
spontaneous cerebellar hemorrhage might present with (ipsilateral/contralateral) hemiataxia
ipsilateral
photosensitive rash, multisystemic symptoms (arthralgias, pancytopenia, splenomegaly)
what antibody assay do I get?
SLE
antinuclear antibody
fixed, widely split S2
atrial septal defect
large ASD or VSD is not corrected and PVR exceeds SVR due to chronic L to R shunting
Eisenmenger syndrome
wide pulse pressure and continuous machine-like murmur or loud S2 and bounding peripheral pulses
PDA
week 1: fever/chills
week 2: abdominal pain with bloddy diarrhea
week 3: faint, salmon-colored macules (rose-spots)
typhoid fever/salmonella typhi
severe enterocolitis with bloody diarrhea s/p undercooked beef
E. coli 0157:H7
2nd MC organism related to HUS
Shigella dysenteriae
bloody diarrhea possibly with proctitis, rectal prolapse, toxic megacolon, intestinal obstruction, leukemoid reaction, or neurologic symptoms
Shigella dysenteriae
vitamin B12 and folate deficiencies will show what on peripheral smears?
hypersegmented neutrophils, elevated MCV, and macroovalocytes
bilobed nuclei of neutrophils seen on peripheral smear are indicative of
Pelger-Huet anomaly
lamina B receptor gene mutation
In pts with HIV associated nephropathy, what is the prominent feature on kidney biopsy?
focal segmental glomerulosclerosis
four features of nephrotic syndrome:
proteinuria >3.5, generalized edema, hypoalbuminemia, and hyperlipidemia
what drug is contraindicated in vasospastic/Prinzmetal angina?
nonselective beta blocker
because could result in unopposed alpha-1 activity, worsening vasoconstriction, causing cardiac ischemia
Cushing triad (3 things)
widening pulse pressure, irregular respirations, and bradycardia
Cushing triad implies
impending or imminent brain herniation
grip weakness and numbness of the hand that is exacerbated by abduction and extension of the upper extremity
thoracic outlet syndrome
pain on thumb and wrist movement with focal tenderness over the radial styloid
De Quervain tenosynovitis
provocative test for dx of de quervain tenosynovitis
finkelstein test
PD pts with psychosis, if they cannot tolerate a reduction of carbidopa-levodopa can be treated with
second gen antipsychotic
quetiapine, pimavanserin
MCC of oculomotor nerve palsy
ischemic neuropathy due to poorly controlled DM
pts with ischemic CN III palsy typically have ptosis, down and out gaze, and
preserved pupillary response
What is systemic therapy for angle-closure glaucoma?
acetazolamide to reduce production of aqueous humor
child with hx of arthralgia and psychosis, together with thrombocytopenia, hematuria, and proteinuria is concerning for
SLE
anti-U1 RNP
Mixed Connective Tissue Disease (MCTD)
mixed connective tissue disease has features of …
SLE, systemic sclerosis, and polymyositis
acquired autoantibody to ADAMTS13
TTP
thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura
plasma protease that cleaves vWF off the endothelial surface
ADAMTS13
treatment for cryptococcal meningioencephalitis
amp B with flucytosine
then maintenance with fluconazole
tx for deramtophytosis and onychomycosis
griseofulvin
tx for cerebral toxoplasmosis
sulfadiazine-pyrimethamine
new onset JVD and RBBB are indicative of…
R heart strain
(commonly associated with PE)
total T4, free T4, and TSH in pregnancy
increased, unchanged, decreased
tx for invasive pulmonary aspergillosis
1-2 weeks IV voriconazole plus an echinocandin (caspofungin)
transitioned to prolonged therapy with voriconazole PO
three common causes of exudative pleural effusion
infection (pna)
malignancy
rheumatologic disease
3 MCC of transudative pleural effusion
heart failure
cirrhosis (hepatic hydrothorax)
nephrotic syndrome
rheumatoid effusions are marked by very low …. and very high…
low glucose
high LDH
why would buproprion be a good choice after 2 failed SSRIs for depression?
NE/DA reuptake inhibitor (no serotonergic effects)
does not cause weight gain
no sexual side effects
chronic, near daily HA in setting of regular use of acute HA medications in pts with preexisiting HA disorder
medication overuse headache
the presence of a single vertebral fracture, esp cervical, in a pt with blunt trauma is an indication to
image the entire spine due to risk of a second, noncontiguous vertebral fx
wide complex tachycardia with fusion beats
sustained monomorphic ventricular tachycardia
tx for stable pt with sustained monomorphic VT
IV amiodarone
regular, narrow complex tachycardia, no fusion beats
paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia
tx for PSVT
carotid sinus massage/vagal maneuver
MC primary cardiac neoplasm
atrial myxoma
- position dependent mitral valve obstruction
- mid diastolic murmur
- dyspnea, lightheadedness, syncope
- embolization -> stroke
- constitutional symptoms
atrial myxoma
pathologic cause of mitral valve prolapse
myxomatous valve degeneration
- high fever, malaise, throat pain
- throat PE: hyperemic yellow or grayish-white papulovesicles
herpangina
four causes of gout from increased urate production
- primary/idopathic
- myeloproliferative/lymphoproliferative disorders
- tumor lysis syndrome
- hypoxanthine guanine phosphoribosyl transferase deficiency
2 causes of gout from decreased urate clearance
- CKD
- thiazide/loop diuretics
pruritis triggered by hot baths, headaches, hepatosplenomegaly
polycythemia vera
what prolactin level correlates with symptomatic prolactinoma
>200
How is LH affected in prolactinoma in a male?
hypogonadism with low T and low or inappropriately normal LH
all preterm neonates born at <32 weeks gestation should undergo what screening?
screening head US at 1-2 weeks
what is the greatest risk factor for intraventricular hemorrhage
prematurity
first 3-4 days of life in premature neonate who has bulging fontanel, anemia, apnea, and seizures
interventricular hemorrhage
ruptured germinal matrix vessels
tx for unstable, regular, narrow complex tachycardia (SVT)
synchronized cardioversion
all pts with persistent tachyarrhythmia (narrow or wide) causing hemodynamic instability should be managed with
immediate synchronized direct current cardioversion
subacute thyroiditis is aka
de Quervain’s thyroiditis
benign, self-limited condition that classically begins after an upper respiratory infection and progresses
inflammatory process in the neck
subacute thyroiditis
subacute thyroiditis tx
NSAIDs for pain
resolves on its own
preferred method to evaluate cervical cytology in pregnant women is
colposcopy