Final Flashcards

1
Q

Features of severe asthma (4)

A

PEFR 33 - 50% best or predicted
Can’t complete sentences
RR > 25/min
Pulse > 110 bpm

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2
Q

Features of life threatening asthma? (5)

A

PEFR < 33% best or predicted

Oxygen sats < 92%
‘Normal’ pC02 (4.6-6.0 kPa)

Silent chest, cyanosis or feeble respiratory effort

Bradycardia, dysrhythmia or hypotension

Exhaustion, confusion or coma

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3
Q

Where does Weber’s test lateralise to in conductive and sensorineural hearing loss

A

Conductive - lateralises to affected ear
Sensorineural - lateralises to unaffected ear

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4
Q

What causes ST-segment elevation >2mm in >1 of V1-V3 followed by a negative T wave

Outline Mx

A

Brugada syndrome

Mx: implantable cardioverter-defibrillator

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5
Q

Mx of infectious mononucleosis

A

Reasurrance - self limiting

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6
Q

What is breakthrough morphine dose

A

1/6th of daily morphine dose

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7
Q

What is another name for Chrug-Strauss
What antibodies are associated

A

Eosinophilic granulomatosis with polyangiitis

pANCA

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8
Q

COPD with no asthma Fx, not controlled on SABA, what do you give?

A

LABA + LAMA

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8
Q

At what HbA1c should you add a second oral drug to metformin

A

> 58

(target is then 53)

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9
Q

Mx of undisplaced intracapsular hip fracture

A

Internal fixation, or hemiarthroplasty if unfit.

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10
Q

What zones of the lungs are affected in idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis

A

Lower zones

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11
Q

What to give if angina present despite max dose beta blocker

A

Give amlodipine

(Verapamil & Beta blocker contraindicated due to risk of severe bradycardia and heart failure)

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12
Q

Difference between aplastic and sequestration crises in sickle cell disease

A

Aplastic - reduced reticulocytes

Sequestration - increased reticulocytes
(pooling of blood in spleen or lungs)

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13
Q

What can cause drug-induced pancreatitis

A

Mesalazine

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14
Q

Difference between dry and wet macular degeneration

A

Dry much more common (90%)
Drusen present

Wet has choroidal neovascularisation

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15
Q

56 y/o woman has 2 readings of 145/90 what do you do

A

ambulatory blood pressure monitoring

(treat if over 135/85)

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16
Q

Tx of Chlamydia

A

Doxycycline

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17
Q

Difference between tetralogy of fallot and transposition of great arteries

A

ToF: 1-6 months, ejection systolic murmur

TGA: at birth, no murmur, loud single S2

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18
Q

What type of stroke causes complete one sided sensory loss

A

Lacunar stroke

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19
Q

Most specific and sensitive Ix of pancreatitis

A

Serum lipase (>serum amylase)

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20
Q

BPPV Ix and Tx

A

Dix-Hallpike manoeuvre is diagnostic
Epley manoeuvre is for treatment

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21
Q

Ix of choice for suspected aortic dissection

A

CT angiography

(TOE if unstable)

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21
Q

What is Tx of a displaced intracapsular fracture in mobile/immobile people

A

Immobile - hemiarthroplasty
Mobile - total hip replacement

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22
Q

Which UTI Tx is contraindicated by use of methotrexate

A

Trimethoprim

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23
Q

When would you avoid metoclopramide (2)

A

Parkinson’s
Bowel Obstruction

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24
Q

Outline MEN1

A

hyperparathyroidism, pituitary disease and pancreatic disease

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25
Q

Outline Men 2a and 2b

A

Both: Medullary thyroid cancer, phaeochromocytoma

2a Parathyroid

2b: Marfanoid body habitus, Neuromas

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26
Q

Mx of orbital cellulitis

A

IV cefotaxime

27
Q

Difference between incarcerated and strangulated hernia

A

Strangulated is painful

28
Q

What confirms a diagnosis of post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis

A

raised anti-streptolysin O titres

29
Q

Target oxygen saturations in COPD

A

94-98%

88-92 if CO2 retainer

30
Q

Mx of roascea

A

Topical brimonidine

31
Q

Thyrotoxicosis with tender goitre

A

subacute (De Quervain’s) thyroiditis

32
Q

COPD & steroid responsive treatment after SABA

A

LABA + ICS

33
Q

Which pansystolic murmur becomes louder during inspirtation

A

Tricuspid regurg

Mitral regurg louder on expiration

34
Q

What nerve is damaged in RAPD

A

Optic nerve

35
Q

What causes deeply inverted T-waves in leads V2-V3 (which may extend to V1-V6) with no or minimal ST-elevation

A

Wellens syndrome

36
Q

COCP links to cancer

A

increased risk of breast and cervical cancer

protective against ovarian and endometrial cancer

37
Q

What to do with normal insulin treatment during DKA?

A

Continue long-acting insulin and stop short-acting insulin

38
Q

Mx of Kawasaki disease

A

Aspirin

39
Q

What aggravates pain in medial epicondylitis

A

Wrist flexion and pronation

40
Q

Tx of reactive arthritis

A

NSAIDs

41
Q

Mx of Rosacea

A

Predominant erythema/flushing - topical brimonidine

Mild-moderate - topical ivermectin

Moderate-severe - topical ivermectin + doxycycline

42
Q

Visual field defect caused by pituitary mass?

A

Bi-temporal superior quadrantanopia

43
Q

Visual field defect caused by lesion at the optic chiasm

A

Bi-temporal inferior quadrantanopia

44
Q

Spironalactone effect on K

A

Hyperkalaemia

45
Q

When does dressler’s syndrome occur

A

4-6 weeks after MI

Sx straight away is pericarditis

46
Q

What is suggested by ST elevation in leads II, III, aVF and an AR murmur?

A

Aortic dissection

47
Q

When do you give Tamoxifen or Anastrazole

A

ER positive

give aunties anastrazole (post-menopause)
give teens tamoxifen

48
Q

Blood stained nipple discharge

A

Intraductal papilloma

49
Q

Curtain falling down on vision

A

Retinal detachment

50
Q

How should insulin be commenced in treatment of DKA

A

Fixed rate insulin infusion

51
Q

1st line Mx of constipation in IBS

A

Ispaghula husk

52
Q

Acute Tx of Vestibular neuronitis

A

Oral Prochlorperazine

53
Q

Differences between serotonin syndrome and neuroleptic malignant syndrome?

A

Serotonin syndrome comes on fast (hours), Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome comes on slow (days)

NMS - lead pipe muscle rigidity, decreased reflexes

Serotonin syndrome - clonus, increased reflexes

54
Q

What exacerbates pain in lateral epicondylitis

A

Wrist extension/supination

55
Q

Mx of Toxoplasmosis

A

No Tx

Unless immunosuppressed/HIV = pyrimethamine plus sulphadiazine

56
Q

Cause of a transudate pleural effusion

A

<0.5 fluid protein/serum protein ratio

Cirrhosis
Heart failure
Nephrotic syndrome

57
Q

Which antidiabetic should you always give if there is CVD, or chronic heart failure

A

SGLT-2 inhibitors

Glifozins

58
Q

Tx of cocaine toxicity

A

Diazepam (benzodiazepines)

59
Q

RR in Curb-65

A

RR > 30

60
Q

Tx of whooping cough

A

Erythromycin

61
Q

Surgical resection procedure if bowel has perforated

A

Hartmann’s procedure - end colostomy

62
Q

Most common cause of septic arthritis, 29 y/o?

A

Neisseria Gonnorhoea

63
Q

1st line Tx of otitis externa

A

Topical antibiotics with or without steroid

64
Q

1st line to induce remission of Crohn’s

A

Glucocorticoids

65
Q

Antidiabetic given to all diabetics with CVD (heart failure)

A

SGLT2 inhibitor

66
Q

When can you drive after TIA

A

Start driving if symptom-free for 1 month and there is no need for them to inform the DVLA