queens updats Flashcards

1
Q

Question 4:
Hurricane and severe storm preparedness are crucial for FDNY officers. In regard to storm preparation, all members shall be reminded of ‘reception areas’ each year on or about?
A: March 1st

B: August 1st

C: June 1st

D: May 1st

A

d

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2
Q

Question 21:
All of the following are the correct tool assignments/positions at a flat roof Private Dwelling fire except?
A: The 2nd Roof FF shall take the 6 foot halligan hook and LSR when there will be a delay in laddering the rear of the building due to attached exposures

B: The 2nd Roof FF shall take the 6 foot halligan hook and saw to the roof

C: 1st OV shall assist 1st LCC with rescues in front. If no rescues, then immediately make their way to the rear to check for life hazard

D: 1st LCC to operate in front of building. No operations in front of building then team up with 2nd LCC prior to entry and search

A

a 1st roof ff

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3
Q

Question 25:
Which feature of “fireproof lofts” is incorrectly described below?
A: Interior stairs are open, and one or more fire towers may be provided in buildings over 75 feet in height. Fireproof lofts may have exterior screened stairways leading either to either side of the building.

B: These buildings range from 10-15 stories in height. Rectangular dimensions are usually between 50 to 100 feet or more in width and from 75 to 200 feet deep; some, however, can span an entire block.

C: Loading docks may be covered by large metal canopies supported by cables or rods tied into the exterior walls of the building.

D: Automatic sprinkler and standpipe systems, as required by law, are tied into the city water system or roof gravity tank

A

Explanation:
Interior stairs are ENCLOSED, and one or more fire towers may be provided in buildings over 75 feet in height. Fireproof lofts may have exterior screened stairways leading either to the FRONT or REAR of the building.
Loft 4.4

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4
Q

Question 1:
In HRFPMDs, elevator shafts are conduits for vertical transmission of smoke and heat. The doors to the elevator machinery rooms at the roof level should not be used for ventilation purposes until the status of the fire is ?
A: P/W/H

B:U/C

C: Darkened down

D: Knocked down

A

b

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5
Q

Question 4:
At an incident with a Satellite unit on scene, the designated Water Resource Officer shall establish handi-talkie communications with the Incident Commander of the fire through established communication lines. Priority would be through?
A: Field Communications Unit, if on the scene.

B: Marine Unit, if on the scene.

C: Any Communications Unit, if on the scene.

D: The Resource Unit Leader if on the scene.

A

a

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6
Q

Question 10:
Buckeye pipeline manual shutoff covers are opened by inserting the square female fitting of the wrench into the latching device of the cover and making a ______________.
A: quarter turn clockwise

B: half turn clockwise

C: quarter turn counterclockwise

D: half turn counterclockwise

A

d

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7
Q

Question 10:
Members shall report promptly at the expiration of leaves and off-tour periods. In the event a member is unable to report for duty at the required time, such member shall notify the Officer on duty with his/her unit by phone, stating location and reason for delay. Officers shall promptly notify __________ of such absence, indicating all information received from absent member
A: FDOC

B: the Battalion Chief

C: the Deputy Chief

D: both B and C

A

b

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8
Q

Question 20:
When hoisting a portable ladder to the roof of a building, an experienced Captain should know that the bowline knot is tied ____ from the end of the rope, with a one foot end tail.
A: 3 feet

B: 7 feet

C: 9 feet

D: 12 feet

A

c

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9
Q

Question 40:
When Fire units are unable to contact EMS via HT Channel 1, what is their other option?
A: contact FD dispatcher to relay info to the EMS unit assigned.

B: switch to channel 10

C: switch to channel 12

D: switch to channel 16

A

a

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10
Q

Question 4:
10 minute escape cylinders used by Special Operations Command (SOC) units for confined space, need to be hydrostatic tested every __ years.
A: 3

B: 5

C: 15

D: 10

A

a

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11
Q

Question 10:
Two members discussing regulations pertaining to housewatch duty were incorrect in which comment?
A:✔Firefighters Sixth Grade with less than 6 months of service may perform housewatch only between the hours of 0900-2400 provided they are monitored by the officer on duty or by an experienced member.

B:✘Tours of housewatch duty shall begin at 0900 hours each day, and be divided into eight 3-hour periods. Each tour shall be performed by one member.

C: Company Commanders shall arrange and maintain schedules of assignments to housewatch duty. Assignments shall be equalized and a copy of such schedules posted at the housewatch desk.

D: In a company quarters housing more than one unit, the events of all units shall be recorded in one Company Journal. Housewatch duty shall be performed by members of all such units, alternating monthly in performance of such duty.

A

a

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12
Q

Question 12:
At a brownstone building that is fully involved, the first arriving engine company should drop two hoselines in front of the fire building and position the apparatus for the possible use of the multiversal nozzle or to supply a TL. In this scenario the most correct position for the second hoseline can be found in which choice?
A: Advanced into the fire building as the initial hoseline.

B: Advanced into the fire building as a back-up hoseline.

C: If fire is reported in an exposure, stretched to that exposure.

D: If there is no fire in the exposures, stretch through an exposure to the rear yard of the fire building.

A

b

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13
Q

Question 40:
Which of the following is not fully accurate regarding accelerants and arson at vacant building fires? **1) Diesel fuel used as an accelerant will cause fires that begin and progress slowly. **2)Gasoline ignites rapidly and is consumed quicker than diesel, **3)At gasoline fed fires high heat will be present for a longer duration than at diesel fires. **4)Gasoline fires will ignite more of the combustible materials in the fire area that diesel fires will. **5) Both Gasoline and Diesel fuel will produce intense fire conditions.
A: 1,2,3,4&5

B: 1,3 & 5 only

C: 3 & 5 only

D: 1, 3, &4 only

A

d Explanation:
Firefighting Procedures, Vacant Building Fires. Sec. 4.3
1- Diesel fuel used as an accelerant will cause fires that begin slowly and progress rapidly.
2-Correct
3- At diesel fed fires high heat will be present for a longer duration than at Gasoline fires.
4- Diesel fires will ignite more of the combustible materials in the fire area that Gasoline fires will.
5-Correct.

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14
Q

Question 40:
A knowledgeable officer should know which unit carries two Indian Pumps, four Fire Brooms and 1” Forestry Hose?
A: All engine companies assigned to Staten Island

B: All engine companies

C: All engine companies assigned to respond or relocate to Staten Island on Boxes 100D- 400D

D: All ladder companies assigned to Staten Island

A

a

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15
Q

Question 33:
During multi-unit drill, Lt Manning discussed the general features of a Tower Ladder. She was incorrect in which one?
A: Loss of hydraulic fluid from the main reservoir due to a broken line is rapid and the boom will lock in position.

B: All stabilizing components are equipped with locks (pins) that should be inserted manually in case of hydraulic failure.

C: When operating with a 75’ Tower Ladder, a 6’ hook may be utilized as a gauge to determine if the outriggers will clear all obstructions.

D: When operating with a 95’ Tower Ladder, the clearance needed for the outrigger to an obstruction is 6’8”.

A

b Explanation:
All stabilizing components are equipped with locks (pins) that MUST be inserted manually in case of hydraulic failure.
TL Ch 1 page 2

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16
Q

Question 16:
Which of the following patients would be considered “potentially unstable” according to the CUPS criteria in the CFR-D bulletin?
A: Inability to move any part of the body

B: Poor general impression

C: Responsive but unable to follow commands

D: Difficulty breathing

A

a Explanation:
CFR-D Manual Chapter 2
A. 3.1.4 CUPS Criteria
B. Unstable
C. Unstable
D. Unstable

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17
Q

Question 57:
Which chemical agent has an odor of burnt almonds?
A: Nerve

B: Blister

C: Blood

D: Choking

A

c Hydrogen Cyanide and Cyanogen Chloride

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18
Q

Question 24:
Commanding officers shall file and retain all official records, reports and communications originating in or received in their units. Reports received shall be filed at point of final receipt, and copies of all reports forwarded retained at points of origination for at least?
A: 6 months

B: 1 year

C: 2 years

D: 10 years

A

b Explanation:
Reports of deaths, accidents, injuries to civilians or members, and other unusual occurrences shall be retained until otherwise directed.

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19
Q

Question 3:
During company drill, the senior FF made several points about the EAB on the H/T. You corrected the FF in which choice?
A: Approximately 8 seconds after the impolite alert, the polite alert is sent.

B: H/T power is increased from 2 watts to 5 watts

C: turning the radio on and off will reset the EAB

D: Depress and hold the EAB for approximately 2 seconds to reset it.

A

c Explanation:
Turning the radio on and off will NOT reset the EAB
Comm ch 11 page 14-15

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20
Q

Question 16:
An officer should know that any member who becomes involved in any criminal proceeding, or in civil proceedings involving any governmental agency, shall immediately forward a report recording all pertinent information to?
A: the Borough Commander

B: the Chief of Operarions

C: the Bureau of Personnel

D: BITS

A

c Explanation:
The member shall forward a separate report for each subsequent or continued appearance and said report shall include adjournment date or the certificate of disposition of the proceedings.
Regs 25.4.3

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21
Q

Question 11:
There are three sections available for recording sequential vital signs on a Patient Care Report (PCR). Which of the following statements is incorrect in reference to recording vitals on a PCR?
A: For Cardiac Arrests and DOA’s, Respirations are documented as ‘0’

B: For Cardiac Arrests and DOA’s, Pulse is documented as ‘0’

C: A minimum of one set of vital signs is required for all adult patients except for Cardiac Arrests and DOA’s

D: For Cardiac Arrests and DOA’s, Blood Pressure is documented as ‘0’

A

d Explanation:
CFR-D Manual Chapter 5 Documentation 4.13.1
D. For Cardiac Arrests and DOA’s, Blood Pressure is not taken and the space is left blank

22
Q

Question 4:
Power take-offs on hydraulically operated aerial ladders and tower ladders shall not be operated for instruction purposes (drill) for periods exceeding?
A: 30 seconds

B: 15 minutes

C: 5 minutes

D: 30 minutes

A

Explanation:
Such operation may cause damage or failure of relief valves and/or control parts.
Regs 22.5.3
d

23
Q

Question 34:
According to the BISP manual, when conducting an inspection of emergency exits in a transit facility, all of the following should be reported by telephone to the Public Transportation Safety Unit except?
A: Defective emergency exit ladders or stairs.

B: Inadequate width of the bench walk.

C: Obstructions to emergency exits in the subway or on the street level.

D: Inoperative emergency exit doors.

A

Explanation:b
Fire Department members inspecting emergency exits should NEVER enter track ways or adjacent bench walks. Inspections are to be confined to the area within the emergency exit itself.
Telephone PTSU for Missing or defective exit signs or lights.
Also, any other deficiency that in the judgment of the officer on duty requires immediate attention. BISP Ch 5 Ref 8.4 1.4 C, D

24
Q

Question 10:
In high rise office buildings, an approved combustion ionization detection device or a combination of an approved smoke detecting device and an approved fixed temperature thermostatic device shall be installed at each elevator landing and within the HVAC system. Activation of this device within the HVAC system will cause all of the following except?
A: Unlock the doors on the locked fail safe system.

B: Stop the air supply into and the return air from the floor where activated.

C: Recall the elevators.

D: Sound the fire alarm signal on the fire floor and the floor above.

A

c Explanation:
Within the HVAC system, the activation of this device shall accomplish all of the actions listed in 7.2.5 A with the exception of recalling the elevators.
HROB 7.2.5

25
Q

Question 15:
When a CFR-D Company applies the AED pads to a patient and turns on the AED during a cardiac arrest resuscitation attempt, they should do all of the following except?
A: The original PCR (Part one) shall be immediately faxed and forwarded to the Office of Medical Affairs (OMA) on return to quarters

B: A copy of the original PCR (Part one) shall be turned in to the CFR-D Depot along with the AED module upon completion of the assignment

C: The AED module will be exchanged for a blank one and the CFR-D Depot will immediately forward the module and PCR directly to OMA. The serial number of the module shall be documented on a letterhead and sent to the Chief of Operation via the chain of command

D: If the CFR-D Company’s AED is not applied to a patient during a response to a cardiac arrest, the details of the incident and what prevented the application of the Company’s AED shall be indicated in the PCR Comments section

A

Explanation:
CFR-D Manual Chapter 5
A. 2.1
B. 2.1.1
C. The AED module will be exchanged for a blank one and the CFR-D Depot will immediately forward the module and PCR copy directly to OMA. The SERIAL number of the module shall be documented on the PCR 2.1.2
D. 2.1.3
c

26
Q

Question 16:
If an EEO complaint involves sexual harassment, the complainant may also choose to file directly with?
A: The IG

B: BITS

C: The Workplace Violence Prevention Coordinator

D: The Borough Commander

A

b

27
Q

Question 17:
Members shall wear the following uniforms from ___________. Officers: Work/duty uniform with long sleeve shirt. Firefighters: Work/duty uniform with long sleeve shirt.
A: October 1 to April 30

B: November 1 to March 30

C: November 1 to April 30

D: September 1 to March 30

A

c

28
Q

Question 22:
The following 19 questions totally breakdown AUC 362. We hit EVERY area, because we feel this AUC is highly testable for all ranks, not to mention a hot topic after the London high rise fire… What does EIFS stand for?
A: Exterior Insulation Firefighting System

B: Explosive Insulation Firefighting System

C: Exterior Insulation Foam System

D: Exterior Insulation Finish System

A

d

29
Q

Question 37:
A 2 1/2” handline with a 15/16” tip and 50 psi nozzle pressure with a solid stream will have a vertical reach of ___ feet from the tip of the nozzle.
A: 75

B: 90

C: 100

D: 110

A

a A 2 1/2” handline with a 1 1/8” tip and 40 psi nozzle pressure with a solid stream will have a vertical reach of 40 feet from the tip of the nozzle.

30
Q

Question 16:
Company Officers shall, when notified of structural or occupancy hazards dangerous to life or property, cause an immediate inspection to determine conditions, transmit such information to _____________, and when necessary, forward a report to the Bureau of Fire Prevention via their chain of command.
A: Only Battalion Chief on duty

B: Deputy and Battalion Chiefs on duty

C: Battalion, Deputy, and Borough Chiefs on duty

D: FDOC

A

b

31
Q

Question 26:
Units are designated by the following letter suffix when assigned a specific task at an incident. The suffix R after a ladder company designation L136R correctly labels a ________
A: Division Task Force

B: Hi-Rise Roof Team

C: Rescue Collapse Transport

D: SOC Support Truck

A

c

32
Q

Question 30:
Each choice below contains correct information regarding fireproof lofts except?
A: These buildings range from 10-15 stories in height.

B: Interior stairs are open and fire towers may be provided in buildings over 25 feet in height.

C: Electrical service panels may be found on multiple floors servicing several different tenants.

D: Fireproof lofts can be interconnected by automatic fire doors or joined via exterior bridges (skywalks).

A

b Explanation:
Interior stairs are enclosed and one or more fire towers may be provided in buildings over 75 feet in height.
Lofts 4.4

33
Q

Question 35:
Read Explanation… During Roll Call in L-100, the junior FF tells you that the gasalert C.O. meter is not working properly and is defective. You notify who for a replacement meter?
A: Admin Battalion

B: Admin Division

C: Tech Services

D: HazMat Ops Meter Room

A

a Explanation:
If it is the Drager PAC 6500 Meter, then the officer on duty shall notify the Meter Room at Haz Mat Operations and arrange for an exchange. Prepare and attach an RT-2 to CO Meter and leave on the Officer’s desk for Meter Room pick-up.
HazMat Ch 4 add 2 For a Gasalert meter, notify BC on duty of exchange so notification can be made to HazMat Ops Meter Room
HazMat ch 4 Add 1 bottom of last page
Both are still in the books and testable

34
Q

Question 36:
Engine 231 returns to quarters after a CFR-D response and the Officer asks his ECC to make the proper notification(s) that the Engine will be in service for fire duty but out of service for CFR-D runs while the unit replenishes supplies. Who must the ECC notify?
A: Dispatcher only

B: Battalion only

C: Dispatcher and Battalion

D: Dispatcher, Battalion and Division

A

Explanation:
CFR-D Manual Chapter 2
C. Advise both the dispatcher and Battalion that you are not available for CFR-D responses 3.16.2
*You only have to notify the dispatcher when you are back in service for CFR-D
c

35
Q

Question 40:
All of the following choices contain correct information regarding the use and care of the Multiversal Nozzle except?
A: The use of two hoselines to supply the Multiversal Nozzle should be used whenever possible, but one can be used.

B: The maximum allowable pressure supplied to the appliance base is 250 psi.

C: The multiversal is equipped with two 3” female connections.

D: Inspections shall be conducted weekly.

A

Explanation:
The maximum allowable pressure supplied to the appliance base is 200 psi.
Eng Ops ch 9
b

36
Q

Question 3:
Upon arrival at a hazardous materials incident, the Chemical Protective Clothing (CPC) officer shall report to whom?
A: IC

B: Haz-Mat Chief

C: Safety Battalion Chief

D: Rescue Battalion Chief

A

Explanation:
Report to IC for a briefing. The first arriving CPC Unit Officer will RECOMMEND to the IC the entry point into the Hot Zone, and then establish the CPC Unit Assembly Area adjacent to the entry point
Hazardous Materials 5 sec 5
a

37
Q

When necessary repairs to the apparatus have been reported and not made within a reasonable time, the company commander shall forward a written report to the?
A: Assistant Commissioner of Support Services

B: Fire Commissioner

C: Division Commander

D: Chief of Operations

A

c

38
Q

Question 28:
All Truck Officers should be aware that FAST Radio Forms can be acquired through?
A: The Battalion

B: The Division

C: The Stationary Stockroom

D: The Handie-Talkie Recording Unit

A

b

39
Q

Question 8:
You are the Lt of Engine 401, arriving 1st-due at a 2 1/2-story peaked roof private dwelling with heavy fire reported in the cellar. Battalion 65 will be delayed and as you are the highest ranking officer on scene, you are designated the Incident Commander. You know that all of the following actions below are correct except in one choice. Indicate the incorrect action.
A: The Ladder company operating on the first floor reported an advanced cellar fire so you ordered an exterior hoseline operated into the cellar window for a quick knockdown

B: You made sure no members were operating in the cellar before ordering the exterior hoseline operated into the cellar window

C: You allowed members operating on the first floor to secure an area of refuge, ensuring a ready means of egress prior to ordering the exterior hoseline operated into the cellar window

D: You transmitted an “Urgent,” as this is always necessary prior to ordering an exterior hoseline operated into the cellar window

A

Explanation:
D) This should be done when a CHIEF orders repositioning the first line from the first floor into the cellar
FFP PD Ch 3 sec 2.6, 2.7.4

40
Q

Question 12:
Which smell corresponds to Cyanogen Chloride?
A: Burnt Almonds

B: Fruity Odor

C: Musty Hay

D: Garlic Odor

A

a

41
Q

Question 18:
Your unit responds to an overt Biological release. You correctly make the initial exclusion zone using a _______.
A: Circular pattern of 150 feet

B: Circular pattern of 300 feet

C: Circular pattern of 450 feet

D: Circular pattern of 600 feet

A

B. ERP Add1 Ch1 5.2.2 Establish an initial Exclusion Zone at least 300 feet in all directions from the source

42
Q

Question 30:
Eng 199 and Ladder 98 respond to a reported brush fire. On arrival, they find an abandoned LPG tanker in the weeds with a large fire severely exposing it. They transmit the box and know which of the following to be correct?
A: The tank’s liquid level can always be found by a frost line

B: Never extinguish the fire until the leak has been stopped

C: Approach the tank from the sides, applying water to all exposed surfaces as well as piping and valves

D: Tank failure under fire conditions usually occurs in the liquid area of the tank when sufficient water can’t be applied

A

Explanation: c
A. Not Always… Sometimes. HM 1 1.4.7
B. Not Never… except under extremely unusual conditions. HM 1 1.4.1
C. Haz Mat 1 sec 1.4.3
D. Usually the vapor area. HM 1 1.4.7

43
Q

Question 33:
Ladder 67 is the 2nd arriving truck at a 4 story brownstone top floor fire. Their inside team correctly operated in which choice?
A: Go into the fire building, checking the floors below to insure fire did not start on lower floor

B: Go into the most severe exposure, checking the top floor for extension

C: Remain on the stairs below the top floor and go to the top floor to assist first truck if needed

D: Reported to the roof to assist in ventilation

A

a Explanation:
A. Brownstones Page 23
B. OV FF-For a top floor fire, after checking the rear, report to the roof to assist in ventilation and opening up of the roof, or go into an exposure as directed by their officer. Page 25
C. Units should remain on the floor below until needed. They shall not block the stair or hallway leading to upper floors. Page 23

44
Q

Question 56:
Aerial Ladder 166 is well know for fighting fires in project type buildings as they respond to many Low Rise FPMD’s. L166 was 1st due to another LRFPMD and their LCC operated correctly in all choices below except?
A: She surveyed the outside of the building from the opposite direction of the OV

B: She realized that a 4th floor fire can often be reached with a 35’ portable ladder

C: As no outside operations were needed, the LCC proceeded to the fire floor to assist in the search of the fire floor hallway and fire apartment

D: As the 2nd ladder company was delayed and not on scene, the 1st LCC was be ordered to the roof by her officer

A

d Explanation:
When the 2nd ladder company is delayed and not on scene, the Officer may order this team (OV/LCC) to the apartment directly above the fire
MD 7.7.2 E

45
Q

Question 57:
The Pressure Reducer Assembly (PRA) on all SCBAs are labeled with both unit identification and sequential numbering within the unit for quick identification as well as individual assignment at the start of the tour. Which choice below contains a correctly labeled PRA?
A: Squad: Orange background

B: Battalion spare: Yellow background

C: Marine: Blue background

D: MSU Spare: Black background

A

d Explanation:
A) yellow
B) orange
C) green
TB SCBA 10.3

46
Q

Question 60:
For a cellar fire in a peaked roof private dwelling, when the decision has been made to advance the first hoseline through the main entrance and down the interior cellar stairs to extinguish the fire, it would be appropriate for the first arriving ladder company to take all of the following actions except?
A: The first arriving ladder company inside team will perform a primary search of the first floor prior to descending into the cellar to perform the primary search and examination of the cellar.

B: If the engine company requires assistance in order to advance the line through the cellar, one member of the interior team shall be sent to provide assistance, while the ladder company officer and the other member complete the primary search of the first floor.

C: Attempting to descend the cellar stair without the protection of a hoseline may be necessary in order to quickly locate the fire and effect prompt extinguishment.

D: If a chief officer is not on the scene, communication between the first and second arriving ladder company officers is essential to identify areas on the first floor and floor(s) above that may require a primary search.

A

c Explanation:
C) It is critical at cellar fires that the first ladder inside team operate in a manner that supports the first hoseline in quickly applying water on the fire. Often, the cellar stair is narrow, confined and problematic for ladder members to descend without the protection of a hoseline. Attempting to descend the cellar stair without the protection of a hoseline may actually DELAY the engine company advance.
FFP PDs 10.4.1

47
Q

Question 71:
Which statement concerning basic pumping operations is correct?

A: After water is introduced into the pump, before increasing pump pressure and opening any discharge outlets, the primer pump must be utilized to expel air from the pump chamber.

B: When residual pressure drops below 20psi on the intake pressure gauge, augmentation will be required.

C: Engaging the pumps is recommended before hooking up to and opening the hydrant.

D: When in-line pumping operations are implemented, 2 1/2” hose shall be the initial supply line.

A

a Explanation:
A. TB Apparatus P-3 (8.1)
B. below 15 psi TB Apparatus P-3 (6.4)
C. Hooking up to and opening the hydrant is recommended before engaging pumps. TB Apparatus P-3 (6.4 Note)
D. 3 1/2” hose TB Apparatus P-3 (4 f)

48
Q

Question 93:
Lt Sipowiz has just received a telephone call from FF Hill who is assigned to her company and is currently on non-service connected medical leave. FF Hill states he has just been arrested for DWI. Lt Sipowiz would be most correct if she took which one of the following actions?
A: Inform FF Hill that he shall complete the Arrest of Member Report (Form BP-66) on his next return date to BHS.

B: During normal business hours Lt Sipowiz shall immediately notify the Borough Commander. During non-business hours, the Command Chief should be notified via the Fire Department Operations Center (FDOC).

C: Prepare a written report with full particulars of the incident and forward the report to the Inspector General.

D: Inform FF Hill that he could have notified his union trustee or attorney instead of notifying the officer on duty in his assigned unit.

A

Explanation: a
A. Regulations Chapter 25 (25.4.2)
B. An arrest requires an immediate notification to BITS. Regulations 25 (25.4.2)
C. An Arrest of Member Report will be completed by the member and forwarded to the Bureau of Personnel. Regulations Chapter 25 (25.4.2)
D. A member who is arrested shall immediately notify the officer on duty in the member’s assigned unit. This obligation is not fulfilled by informing a union trustee or attorney. Regulations 25 (25.4.2)

49
Q

Question 94:
You, as the newly assigned Captain of Ladder 99, were approached by Probationary Firefighter Green who was inquiring how many RSOT tours he is eligible for this year. Probationary Firefighter Green was appointed 2/17/2018. You would be correct to tell this member he is eligible for how many scheduled RSOT tours in calendar year 2018?
A: four (4) day 9x6 and three (3) night 6x9 tours

B: one (1) day 9x6 and two (2) night 6x9 tours

C: two (2) day 9x6 and one (1) night 6x9 tours

D: one (1) day 9x6 and one (1) night 6x9 tour

A

c Explanation:
Upon completion of the first six (6) month period, the Probationary Firefighter will be eligible for scheduled RSOT depending on the “remaining months” in the calendar year. The definition of a month in this case is based on the appointment date of the Firefighter. A full month will be counted only if the appointment date was on or before the l6th of a month. Since February doesn’t count (appointed on the 17th) this leaves March through August making up the six months. Thus, he has 4 months left (September through December) resulting in TWO 9X6 days and ONE 6X9 night as per the chart in PAID 1-90 Add 5
PAID 1-90 Add 5

50
Q

Question 97:
All of the following choices contain correct information regarding the FDNY’s “Workplace Violence Prevention Policy” except?
A: In the event of a workplace violence emergency, employees are instructed to first report the emergency by calling 911, and then report to their supervisor or the Workplace Violence Prevention Coordinater.

B: An employee who has secured an Order of Protection and is concerned that the person from whom protection has been sought may attempt to contact the employee at his/her work location should submit a copy of such Order to the Bureau of Fire Investigation.

C: If an employee reasonably believes in good faith that submitting a Workplace Violence Prevention Report to a supervisor would not result in corrective action, the employee may submit the Workplace Violence Report directly to the Workplace Violence Prevention Coordinator.

D: Every supervisor who has received a Workplace Violence Report shall ensure that it is forwarded via the chain of command to the Workplace Violence Prevention Coordinator. All supervisors within the chain of command shall ensure time is taken for proper endorsements, even if this means withholding the report. This does not apply to verbal reports.

A

Explanation:
Every supervisor who has received a Workplace Violence Report (or a verbal report) shall ensure that it is forwarded via the chain of command to the Workplace Violence Prevention Coordinator. All supervisors within the chain of command shall ensure that the report is forwarded on an expedited basis.
PAID 1-2011 1.6, 9.1, 10.4.1, 11.1.1

51
Q

repositioning line for cellar acronym

A

ACRONYMN: “SAALLE”
Secondary cellar entrance cannot be accessed or located quickly
Advancing down interior stairs cannot be done Advanced/serious fire
Locating any cellar entrance cannot be done
Lightweight construction
Emergency such as members trapped by fire in cellar or endangered by fire because of collapse