QuesMed Flashcards

1
Q

What is an irregular broad complex tachycardia on an ECG assumed to be

A

Ventricular Fibrillation

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2
Q

What typically causes a subacute presentation of infective endocarditis in patients with existing cardiac disease

A

Strep. Viridans

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3
Q

What would cause exertional dyspnoea, ejection systolic murmur, apical thrill and jerky pulse

A

Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

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4
Q

Mx of VT with a pulse

A

DC Cardioversion

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5
Q

What is first line for diagnosing stable angina

A

CT Coronary Angiogram

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6
Q

What is indicated if lead I is positive but lead II and III are negative

A

Left axis deviation

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7
Q

Compare Mobitz Type 1 and Type 2

A

Type 1 has gradually increasing PR intervals

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8
Q

Ix of Aortic Dissection

A

Trans-oesophageal echocardiography (TOE)

TTE if unstable

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9
Q

What causes weakness and reduction in sensation over the medial digits of the hand

A

Cubital Tunnel Syndrome

(ulnar nerve)

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10
Q

What causes parkinisonism and vertical gaze palsy

A

Progressive supranuclear palsy

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11
Q

What is the only medication licensed for treating MND

A

Riluzole

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12
Q

What causes bilateral left inferior quadrantanopia

A

Infarct in parietal lobe

“PITS” - which stands for “Parietal Inferior ; Temporal Superior”

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13
Q

What is Meig’s syndrome

A

Triad of

Ovarian tumour
Ascites
Pleural effusion

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13
Q

What may be used as a treatment option in idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis

A

Pirfenidone

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14
Q

Definitive Ix of PCP

A

Bronchoscopy with bronchoalveolar lavage

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15
Q

Name an Abx for UTI which can cause pulmonary fibrosis

A

Nitrofurantoin

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16
Q

When treating PE when would unfractionated heparin be preferred to a DOAC

A

Renal insufficiency
Haemodynamically unstable

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17
Q

Mx of primary pneumothorax, SoB, 2.5cm

A

Aspiration

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18
Q

Most common cause of mechanical ventilator associated pneumonia?

A

Pseudomonas Aeruginosa

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19
Q

Tx of pneumonia caused by Pseudomonas Aeruginosa

A

IV Tazocin

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20
Q

What could be indicated by big P waves on ECG

A

P pulmonale - COPD

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21
Q

First line Ix of Cushing’s syndrome

A

Overnight Dexamethasone suppression test

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21
Q

Tx of Gastroparesis

A

Metoclopramide or domperidone

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22
Q

What is the most common type of thyroid cancer

A

Papillary

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22
Severe side effect of pioglitazone?
Fluid retention
23
Slightly raised TSH and normal T4
Sub clinical hypothyroidism
24
Tx of Carcinoid tumours
Octreotide
25
What does Faecal calprotectin screen for
IBD
26
Causes of high SAAG ascites (4)
Cirrhosis Heart failure Budd Chiari syndrome Hepatic failure
27
Causes of low SAAG ascites
Infection Malignancy Nephrotic syndrome
28
What is given in acute severe ulcerative colitis which does not respond to steroirds
IV ciclosporin
29
First line to induce remission of Crohn's disease
Glucocorticoids (prednisolone)
30
A duodenal biopsy performed at this time demonstrated infiltration of the lamina propria by periodic acid-Schiff- (PAS-) positive macrophages.
Whipple's disease
31
What is Felty's syndrome
Triad of rheumatoid arthritis, splenomegaly and neutropenia
32
Name a condition pseudogout is strongly associated with
Haemochromatosis
33
Mx of Polymyositis
Prednisolone
33
First choice of treatment for eosinophilic granulomatosis with polyangiitis (Churg-Strauss)
Corticosteroids
34
Mx of renal stones
<5mm watch and wait >5mm Extracorporeal shock wave lithotripsy Signs of sepsis - Nephrostomy
35
1st step of Mx of Hyperosmolar Hyperglycaemic State
1L 0.9% saline over 1-2 hours Note that initial resuscitation is slightly slower than in DKA (Diabetic Ketoacidosis). This because the dehydration in HHS develops over a long time period and is more pronounced so should be corrected slightly more cautiously to avoid rapid fluid shifts
36
Side effect of doxorubicin
Cardiomyopathy
37
Side effect of vincristine
Peripheral Neuropathy
38
Side effect of bleomycin
Lung fibrosis
39
What causes hyperkalaemia, hyperphosphatemia, hypocalcaemia, hyperuricaemia and increased blood urea nitrogen
Tumour Lysis Syndrome
40
Mx of malignant hyperthermia
IV dantrolene
41
What prophylactic Abx should people take post-splenectomy
Phenoxymethylpenicilln
42
What is the most common microbiological cause of otitis externa
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
43
Mx of Quinsy
Antibiotics and aspiration are now preferred to the traditional incision and drainage
44
Mx of Vestibular schwannoma
Over 40mm require surgery. Under 40mm require 6-monthly annual surveillance scans via MRI.
45
Adjuvant Tx for ER positive and Her-2 positive breast cancer
Tamoxifen - ER positive Trastuzumab - Her2 positive
46
Outline the N in TNM staging
N0 = No spread to nearby nodes N1 = Spread to 1-3 local nodes N2 = Spread to 4-9 local nodes N3 = Spread to 10 or more local nodes or spread to supraclavicular or infraclavicular lymph nodes.
47
Mx of Bacterial conjunctivitis
Topical Chloramphenicol eyedrops
48
Sudden painless loss of vision Stormy sunset appearance
Central retinal vein occlusion
49
Compare central retinal vein and artery occlusion
Vein occlusion far more common Artery occlusion - rapid vision loss, cherry-red spot on macula
50
Patients present with floaters and flashes followed by a 'curtain falling over' their vision
Retinal detachment
51
Floaters in vision, painless loss of vision, history of Diabetes
Vitreous Haemorrhage
52
A 23-year-old male presents to the sexual health clinic with dysuria and urethral discharge. On examination, he has tender inguinal lymphadenopathy and a green urethral discharge. Most likely organism
Neisseria gonorrhoeae
53
Main cause of erysipelas (butterfly rash in cheek)
Strep. Pyogenes
53
What causes peripheral neuropathy in TB Tx? What is given to prevent this?
Isoniazid Give Vitamin B6 (Pyridoxine)
54
Mx of Erysipelas
Flucloxacillin
55
What Abx can reduce seizure threshold in patients with epilepsy, and should be used with extreme caution
Ciprofloxacin (and other quinolones)