BROOKLYN 2022

Question 1

Question 39:
For a fire in a vacant row frame building in the middle of a row of occupied frames, which tactic below is correct?

A: The first to arrive engine company should drop two hoselines: one hoseline to enter the fire building, and a backup hoseline.

B: The second hoseline, if not needed to back up the first hoseline, shall be stretched through an exposure to the rear of the fire building.

C: The fourth hoseline is stretched to the opposite exposure of the third hoseline.

D: The third hoseline is stretched to the fire building or to the opposite exposure, depending on where the second hoseline was stretched.

Answer 1

Explanation:
A) The first to arrive engine company should drop two hoselines: one a 3 ½” line to supply a TL, and a hoseline to enter the most severe exposure.
B) The second hoseline, if not needed to back up the first hoseline, shall be stretched to the fire building or to the opposite exposure.
C) The fourth hoseline is stretched as ordered by the Incident Commander.
RF 6.7 A

Question 2

Question 6:
E-200 arrives 1st due for a report of a fire in a Lithium Ion Energy storage container. The initial assessment is that there is no fire or smoke showing from the container. As a precautionary measure, the officer should establish an initial danger zone of how many feet from the container?

A: Minimum 50 ft radius

B: Minimum 75 ft radius

C: Minimum 100 ft radius

D: Minimum 200 ft radius

Answer 2

Explanation:
THIS IS NEW!
Minimum of 50 ft radius from container(s)/cabinets(s)
Minimum of 100 ft from container/cabinet exhaust opening (usually located on the container’s/cabinet’s side opposite FDC). Cabinets may not have exhaust systems
Haz-Mat 19 sec 5

Question 3

Question 21:
Proper placement of the tip of the portable ladder provides for easier and safer mounting and dismounting. It also allows the user to maintain balance by providing a handhold. Which placement of the portable ladder is listed correctly?

A: Placed against a fire escape - Tip shall be level with the fire escape railing.

B: Placed at a window - Tip shall be slightly above the window sill.

C :Placed at a roof - Tip shall be at least 5 feet above the roof or parapet.

D: Placed alongside a fire escape on a building wall - Tip shall be 1 to 3 feet above the fire escape railing

Answer 3

Explanation:
Placed against a fire escape - Tip shall be slightly above the fire escape railing.
Placed at a window - Tip shall be level with window sill.
Placed at a roof - Tip shall be at least 2 feet above the roof or parapet.
Placed alongside a fire escape on a building wall - Tip shall be 1 to 3 feet above the fire escape railing.
Lads 1 7.4

Question 4

Question 23:
At a row frame fire where the building is fully involved and there is fire in the exposures, a “holding operation” will be implemented. In this situation, where is the first hoseline stretched?

A: Into the fire building through the front door.

B: To the top floor of the most severe exposure.

C: Through an exposure to the rear yard.

D: In front of exposure one to operate on the exterior.

Answer 4

A

Question 5

Question 24:
When positioning at a building collapse, all of the following are correct except?

A: If possible, the 1st and 2nd arriving engines should take separate hydrants outside the block, each on separate mains

B: Two of the second alarm ladder companies should be used to seal off the ends of the street

C: Initially, the first arriving TL should be the only unit in front of the collapse building, unless there is a specific need for additional units,

D: Aerial ladders and SOC support ladders should be kept away from the front of the building in a secondary staging area unless needed for specific rescue purposes

Answer 5

xplanation:
Two of the second alarm ENGINE COMPANIES
FFP Collapse Operations page 6

Question 6

Question 25:
At vacant building fires, officers of aerial ladder companies shall consider the need for access and positioning of tower ladders in order to utilize their extinguishing capabilities. However, there are vacant building fires where the officer gives precedence to the positioning of their aerial apparatus. These situations are accurately listed in all choices below except?

A: The officer receives information or has prior knowledge that part of this building is used by vagrants or squatters.

B: The reach of the 100’ aerial is required to expedite or execute certain tasks or assignments.

C: A large caliber stream is expected to be utilized.

D: A building is not completely vacant.

Answer 6

Lads 2 6.6.1 C

Question 7

Question 1:
Which of the following choices contains incorrect information regarding the Buckeye Pipeline?

A: The Buckeye Pipeline consists of two, 12” steel pipes. One carries kerosene base aviation fuel and the other can carry several different types of fuels

B: The pipeline operates at 1,200 psig at Linden, New Jersey. The maximum service pressure on the terminal piping and the delivery lines to shippers from the Long Island City terminal is 200 psig.

C: To shut off the valve, place the square female fitting of the wrench onto the square male stem of the valve and turn it clockwise approximately 42 full turns. There are exceptions where the valves require more or less than the 42 full turns.

D: At most valve location there are two manual shut off valves (one for each line) generally located below ground in a valve housing under a pair of red covers.

Answer 7

VExplanation:
C. There are exceptions where the valves require more or less than the 42 full turns. For example, valves located on the shipper’s lines require approximately 24 full turns clockwise to close. Valve 62QL only requires 12 full turns clockwise to close. Valve 66QI on JFK property near the “Head of Bay” requires over 100 full turns clockwise to close. It is vital to make only the correct number of turns. DO NOT OVER TIGHTEN
D. Yellow covers
AUC 149 sec 1 and 2

Question 8

Question 12:
The Company Journal shall be retained for how many years?

A: 20

B: indefinitely

C: 15

D: 10

Answer 8

B xplanation:
Regs ch 15 sec 15.2.2
Company Office Record Journal is 10 years (15.3.1)
Company Fire Record Journal is 10 years (15.3.3)

Question 9

Question 32:
The incorrect description in regards to standpipes in Under River Rail tubes can be found in which choice?

A: All under river standpipes in the NYCT system are wet

B: Standpipes are usually city-main fed. There are no pumps to augment pressure

C: Siameses are usually located at the emergency exits closest to the river. In all cases, check the sign attached to the siamese to ensure that the correct system is supplied

D: 2 1/2 inch outlets are located every 200 feet throughout under river tubes

E: Section valves are located approximately 600 feet apart

F: Sound-powered phone jacks are located at or near section valves (exception: Joralemon Tube)

Answer 9

Explanation:
Sound-powered phone jacks are located at standpipe outlets (every 200 feet)
FFP Under River Rail operations sec 2.7

Question 10

Question 34:
You are working under the Search and Evacuation Group Supervisor (SAE) during a ripping High-Rise office building fire conducting searches on several floors. What channel are you on?

A: 4

B: 3

C: 2

D: 1

Answer 10

Explanation:
B- Secondary Tactical
C- Command
D- Primary Tactical
When the SAE Group is established, units assigned to the SAE Group shall switch to secondary tactical channel and shall not communicate with the ICP unless urgent
HR page 19

Question 11

Question 7:
Your unit, an aerial ladder, arrives second at a top floor fire in a Brownstone. Which tools should your Roof Firefighter bring to the roof?

A: Saw and 6ft halligan hook

B: Saw and 6ft hook

C: Halligan and 6ft halligan hook

D: Halligan, 6ft hook and life saving rope

Answer 11

A

Question 12

Question 22:
The incorrect guideline for wearing shorts on duty can be found in which choice?

A: Shorts are an optional part of the uniform year round for Officers and Firefighters

B: Shorts may be worn for CFRD/CPR responses, ERS NC, and Class E alarms without donning bunker gear

C: Shorts may not be worn for BISP, AED, and Hydrant Inspection

D: Shorts may be worn when units are called to the Bureau of Training and Satellite Training Locations

Answer 12

Explanation:
Must wear Bunker Gear over the shorts for these types of responses
Regs ch 29 page 7

B

Question 13

Question 1:
Two officers discussing still water operations identified which incorrect comment?

A: When a report is received that individuals are stranded due to flooding, a Water Rescue Team consisting of a Water Rescue Company and an Engine Company will be dispatched. The Water Rescue Team will be equipped with a 14-foot Flat Bottom Boat, waders, CWS’s, and PFD’s.

B: When the Water Rescue Company is a Ladder Company, an Engine Company will be dispatched to transport the Flat Bottom Boat. Priority will be given to dispatching the Engine that is quartered with the Ladder Company, when available.

C: When the Water Rescue Company is an Engine Company, they will transport the Flat Bottom Boat, and a neighboring Engine Company will be dispatched to assist in operations.

D: Members of Water Rescue Companies trained in the use of Cold Water Suits shall don the suits prior to commencing operations. The remaining members of the Water Rescue Team shall be equipped with waders and a PFD. Only under extreme circumstances should a member enter the water without a Cold Water Suit or waders and a PFD.

Answer 13

Explanation:
No member shall enter the water unless equipped with a Cold Water Suit or waders and a PFD.
AUC 159 Add 7 4.1-4.4

D

Question 14

Which choice below is incorrect regarding NYC Transit’s Emergency Evacuation Device (EED)?

A: The EED is a yellow, 7-foot long device with steps on the front and a flat surface on the backside. A non-skid surface is applied to both sides. Each unit weighs approximately 42 pounds.

B: Keys to remove EEDs from their mounting brackets are only available at full-time token booths. are secured with a corrosion resistant padlock. If a key cannot be obtained, the locks can be forced using conventional forcible entry methods.

C: When positioned against the side or end doors of a subway car the EED will reach the roadbed at approximately a 70° angle (safe for ascent / descent) and the steps will provide a horizontal stepping surface. A notch cut in the beams on one end of the ladder helps to anchor the EED in position against the car and or platform.

D: These devices are constructed of fiberglass reinforced plastic and are electrically nonconductive for use within the confines of the subway environment

Answer 14

Explanation:
Keys to remove EEDs from their mounting brackets are available at EVERY token booth.
AUC 207 Add 11 2.1-2.3, 3.4

B

Question 15

Question 4:
Company officers can request Handie-Talkie (HT) recordings to provide the opportunity to critique and improve fire ground communications. Choose the correct procedure to request HT recordings.

A: Company Officers can fax a request form directly to the HT recording unit

B: Officers or units requesting handie-talkie audio must send an email from an FDNY address to HT unit email address

C: After faxing the request form directly to the HT unit, the company officer is to forward the original request form to the Borough Commander via chain of command

D: Use of HT recordings for non-Departmental business is allowed if the company commander allows it.

Answer 15

B

Explanation:
***Recent update
B. Communications ch 9 add 1 sec 8
D. Use of HT recordings for non-Departmental business is prohibited. They shall be kept in a designated secure location in the company office when not in use

Question 16

Question 5:
At Rowframe fires, the danger of collapse is a factor deserving consideration. Which choice below is incorrect?

A: A heavy fire in the cockloft will burn roof supports and cause the collapse of the roof into the top floor.

B: Collapse of sidewalls is a danger. This is especially true where buildings within the row have been demolished and removed, unless the walls bordering this gap are braced.

C: The weight of a fire escape can cause a complete collapse of an exterior wall. Brick veneer and stucco facing can collapse in sections or as a complete unit.

D: When a serious fire burns out the entire first floor, there is danger of collapse, especially in corner buildings and buildings standing alone.

Answer 16

Explanation:
Collapse of sidewalls is a danger. This is especially true where buildings within the row have been demolished and removed. EVEN WHEN walls bordering this gap are braced, the danger is STILL present.
RF 5.4

B

Question 17

Question 10:
Isolated stairs are stairways that access only a small number of apartments and are isolated from other areas of the building. Which is incorrect regarding these stairs?

A: By using isolated stairs, there will only be access to the apartments immediately accessed by the stairs.

B: There is typically no hallway associated with isolated stairs.

C: When faced with isolated stairs, care must be taken to ensure the correct stairway is used to access the fire apartment.

D: Isolated stairs can be found in a number of older building types, including old law tenements

Answer 17

Explanation:
Eng Ops Ch 7 sec 2.10
Isolated stairs can be found in a number of building types, including new law tenements, apartment houses, and other newly constructed multiple dwellings.

D

Question 18

Question 16:
During company drill, you make the following statements on the Electronic Fireground Accountability System (EFAS). You were incorrect in which statement?

A: The member monitoring EFAS shall be identified by radio designation such as L100 can EFAS to Command

B: The Spare Radio Database (updated) will be indicated in the bottom center of the task bar of the MDT in green letters and the assigned Battalion or Division vehicle

C: If the EFAS member manually assigns a Mayday utilizing the MDT touch screen, a hard copy will print showing the members company, position, and time Mayday was assigned

D: EFAS defaults to Tactical Channel 1. It has the capability of monitoring any of the 16 channels, including UTAC and NYMAC channels; however, it can only monitor one channel at a time

Answer 18

xplanation:
“EFAS to Command” NO UNIT NUMBERS
Communications ch 9 add 3 sec 2.3 note, 4.2, 5.2, 6.1

A

Question 19

Question 21:
During company drill, a probationary firefighter made which incorrect comment about chainsaw operations?

A: Use extreme caution when cutting small size brush and saplings which may easily catch the chain and pull you off balance.

B: The most dangerous kickback zone is the upper 90 degree quadrant of the blade.

C: A circle of danger of a radius of at least 10’ should be established before the commencement of cutting. The saw operator, control person and officer should be the only personnel in this area during cutting.

D: If a branch, tree section or other object is hanging, leaning or otherwise damaged, members are to prevent access to the danger area by unauthorized persons. If practical, the object should be stabilized by lashing or shoring. Cutting it down is not to be attempted.

Answer 19

Explanation:
The SAW OPERATOR and CONTROL PERSON will be the only personnel in this area during cutting. The OFFICER is to monitor conditions and relay orders received from the officer in command. If possible, the officer is positioned as to permit visual contact with the control person.
TB Tools 24 3.10.1 B, 4.4, 5.3, Figure 5

C

Question 20

Question 37:
For a cellar fire in a 1-story taxpayer, which Engine Company tactic was not in accordance with Department procedures?

A: Proper placement of the first hoseline requires a coordinated size-up and communication by the first Engine and Ladder Officer

B: Second hoseline is initially positioned and charged outside the fire building as a back-up for the first hoseline

C: Entrance to the cellar shall not be from a horizontal entrance from an adjoining cellar

D: If sprinklered, it is the responsibility of the 3rd arriving engine company to ensure a supply line is stretched and connected to the FDC

Answer 20

Explanation:
Entrance to the cellar may be one or more of the following: an interior cellar stairway, an interior trap door, an exterior flush sidewalk door, an exterior stairway, or a horizontal entrance from an adjoining cellar. Taxpayer 7.2. C

Question 21

Question 10:
The stairway configuration of a building can greatly assist operations in some cases. There are usually two to four independent stairs in “H” type buildings. Of the following choices, which is incorrect?

A: Transverse stairs are usually located at points remote from each other, but a person can go (transverse) from one stairway to another via the public hall on all floors of the building. They are a tremendous asset in heavy fire operations on the top floor.

B: Isolated stairs are usually identified by their individual entrances. Floor landings are recognized by their limited space and absence of a public hall. Access is limited to the apartments served by the stairs, and there is no access to other wings.

C: Generally, on the first floor of H-type buildings, there is no access between wings.

D: Wing stairs are located at the front and rear of each wing. The floor landing leads to the public hall that will join the other stairs in that wing only (if two stairs). The public hall does not transverse to the other wing of the “H”

Answer 21

Explanation:
Generally, on the first floor of H-type buildings, there IS access between wings.
MD 5.2.5

Question 22

Question 19:
You, the Lieutenant, have arrived to a fire in St Phillip Neri Church located at 3021 Grand Concourse, in the Bronx. Since this is your first tour out of FLSTP, the tactics for Engines and Ladders are fresh in your mind. Choose the tactic that was carried out incorrectly.

A: To effectively extinguish fire spreading to the attic or bell tower, the 1st hoseline should be stretched up the spiral stairs leading to the attic or bell tower area

B: When the fire is located in a large open area, the initial hoselines will generally be 2 1/2”

C: After a size-up for a cellar fire, which indicated operations will be in close quarters, the 1st 1 3/4” hoseline should be stretched to the entrance door that provides the quickest access to the cellar in order to extinguish the fire

D: For a first floor fire, the 2nd arriving Ladder Company will ensure that the cellar is examined for fire

Answer 22

A Explanation:
FFP Places of Worship
A- In most cases when fire does spread into the attic or bell tower, it cannot be extinguished by the use of handlines due to the limited access to the space and lack of ventilation. FFs will have to be withdrawn and an exterior operation employed…sec 6.4.1
B- sec 6.1.2
C- sec 6.1.3
D- 1st ladder will attempt an examination of the cellar for fire…the 2nd ladder will ENSURE the cellar is examined for fire…sec 7.3.1 and 7.3.2

Question 23

Question 24:
Your Engine Company is assigned to JFK Airport on a multiple alarm for a cargo airplane on fire. You would be most correct to know all of the following except?

A: Water supply operations need to be coordinated by the Engine Company Officer and the Crash Truck Operator. Ensuring an adequate delivery of water is the primary function of the Fire Department at airport emergencies.

B: When the FDNY supplies water to the PA/ARFF Crash Trucks FDNY Engine Company Chauffeurs (ECCs) should not exceed 80-psi at the intakes of ARFF Crash Trucks.

C: Intake pressure gauges can be found on each side of ARFF Crash Trucks. A logical position for the Engine Company Officer would be in close proximity to the plane.

D: ARFF crash trucks do not have fittings that can accept 6” hose. If a relay is conducted using 6” hose, the best approach would be to position an Engine Company at a positive hydrant use the Hose wagon or Satellite to lay a line of 6” hose from the Engine at the hydrant to another Engine adjacent to the ARFF crash truck.

Answer 23

C

Explanation:
This is a new bulletin. Please be familiar with it.
C. A logical position for the Engine Company Officer would be in close proximity to the Crash Truck Operator, when possible..
AUC 325 sec 4.1

Question 24

Question 29:
You are working in L-500 and arrive 2nd due to L-400 for a fire on the 5th floor in a 7 story 100x100 Cast-Iron Loft type building. E-100 in conjunction with E- 200 are stretching a handline waiting for the Ladder FFs to find access that will lead them to the fire. The floors are compartmented. From the information above, choose the only correct tactic used for this type of building fire.

A: You notified the IC that you encountered straight run stairs in the process of going to the floor above

B: E-200 assisted E-100 in stretching and operating a mandatory 2 1/2 handline

C: L-500 OV went to the rear and L-400 OV went to the roof

D: Access to the roof for the Roof FFs is an adjoining building, aerial/TL, or a fire escape

Answer 24

Explanation: D
A. For an upper floor fire, the first ladder company notifies the IC if straight run stairs are encountered (in this case it would be L-400) Lofts sec 7.2.3.A.1
For a lower floor fire, the second arriving ladder company would notify the IC is straight run stairs are encountered. Lofts sec 7.2.2.A.2
B. Depending on size-up of fire conditions, the dimensions of the structure, and compartmentation of the structure, initial hoselines of 1 ¾” hose may be appropriate. However, any fire in a large, uncompartmented area will require 2 ½” hose. 6.1.1
C. First ladder OV Firefighter’s primary position is the rear of the building to perform coordinated ventilation and report fire conditions. Second ladder OV Firefighter will proceed to the rear to reinforce and ensure this position has been covered Lofts sec 7.2.2 C
D. Lofts sec 7.2.1 D 1

Question 25

Question 3:
During an explosive/incendiary incident, tagging victims and moving them to the appropriate area is critical for a successful operation. All viable, non-ambulatory victims MUST be moved to the Triage Transfer Point, where they will be directed to the appropriate Treatment area. Choose the incorrect procedure when tagging victims and moving them to the appropriate treatment area .

A: Critical patients shall be Red-tagged and immediately removed to the Transportation Sector to be brought to a local hospital for definitive care

B: Urgent patients shall be Orange-tagged and removed to a separate Orange Treatment Area

C: Non-Life threatened patients shall be Yellow-tagged and removed to a separate Yellow Treatment Area

D: Minor-injured, ambulatory patients (Green-tagged) shall be directed to a separate Green Treatment area near the Triage Transfer Point

Answer 25

D Explanation:
Remote from the Triage Transfer Point
Remember, The 2nd arriving Engine Officer must remain at the Triage Transfer Point and assume control until relieved by a BC
ERP add 3 pages 13-15
***In the glossary, it states Yellow tags are Non-Ambulatory/Delayed. Please know that this bulletin uses both definitions from the glossary and choice C.

Question 26

Question 9:
With the detonation of an Improvised Nuclear Device (IND), responding units shall not enter the area of detonation for at least ________ minutes.

A: 5

B: 10

C:15

D:30

Answer 26

C

Explanation:
Because radiation fallout from an IND does not occur for approximately 15 minutes after detonation, units responding to an IND should not enter the area of the detonation for at least 15 minutes post-detonation, when presence of radiation can then be detected and monitored
ERP add 4 sec 3.1.4.C

Question 27

Question 11:
You are working in E-500 staffed with 5 FFs during the 6x9 tour when you arrive 2nd due to E-400 staffed with 4 FFs for a fire on the 2nd floor in a 6 story 50X100 CL3 multiple dwelling. With no FAST unit on scene, and L-200 and L-300 in position, which members would make up the safety team at this fire?

A:Control and Door FFs of E-500

B: Control FF of E-400 and LCC of L-200

C: Door FF of E-500 and LCC of L-200

D:Control and Backup FFs of E-500

Answer 27

D

Explanation:
If 2 Engines on scene, then it would be Backup and Control FFs of the 2nd arriving Engine regardless if staffed with 5 or 4 FFs
A- If one 5 FF Engine on scene
B- If one 5 or 4 FF Engine and one Ladder on scene
MMID ch 1 page 4…..KNOW THIS PAGE COLD

Question 28

Question 26:
On the Iroquois Pipeline, there is a buried manual valve designated E13A-1 outside the meter/regulating station at Food Center Drive. There is a sign “FDNY Valve E-13A-1” located on the fence adjacent to the gated entrance and the valve stem is covered by a flush mounted valve box similar to a Con Edison manhole cover. How many full turns does this valve require to close?

A: 24

B: 48

C: 261

D: 213

Answer 28

D

Question 29

Question 27:
Units are designated by the following letter suffix when assigned a specific task at an incident. The suffix R after a ladder company designation L136R correctly labels a ________

A: Division Task Force

B: SOC Support Truck

C: Rescue Collapse Transport

D: Hi-Rise Roof Team

Answer 29

C

Question 30

Question 33:
While taking up from a CFR run in E-200, the dispatcher calls you over the apparatus radio to see if your available for another run. You try calling the dispatcher by depressing the handset button and transmitting your message, but failed to receive an acknowledgment from the dispatcher. Your next move to make is found in which correct choice?

A: Make one additional attempt to call the dispatcher

B: Make two additional attempts to call the dispatcher

C: Make three additional attempts to call the dispatcher

D: Assume the radio is inoperative and transmit your message from another mobile unit

Answer 30

B Explanation:
In the event a 1st call is not acknowledged within 30 seconds, press the handset button and repeat the call, but not more than 3 attempts to contact the dispatcher. If the 3rd call is not acknowledged, assume the radio is inoperative and transmit your message from another mobile unit (3 attempts from this unit). Still if no acknowledgement, assume a problem with the Borough frequency and switch to Citywide frequency. If unable to to communicate with the citywide dispatcher by radio, contact the Borough or Citywide dispatcher via telephone
Know this procedure cold
Communications ch 8 sec 8.4.3

Question 31

Question 35:
A steam manhole cover compared to sewer and electric manhole covers can be identified how?

A: Two square manhole covers placed in pairs over a concrete slab

B: Two rectangular manhole covers placed in pairs over an asphalt slab

C: A larger than normal single round manhole cover over a concrete slab

D: Two round manhole covers placed in pairs over a concrete slab

Answer 31

Explanation:
Steam System Emergencies sec 1.1 photo 1 DDD

Question 32

Question 38:
At a fire on the 14th floor of a 16-story high-rise fireproof multiple dwelling, if it is determined that the smoke and heat condition in the hallway is due to a wind impacted fire with the fire apartment door left open, the first units should take all of the following actions except?

A: The Ladder Officer shall ensure members exit the public hallway immediately, and notify the IC and Engine officer of conditions. Units on scene shall be notified that a wind impacted fire condition exists.

B: A hoseline shall be stretched and charged in the attack stairwell. This charged hoseline will remain in the stairwell so as not to create a flow path drawing the heat and smoke into the stairwell.

C: Once confirmation is received that an alternative strategy has been successfully implemented, and approval to enter the public hallway has been given by the IC, Operations Section Chief or Fire Sector Supervisor, the Ladder Officer and both members of the forcible entry team shall enter the public hallway to locate and gain control of the fire apartment door.

D: Once the Ladder Officer gains control of the fire apartment door, the Engine Company should advance the charged hoseline to the fire apartment door. Once the hoseline advances towards the interior fire area as directed by the Engine Officer, the fire apartment door shall be chocked open.

Answer 32

Explanation:
Only the Ladder Officer and ONE MEMBER of the forcible entry team shall enter the public hallway to locate and gain control of the fire apartment door. The Ladder Officer shall utilize the TIC to assist in locating the fire apartment.
MD Add 3 5.1 C

Question 33

Question 1:
Which description of unit activities at an Iroquois Pipeline emergency is incorrect?

A:The “primary consideration” is the evacuation of the area involved. Avenues of escape must remain open for civilians and FD personnel.

B: The “initial actions” of units responding to pipeline boxes are to set up a perimeter and eliminate sources of ignition.

C: Due to the extremely high pressure found in this pipeline system, members shall disperse escaping gas into the atmosphere using fog lines.

D: Except in the event of immediate threat to life or property, no valves should be opened or closed without the approval of the FDNY IC in consultation with Con Edison/Iroquois personnel.

Answer 33

C

Explanation:
Due to the extremely high pressure found in this pipeline system, consideration shall be given to allow escaping gas to naturally disperse into the atmosphere WITHOUT the use of fog lines to assist in dispersal. The use of fog lines may actually hinder the dissipation of the gas.
AUC 150 4.5, 7.1.1, 7.1.2, 7.2.1

Question 34

Question 10:
The CIDS program utilizes the teleprinter or MDT dispatch message to provide critical information about specific buildings to responding units. Of the following choices listed below, choose the most correct statement made regarding the CIDS program.

A: If the address of the fire or emergency is not a CIDS building but is on the same side of the street and is within three house numbers of a CIDS building, the computer will identify the CIDS building(s) to the Borough dispatcher

B: After submitting an immediate CIDS entry via the eCIDS application, notify the administrative DC by phone

C: The teleprinter dispatch message can contain up to 180 characters

D: A non-fireproof structure renovated or repaired using any type of structural light-weight materials would be classified as “CL2LW”

Answer 34

A Explanation:
B- BC
C- 4 lines/160 characters
D- CL3LW
Communications ch 4 sec 4.2.4, 4.3.3, 4.4.1, 4.4.2.D.3

Question 35

Question 21:
At a fire on the 3rd floor of a New Law Tenement with extension to the floor above, prior to conducting any horizontal ventilation tactics from the exterior, the second arriving OV FF may conduct horizontal ventilation (vent for extinguishment) after requesting permission from? The Response Ticket is as follows: *All units arrived as per the response ticket. E001, E002, E003, L001, L002, BC01

A: Engine 1’s Officer

B: Ladder 1’s Officer

C: Ladder 2’s Officer

D: Battalion 1

Answer 35

C

Explanation:
Prior to conducting any horizontal ventilation tactics from the exterior, the second OV shall request permission from THEIR Ladder Company Officer in order to coordinate ventilation tactics with interior operations.
Lads 3 3.4.6

Question 36

Question 25:
For fires in Tenements and multiple dwellings with rear fire escapes, the Fire Department is always responsible for rescuing trapped occupants. Of the following statements, which is incorrect?

A: Overcrowding on the fire escape in the rear is a very real possibility and Fire Department portable ladders are always the only option for rescuing these occupants from this position.

B: Because of its portability the 12’ hook ladder may be used to gain access to the various balcony levels by the Roof or OV firefighters for search and rescue. The ladder may be brought to the rear yard as mentioned above, or brought to the roof via Aerial, Tower Ladder or utility rope and lowered to the top balcony.

C: Portable ladders must, if possible, be taken through the 1st floor public hall, apartments or store to the rear yard to effect rescue.

D: In the event of a fire in a building constructed with party wall balcony fire escapes where the fire has spread to the adjoining building, thereby eliminating it as a second means of egress, occupants may be trapped on the fire escapes.

Answer 36

A Explanation:
Overcrowding on the fire escape in the rear may be relieved by members assisting occupants to the roof via the gooseneck ladder.
Lads 1 10.1 p16

Question 37

Question 26:
Which unit/position carried out their duties incorrectly at a High-Rise office building fire?

A: The first arriving Engine Officer will consult with the first arriving Ladder Officer regarding the location of the fire and available stairways to properly select the attack stairway.

B: The Engine Officer will select a stairway that will provide the most efficient stretch and attack possible. Once selected, the Engine Officer shall notify the IC of the identity of the attack stairway.

C: Fourth arriving Ladder Company proceeded to the roof area via an elevator that services the fire floor to conduct a primary search of the top five floors

D: Third and fourth Engine Companies stretched and operated the second hoseline to contain and confine fire spread and/or prevent fire wrapping around the core and endangering operation of the first line

Answer 37

C Explanation:
High Rise sec 8.3.1.E, 8.5.1.B, 8.6.1.A, 9.5.1.C
***A and B are recent updates
C. If the fire is on a floor that is not serviced by the high-rise bank of elevators, the high-rise bank will be used if it is in a blind shaft
If the fire is on a floor that is serviced by the high-rise bank of elevators, they shall proceed to a location below the fire floor and then use a stairway other than the attack stairway to proceed to the roof.

Question 38

Question 34:
When performing a fire escape stretch for a fire on the 5th floor, the hose shall be secured to the fire escape railing with hose strap(s) on what floor(s)?

A :only the 4th floor

B: 3rd and 5th floors

C: 1st and 3rd floors

D: 2nd and 4th floors

Answer 38

A Explanation:
Eng Ops ch 7 sec 8.5
On the floor below the fire, the member receiving the hoseline will pull up sufficient hose to reach and cover the fire area. The hose will then be secured with a hose strap to the fire escape railing. This one hose strap will effectively secure the hose; additional hose straps are not necessary.

Question 39

Question 40:
If present and servicing the fire area, who shall ensure the sprinkler system is supplied during a lower floor and upper floor fire in a Cast-Iron or Mill Loft type building?

A: 4th Engine

B: 3rd Engine

C: 2nd Engine

D: 1st Engine

Answer 39

B

Question 40

Question 53:
The NFPA 704 Diamond is a standardized system that uses numbers and colors to define the hazards of a material. From the list below, choose the most correct definition in relation to the color/number that is found in the Diamond.

A: Blue 3- Hazardous

B: Yellow 1- Stable

C: Red 3- Flash point below 73 degrees

D: Yellow 3- Shock and Heat May Detonate

Answer 40

D

Explanation:
A-Extreme Danger
B- Unstable if Heated
C- Red 4
D- Asked on the 2005 Lts exam
ERP Hazardous Materials p-39

Question 41

Question 56:
During a routine CFR run, Lt Jasper became aware that the facility his company responded to can be removed from the CFRD response matrix, because the facility meets all of the following criteria except?

A :On duty personnel are trained to CFR level or higher

B: Trained personnel are able to provide oxygen to the patient

C: On duty personnel are trained in the use of a defibrillator, and all the necessary equipment is available to the trained personnel

D: All equipment and appropriately trained personnel are available during all hours of operation. To qualify for removal, the facility shall be operational on a 24/7 basis.

Answer 41

A

Explanation:
On duty personnel are trained in CPR
In addition, the facility must be “CFR Hold Eligible” on all floors of the building’s address
Communications ch 4 add 1 sec 2.1

Question 42

Question 6:
All of the following choices contain correct information regarding the electronic riding list (EBF-4) except?

A: It should be completed immediately AFTER the start of the tour.

B: The EBF-4 may be completed prior to the start of the tour and adjusted as needed.

C: The final EBF-4 shall be updated anytime during the tour as necessary (e.g., ML during tour, early relief, staffing change, reduced staffing).

D: Company Officers shall login using their last name and payroll reference number.

Answer 42

V

Explanation:
The EBF-4 should NOT be completed prior to the start of the tour
AUC 346 2.1 - 2.4VVVBBB

Question 43

Question 13:
Which of the following statements is correct in reference to documentation and recordkeeping of Prehospital Care Reports (PCRs)?

A: PCR is not required when members visualize a patient but do not make patient contact

B: Part three of the form is the Research Copy and is to be retained at Quarters and must be secured by the Company Officer in the Company files at all times

C: Part two is the Hospital Patient Record Copy and if completed is to be given to the EMS Unit operating at the scene

D: Part one, the original, is to be forwarded to the Office of Medical Affairs at FDNY Headquarters, 4th floor, through the bag by the end of each tour

Answer 43

D

Explanation:
CFR-D Manual Chapter 5 Documention
A. A PCR must be completed when patient care is provided. Making patient contact including visualizing is considered patient care. 1.2.1, 1.2.2, A
B. This is a description of Part two of the PCR 1.1.2
C . This is a description of Part three of the PCR 1.1.3
D. 1.1.1

Question 44

Question 24:
In a New Law Tenement constructed in 1943, you can expect firewalls to be carried to the?

A: Top of the roof boards

B: Underside of the roof boards

C: Top floor ceiling

D: Second floor ceiling only

Answer 44

A Explanation:
Between 1930 and 1940, firewalls were required to be carried to the underside of the roof boards, and after 1940, to the top of the roof boards. These changes were designed to effectively reduce the size of the cockloft and limit fire spread.
MD 2.4

Question 45

Question 31:
You are conducting a drill on the Implementation of Emergency Life Saving Rope Operations. This policy is in effect when a large number of personal harnesses and/or personal safety systems have been placed OOS and immediate replacement is not available. After you hit all the points of this evolution, your proby asks when can the Roof FFs can leave the roof area (floor above in a HRFPMD). You tell him what?

A: When the IC states all visible fire is knocked down

B: When the IC states the fire is “Probably Will Hold”

C: When the IC states the fire is “Under Control”

D: When his Officers says its OK to leave the roof area

Answer 45

B

Explanation:
“Probably Will Hold” or the IC informs the members to either evacuate the roof or that their services on the roof are no longer required
Evolution 32 sec 2.4

Question 46

Question 32:

When the fire building is heavily involved or there are multiple floors of fire, Large Caliber Streams (LCS) delivery should generally start at ___________

A: the highest level and work side to side.

B:the highest level and work downward.

C:the lowest level and work upward.

D: the lowest level and work side to side.

Answer 46

C

Question 47

Question 40:
In private dwellings, due to the limited means of access to most attics, the ladder company must be prepared to assist the engine company in alternate means of getting water on the fire. This can be achieved by opening up a section of the ceiling on the floor below. What size opening should this be?

A:2’

B:3’

C: 6’

D: 8’

Answer 47

B

Explanation:
The engine company could then operate from a small extension ladder to sweep the attic space with the hoseline.
PD Ch 4 11.3

Question 48

Question 11:
The correct size of a Taxpayer cockloft can be found in which choice?

A: 4 inches to more than 6 feet in height

B: 2 to 3 feet in height

C: 1 foot to a height tall enough for a man to stand in

D: 1 to 2 feet

Answer 48

A Explanation:
Taxpayers sec 3.2.1
B- Brownstones 2.2.18
C- Rowframes 5.2.2

Question 49

Question 12:
Many conditions are indicative of a “Major Gas Emergency” and may require changing from a simple mitigation strategy to one that emphasizes all efforts on securing life safety (including utility personnel and first responders). These conditions are correctly described below in all choices except?

A:10% LEL or greater detected outside or inside.

B: Indications of gas migrating into a building from an outside source.

C: Gas leaking inside of a structure and the controlling valve cannot be located or is inoperable.

D:Elevated natural gas reading (10% LEL or greater) in an unvented, subsurface structure (manhole, sewer, etc.)

Answer 49

D

Explanation:
Elevated natural gas reading (20% LEL or greater) in an unvented, subsurface structure (manhole, sewer, etc.)
EP Gas 5

Question 50

Question 16:
Apparatus positioning is a critical component of the Department’s response to gas emergencies. Which choice below contains incorrect information?

A:New dispatch policy requires the FDNY dispatcher to notify the Gas Utility Company upon receipt of the alarm (before FDNY arrival on the scene). The Gas Utility Company is required to give an estimated time of arrival (ETA) and their response time is typically within 20 minutes.

B: If a strong odor is present on approach, stop and meter the area. If the meter displays 10% of the LEL, this may indicate a potentially serious leak and may require treating the incident as a Major Gas Emergency.

C: First-arriving apparatus should not be positioned in front of the reported leak location and should avoid positioning over manholes and sewers.

D:Additional units shall stage at street corners, and only enter into the block when appropriate.

Answer 50

A

Explanation:
The Gas Utility Company is required to give an estimated time of arrival (ETA) and their response time is typically within 30 minutes.
EP Gas 6.1, 6.2

Question 51

Question 21:
The Purple “K” Dry Chemical extinguisher shall be inspected when?

A:Beginning of each tour

B:Daily

C: Weekly

D: Semi-annually

Answer 51

A

Explanation:
The extinguisher shall be checked at the beginning of each tour and thoroughly examined once a month
Training Bulletins sec 2.4

Question 52

Question 26:
Proper valve identification is a crucial component of an effective gas response. Which choice below contains incorrect information?

A: It may be difficult to discern between a curb valve/service valve and a Main Valve. FDNY is not permitted to shut a Main Valve.

B: Con Edison Main Valves should have a tag inside of the valve housing with an I.D. number, indicating these are NOT curb valves/service valves.

C: National Grid Main Valves can be identified by an ID number stamped on the North side of the cover, indicating these are NOT curb valves/service valves.

D: If a leak is serious enough to consider shutting down a Master Meter Valve, Head of Service Valve or curb valve/service valve, consider treating the incident as a Major Gas Emergency.

Answer 52

C

Explanation:
“National Grid Main Valves can be identified by an ID number stamped on the North side of the COLLAR UNDERNEATH THE COVER, indicating these are NOT curb valves/service valves”….yes, this is a tight point, but it mistakenly said it was stamped on the cover for years…a big change and a good test point.
A) Note: If a Main Valve fails, shutting the next valve up in the system may cause a major disruption in natural gas supply to an entire neighborhood and multiple, critical occupancies. In addition, shutting the Main Valve may not stop the leak as multiple Main Valves may need to be shut if the system is supplied from more than one direction.
EP Gas 6.7.3 p25

Question 53

Question 36:
Regulators and meters are integral components of the gas supply system. Which choice below contains incorrect information regarding these components?

A: Service Regulators are usually located after the gas meter on low pressure systems to reduce gas to low pressure (¼ psi).

B: Gas Meters can supply individual occupancies or entire buildings. Before the meter there should be a ¼ turn meter valve that controls the supply of natural gas to the meter.

C: Some multi-occupancy buildings have only a single master meter supplying natural gas to all occupancies and shutting it down will shut gas to the entire building. Sometimes the Utility Company will have two master meters adjacent to one another so a master meter can be serviced or replaced without interrupting service to the building; the valves to both meters would need to be closed to shut supply to the building.

D: Some buildings have multiple meters, each supplying natural gas to a different occupancy or tenant. Older apartment buildings may have individual gas meters located inside of each apartment served, and in some buildings, meters may be found in the public hallway, which if found, requires appropriate enforcement action.

Answer 53

A

Explanation:
Service Regulators are usually located BEFORE the gas meter on MEDIUM and HIGH pressure systems to reduce gas to low pressure (¼ psi).
EP Gas 4.4.2, 4.4.3

Question 54

Question 27:
Locating the correct valves is a crucial component to controlling a major gas emergency. Which choice is incorrect?

A: When conditions permit, units may assist the Utility Company in locating valves and valve covers.

B: Main valves have identification codes either on the collar underneath the valve cover or on a tag under the cover. These codes should be relayed to the Utility Company Control Center and Utility Company members on the scene.

C:FDNY members should be reminded to only operate valves on the supply side of the curb valve/service valve.

D:The IC may be able to receive the general location of main valves by contacting the Utility Company’s Control Center. Access problems (vehicles, dumpsters on valve covers, etc.) can be identified and resolved early.

Answer 54

C

Explanation:
FDNY members should be reminded NOT to operate any valve on the supply side of the curb valve/service valve (i.e.; main valve).
EP Gas 9.2.3

Question 55

Question 3:
When operating at an Incinerator emergency, the only correct procedure can be found in which choice?

A: Before proceeding to the roof, the Roof FF ensured all stairwell doors were closed

B: In order to locate the blockage, open a chute door on a floor. If the smoke comes out, the blockage is generally below that floor

C: The Officer and forcible entry team went directly to the cellar for investigation

D: LCC went directly to the incinerator room for investigation

Answer 55

D Explanation:
Training Bulletins Fires 7
A- It is very important that, before the Roof FF leaves the lobby he chocks open the stairwell door at the ground floor level. This will provide for maximum draft and vertical ventilation when the roof bulkhead door is open…sec 2.3.F
B- generally ABOVE that floor…..sec 2.2.A
C- Will generally operate inside the building to ventilate, search, and to locate the blockage…sec 2.1
D- sec 2.4
Also: If you open a chute door on a floor and the draft goes inward or there is little smoke, the blockage is generally below that floor or the blockage has freed itself…sec 2.2.

Question 56

Question 7:
During the early stages of a Collapse Operation, who will be assigned as a Street Coordination Manager?

A: Police Officer

B: Battalion Chief

C: Company Officer

D: EMS Officer

Answer 56

Explanation:
Collapse Operations sec 8.8
Establish contact with PD and EMS Officers for traffic flow
Ensure access/egress of essential vehicles
Position apparatus for most efficient use
Coordinate apparatus staging areas
Coordinate CCP with an EMS Officer

Question 57

Question 13:
The Con Ed representative will be at the location of Gas Transmission System repair work to meet responding units for familiarization and to review aspects of the planned repair work. Aspects of the planned repair work that will be reviewed at this time include all of the following except?

A: Leak repair procedures and the estimated schedule of leak repair work.

B: Fire Department response procedures.

C: Monitoring of conditions with gas meters at the area of the leak and the gas system to ensure conditions have not changed.

D: Street closures and any adverse impact on emergency/fire operations.

Answer 57

Explanation:
Safety precautions that are being implemented.
EP Gas Add 1 2.1

Question 58

Question 39:
As a newly promoted officer, you should know that all of the following signals do not require a preliminary report to the dispatcher except?

A: 10-36-2

B: 10-24/10-23

C: 10-22

D: 10-21

Answer 58

A

Explanation:
Officers of land units are not required to submit a preliminary report when special called to an automobile, grass, rubbish, or similar outside fire……Communications ch 8 sec 8.11.7
A- Car accident no injuries no wash down Comm ch 8 page 10….
B- 10-24 Auto fire/ 10-23 Abandoned/Derelict Vehicle fire…Comm ch 8 page 8
C- Outside Rubbish…comm ch 8 page 8
D- Brush fire…comm ch 8 page 8

Question 59

Question 13:
High visibility reflective/fluorescent safety vests have been issued to all units, one for each riding position. Choose the incorrect statement in regards to these Safety Vests.

A: Department policy requires all members to wear high visibility safety vests when operating on all highways at all times, day or night

B: Exemptions from wearing high visibility safety vests are for members directly involved and in the immediate vicinity of firefighting, hazardous material mitigation, or technical rescue

C :The high visibility safety vests are designed to be worn over bunker gear and are flame resistant

D: Vests must be donned prior to leaving quarters for a call

Answer 59

Explanation:
Vests shall be donned prior to leaving the apparatus OR in an area that is blocked by an apparatus and protected from vehicular traffic
Safety Bulletin 88 pages 1-2

Question 60

Question 31:
The correct procedure for starting the the fire pump in a High-Rise Office Building can be found in which choice?

A:1) Close knife switch, 2) Close Circuit breakers, 3) Push starting button, 4) Move selector lever

B: 1) Close knife switch, 2, Push starting button, 3) Close Circuit breakers, 4) Move selector lever

C: 1) Move selector lever, 2) Close knife switch, 3) Push starting button, 4) Close Circuit breakers

D:1) Close knife switch, 2) Close Circuit breakers, 3) Move selector lever, 4) Push starting button

Answer 60

A

Question 61

Question 5:
When operating at a Haz-Mat incident, the first two Ladder Companies on scene will break into two teams each. The first arriving Ladder Company Team 2 will be responsible for which correct duty?

A: Define Initial Exclusion Zone

B: Assist site assessment

C: Hazard Identification

D :Information Resources

Answer 61

Explanation:
A- Second arriving Ladder Team 2
B- Second arriving Ladder Team 1
C- First arriving Ladder Team 1
ERP Hazardous Materials Pgs - 20-22

Question 62

Question 7:
When the fire is on the first floor of a 2 sty Taxpayer, operations will be similar to those for 1 sty Taxpayers, but with added emphasis on all of the following except?

A: Completely ladder the second floor. Utilize portable ladders

B:Do not provide ventilation holes on the upper floor due to providing an avenue of fire extension and hindering other operations

C: If the fire originated in the cellar it may require flooding of the first floor as a last resort

D: The possibility of a large open stairway must not be overlooked if the occupancy on the second floor is a dance hall, meeting hall, etc

E:The need for an Aerial Ladder to roof for ventilation

Answer 62

B

Explanation:
Ventilation holes cut on upper floors can provide venting for areas below and facilitate other operations
Taxpayers sec 9

Question 63

Question 10:
At elevator emergencies, side exit removal can be useful under conditions of partial power loss in multi-car hoistways. Of the following choices, which is incorrect regarding this procedure?

A: Bring the rescue car even with the stuck elevator. If an elevator mechanic is present, use his/her operating key to bring the car level with the stuck car.

B: Open the side exit in the rescue car; a key or forcible entry is required to open the panel from inside the car. Open the side exit of the stuck car which is openable by hand from the shaft side.

C: Planks of sufficient lengths (3’ or longer) should be used as a bridge between cars.

D: This procedure may not be useful where a structural beam blocks a side exit or the rescue car can’t be brought level with the stuck car.

Answer 63

Explanation:
Planks of sufficient lengths (6’ or longer) should be used as a bridge between cars.
TB Emerg 1 3.7.2 B C

Question 64

Question 25:
When it comes to Loft buildings, which definition is incorrect?

A :Synthetic Walls are partition walls that separate living space between apartment units

B: Quoins are used by architects to give the impression of strength and firmness to the outline of the building . They provide FFs with a visual contrasting feature to neighboring buildings on Exposures 2 and 4 allowing members to accurately discern the width of the fire building

C: Wrought-Iron Girders unlike cast-iron, which is strong in compression but weak in tension, wrought-iron is equally strong in compression and tension making it a logical substitute in the mid-19th century for horizontal structural elements

D: Sawtooth Roofs are roofs that will impose unique obstacles to FFs regarding roof access, egress, extinguishment, and vertical ventilation. maneuvering up and over the peaks and valleys of sawtooth roofs will be difficult at best, even under non-fire conditions. Mill sawtooths are typically of wood truss design. A steel cable, however, may be substituted for the bottom chord. Sawtooth roofs of steel and/or reinforced concrete construction can also be found in fireproof lofts

Answer 64

Explanation:
Synthetic Walls are low level windows that provide excellent openings for access, egress, ventilation, and hose stream/foam delivery. Synthetic walls may be covered with cast-iron plating, metal grilling, masonry or plywood for security reasons
Lofts pages 14-17 A

Question 65

Question 12:
At a fire in a Brownstone, the 2nd arriving Roof FF will proceed to the roof of the fire building to ensure the roof has been opened and to assist the first arriving Ladder in ventilation and opening up of the roof. Which of the following duties is not entirely correct regarding this position?

A: When the 2nd arriving aerial can be raised to the fire building or an exposure, the member assigned to the roof should attempt access this way.

B:Check for a rear fire escape. When present, team up with the 1st Roof FF (or another available member) to VEIS the fire floor. Pay particular attention to top floor apartments, including the public hall.

C: For a top floor fire, go to the roof with the saw and Halligan hook to assist in ventilation and opening up.

D: For fire below the top floor, be alert to THE first arriving Roof FF’s request for a saw because of the inability to ventilate the interior stairs due to no roof level skylight (tarred over skylights), dumbwaiters and penthouse structures.

Answer 65

B Explanation:
Check for a rear fire escape. When present, team up with the 2nd OV FF (or another available member) to VEIS all floors above the fire. Pay particular attention to top floor apartments, including the public hall.
Bwst p21

Question 66

Question 31:
The incorrect Engine tactic used at Loft type building fire can be found in which choice?

A: Initial hoselines shall be 2 1/2 inch

B: After two lines have been stretched up a stairway, additional lines should be stretched via alternate stairways (if available), exterior rope stretches, or fire escapes. Interconnected buildings may also provide access.

C: For a lower floor fire, It is the responsibility of the 3rd arriving engine to ensure a supply line is stretched and connected to the FDC when the fire area is protected by a sprinkler system

D: For upper floor fires; It is the responsibility of the 3rd arriving engine to ensure a supply line is stretched and connected to the FDC when the fire area is protected by a sprinkler system

Answer 66

A

Explanation:
Lofts
A- Depending on size-up of fire conditions, the dimensions of the structure, and compartmentation of the structure, initial hoselines of 1 ¾” hose may be appropriate. However, any fire in a large, uncompartmented area will require 2 ½” hose. 6.1.1
B- 6.1.2
C- 6.2.2 D
D- 6.2.3

Question 67

Question 38:
Two members of a Squad Company discussing proper procedures for Fire Units dealing with cell phone sites were able to identify which incorrect comment made by a covering officer?

A: Antennas may not extend higher than six feet above the height of the roof or parapet on the roof, or six feet above any penthouse or bulkhead, if placed on such penthouse or bulkhead.

B: Roof-mounted gas generator piping may extend via the exterior or interior vertical arteries. The interior arteries may create possible channels for smoke and/or fire travel.

C: You must special call an additional Engine and Ladder Company for a 10-75 in a building with a cell site. These additional units could be used for power removal, roof operations and handline placement.

D: Ensure Tower Ladder response on the initial alarm for a reported fire in these buildings.

Answer 67

C

Explanation:
Special call an additional Engine and Ladder Company, if the CELL SITE installation is INVOLVED. These additional units could be used for power removal, roof operations and handline placement.
AUC 331 3.2, 5.5, 6.3, 6.4

Question 68

Question 40:
M2 cars on the New Haven line of Metro-North are the only cars operated by Metro-North with transformers containing PCBs. There are approximately 200 such railroad cars and all of the following choices are correct regarding these cars except?

A:M2 cars always operate in pairs, one “A” car (an odd numbered car), having a pantograph is coupled to a “B” car (even numbered car) having no pantograph.

B: The best way to identify M2 cars is the orange stripe on each side of the car and pantograph on the roof of the “A” car.

C: Though there is only 1 pantograph for every 2 cars, there will be a PCB containing transformer in every car which will have attached to it the EPA approved label.

D:The pantograph will be unfolded when receiving power from catenary (overhead) wires.

Answer 68

A Explanation:
M2 cars always operate in pairs, one “A” car (an EVEN numbered car), having a pantograph is coupled to a “B” car (ODD numbered car) having no pantograph.
AUC 266 Add 2 3

Question 69

Question 13:
What is the primary Interoperability channel to be used with cooperating agencies in the NY region?

A: UTAC 41D

B: UTAC 42D

C: UTAC 43D

D: UTAC 40D

Answer 69

B

Question 70

Question 14:
Lt Topper is working in L-200 during the 6x9 tour when she decides to check the training schedule for the next day (9x6). She discovers that L-200 has rope training at Randalls Island 1000-1230 hrs. To ensure L-200 arrives for training at the appropriate time, the correct time L-200 must leave quarters by with the day tour members can be found in which choice?

A: 0900 hrs

B:0915 hrs

C:0930 hrs

D: 0945 hrs

Answer 70

B Explanation:
Units scheduled for such activities must leave from their quarters, with the day tour members no later than 0915 hours or night tour members no later than 1815 hours
AUC 287 sec 5.1.3

Question 71

Question 33:
Water application on the fire must not be delayed at taxpayer fires during backdraft tactics. If there will be a delay in water being applied to the fire, the ladder company officer or IC should order _______

A :roof ventilation to be delayed or withheld until water can be applied to the fire.

B :immediate roof ventilation.

C: delayed roof ventilation until a large enough hole is cut.

D: simultaneous roof ventilation and horizontal ventilation

Answer 71

A

Question 72

Question 40:

Two company officers discussing fire operations in Nonfireproof Tenements identified which incorrect comment during their discussion?

A: Smoke may be seen issuing from the cornice upon arrival. Without investigation this cannot be taken as positive evidence that there is actually fire in the cockloft. The only valid conclusion that can be drawn is that smoke and heat are entering the cockloft. Under no conditions should the cornice be opened for smoke.

B: A rapidly rising column of smoke, with particles or embers ascending to higher levels visible over the rooftop of the building frequently is an indication that the fire is in an enclosed shaft (i.e. a chimney).

C: Large quantities of black smoke (burning tar) observed over the roof may be an indication of fire at or near the top of the building, namely, the top floor fire, cockloft fire, stair bulkhead fire or a fire on the roof.

D: When encountering membrane roofs, the Incident Commander must be notified because the volatility of the roof material may require calling for a hoseline to protect members operating on the roof.

Answer 72

B Explanation:
A rapidly rising column of smoke, with particles or embers ascending to higher levels visible over the rooftop of the building frequently is an indication that the fire is in an OPEN SHAFT. This heated column is readily distinguished from that rising from a chimney.
Lads 3 5.4.3

Question 73

Question 43:
At a private dwelling fire where the first hoseline was advanced through the main entrance and units are unable to locate an interior cellar entrance, and there is no other hoseline available on scene to attempt entry via a secondary entrance, each of the following actions would be acceptable except?

A: All members throughout the structure above the cellar shall be withdrawn before the first hoseline is repositioned from that floor.

B: If there is a delay in gaining access or applying water to the cellar through the interior, the Acting Chief Officer/Chief Officer serving as IC may consider repositioning the first hoseline that was stretched through the main entrance on the first floor to a secondary entrance.

C: The repositioning of the first hoseline must be coordinated with and communicated to all units operating inside the building. The IC shall transmit an URGENT message utilizing the emergency alert button to broadcast this to all members and ensure an acknowledgement is received from all units/members operating in the interior.

D: The forcible entry team will operate with the Engine Company to facilitate the advance of the hoseline via a secondary entrance.

Answer 73

Explanation:
Ladder company members operating on the first floor MUST be withdrawn before the first hoseline is repositioned from that floor.
Members operating on the upper floors MAY also need to be withdrawn to a safe area if no portable ladders are positioned and readily available. This is done for reasons of safety and operational efficiency.
A Note: The decision to reposition the first hoseline to a secondary entrance can only be made by an Acting Chief Officer/Chief Officer.
PD Ch 3 2.7.4 AAA

Question 74

Question 45:
When members suspect or discover any type of clandestine lab, they shall immediately stop, DO NOT TOUCH ANYTHING, retrace their steps and back out of the area. In addition, which of the following notifications shall be made?

1. Battalion Chief.
2. Deputy Chief.
3. Borough Commander/Command Chief
4. Request Haz-Mat to respond.
5. NYPD (including the Bomb Squad when necessary).
6. Fire Prevention
7. BFI.

A:1,2,3,4,5,7

B:1,2,4,5,7

C: 1,2,4,5,6,7

D: 1,2,4,5

Answer 74

B

Question 75

V

Question 57:

At a radiological emergency, what would be considered the “decision dose” (whole body) for the protection of major property?

A: 5 REM

B:10 REM

C:25 REM

D: 50 REM

Answer 75

Explanation:
5 REM - General Operations
10 REM - Protection of Major Property
25 REM - Lifesaving or Protection of Large Populations
50 REM - Lifesaving for a Catastrophic Event
ERP Add 4 4.1.4 A, Table 3

B

Question 76

Question 58:
After reading the Loft bulletin several times you finally have it memorized cold. Choose the most correct tactic used for a fire in a Loft building.

A:For a fire in the cellar of a Cast-Iron/Mill Loft building protected by a sprinkler system servicing the fire area, the 3rd engine ensures it is supplied.

B :For a fire on the second floor of a Cast-Iron/Mill Loft building, the initial hoselines shall be 2 1/2”

C: If straight run stairs are encountered for a lower floor fire in a Cast-Iron/Mill Loft building, the 1st arriving Ladder Company is to notify the IC

D: Fire found extending to Segmental Arch Floors must be opened up quickly for fear of causing a general floor collapse spanning a wide area

Answer 76

A

Explanation:
Lofts
A-6.2.1 D
B-Depending on size-up of fire conditions, the dimensions of the structure, and compartmentation of the structure, initial hoselines of 1 ¾” hose may be appropriate. However, any fire in a large, uncompartmented area will require 2 ½” hose. sec 6.1.1
C- 2nd arriving Ladder Company….7.2.2…..Upper floor fire its the 1st arriving Ladder Company (7.2.3)
D- Segmental arch floors should not be breached for fear of causing a general floor collapse spanning a wide area…..5.2.1

Question 77

Question 64:
Your unit responds to a report of an unknown chemical spill at a local university. Which team assignment is correctly listed below?

A: First Arriving Ladder Team 1: Information resources

B: Second Arriving Ladder Team 2: Hazard identification

C: Second Arriving Ladder Team 1: Information resources

D: First Arriving Ladder Team 2: Initial Exclusion Zone

Answer 77

C

Explanation:
First Arriving Ladder Team 1: Hazard identification
First Arriving Ladder Team 2: Information resources
Second Arriving Ladder Team 1: Information resources
Second Arriving Ladder Team 2: Initial Exclusion Zone
ERP 11.1.5, 11.1.6, 11.2.4, 11.2.5

Question 78

Question 89:
Which choice below contains incorrect information regarding line placement at a cellar fire in an Old Law Tenement?

A: The first hoseline should be stretched through the front door, then to the cellar via the interior stairs to extinguish the fire.

B: If the first hoseline is stretched to the interior and cannot be advanced down to the cellar due to the intensity of the fire, it shall be used to protect the public hall, interior stairs, and the first floor, allowing the occupants to leave the building.

C: The use of an exterior cellar entrance at an advanced cellar fire is frequently safer, but less efficient to initially attack the fire.

D: When an exterior entrance exists, especially in the front of the building, that entrance should be utilized if it provides the quickest access to the cellar to extinguish the fire

Answer 78

C Explanation:
***MD’s has been updated
The use of an exterior cellar entrance at an advanced cellar fire is frequently safer and more efficient to initially attack the fire.
MD ch 1 sec 3.2

Question 79

Question 91:
The only correct statement that best describes the Window Blanket can be found in which choice?

A: Some Battalions and Ladder Companies along with all Rescues and Squads carry the Window Blanket

B: The Window Blanket is designed to cover only one window

C: Only Rescues and Squads can deploy the Window Blanket

D: When a replacement Window Blanket is needed, the Company Officer shall contact the administrative Division

Answer 79

Explanation:
Training Bulletins Tools 3 pages 1-3
B- The Window Blanket is large enough to cover at least two windows if necessary
C- Any Unit or Units and deploy the Window Blanket
D- Company officer shall contact R&D during normal business hours to request a replacement. During non-business hours the company officer should contact SOC