2022 crash course

Question 1

Question 1:
At the scene of a collapse, in order of highest to least priority, first alarm engine companies are to ________.

A: Extinguish active fire in the affected building and surrounding debris, protect exposures, extinguish burning vehicles within the vicinity of the collapse, and, when no active fire, stretch and charge precautionary 2½” lines in sufficient number and length to cover the entire operation.

B: Extinguish active fire in the affected building and surrounding debris, extinguish burning vehicles within the vicinity of the collapse, protect exposures, and, when no active fire, stretch and charge precautionary 2½” lines in sufficient number and length to cover the entire operation.

C: Protect exposures, extinguish active fire in the affected building and surrounding debris, extinguish burning vehicles within the vicinity of the collapse, and, when no active fire, stretch and charge precautionary 2½” lines in sufficient number and length to cover the entire operation.

D: Protect exposures, extinguish burning vehicles within the vicinity of the collapse, extinguish active fire in the affected building and surrounding debris, and, when no active fire, stretch and charge precautionary 2½” lines in sufficient number and length to cover the entire operation.

Answer 1

a

Question 2

Question 2:
At a high rise office building fire, if the 3rd arriving Ladder Company encounters difficulty clearing the attack stairway of occupants, the officer shall advise _____ or _____, if established, to withhold the attack until the occupants have been safely removed.

A: The 2nd arriving Ladder Company or Fire Sector Supervisor/Fire Branch Director.

B: The 1st arriving Ladder Company or the Incident Commander.

C: The 2nd arriving Ladder Company or Operations Section Chief.

D: The 1st arriving Ladder Company or Fire Sector Supervisor/Fire Branch Director.

Answer 2

d

Question 3

Question 12:
Members drilling on private dwellings with lightweight construction were correct in all of the following statements except?

A:Areas unsupported by columns with spans greater than 20’ are generally an indication that lightweight construction is present

B: Under no circumstances shall the roof be cut in any peaked or flat roof building of lightweight construction

C:Collapse is always the primary consideration in buildings constructed with lightweight materials

D: In private dwellings constructed with lightweight materials, when fire extends from the building’s contents to its structural components, collapse may occur within 5 to 10 minutes

Answer 3

a

A. Greater than 25 feet 1.8

Question 4

Question 17:
Units operating at a fire in an Old Law Tenement would know that ___________ shall direct and control horizontal ventilation on all floors above the fire floor.

A: 1st due ladder officer

B:2nd due ladder officer

C:IC

D: Fire sector chief

Answer 4

b

Explanation:
The officer of the second ladder company to arrive shall direct and control horizontal ventilation on all floors above the fire floor
Lad 3 Tenements sec 3.4.2 Duties 9

Question 5

Question 24:
A newly promoted Lieutenant discussing FAST Unit operations was incorrect in which statement?

A:The “Search Team” should make entry to locate, package and remove the distressed member if possible.

B: The “Removal/Resource Team” should stage at the entrance and be available to assist. This assistance could be to relieve, augment or supply additional equipment to the search team.

C:Use a two sided approach where the removal/resource team makes access via the interior and the search team makes access via the exterior of the building.

D: The FAST Unit shall remain intact and not split up when dealing with large commercial or complex buildings.

Answer 5

c

Explanation:
C. Use of two sided approach where the search team makes access via the interior and the removal team makes access via the exterior of the building.
MMID ch 2 7.3-7.4

Question 6

Question 36:
Members were critiquing operations after a store fire in an Old Law Tenement. Which of the following tactics was least correct?

A:Store fires in OLTs may involve a large amount of combustible material. A 2 1/2 inch line should be stretched for large volume fires and a second line stretched to the entrance hallway

B: A charged hoseline must be ready before the store is ventilated. It is especially important that no plate glass be broken without a charged line being ready

C:Stores in Old Law Tenements may have a door which opens into the public hallway on the first floor. The first floor hallway should be examined before declaring the fire “under control” to determine whether the means of egress for the occupants of the building are in danger from the store fire

D: Store owners may use the rear of the store as their living quarters, so it is important to search the rear of stores as soon as possible

Answer 6

c

xplanation:
A. 4.3.1
B. 4.3.2
C. The first floor public hallway should be examined immediately 4.3.6
D. 4.3.7
FFP Multiple Dwellings

Question 7

Question 38:
The Systems Control Unit (SCU) is primarily responsible to monitor and control building systems as directed by the IC. Which of the following is not in accordance with ICS guidelines?

A: Assigned duties will be done with the assistance of building personnel (Fire Safety Director, Building Engineer)

B:The Systems Control Unit will take on the Lobby Control Unit’s duties prior to their arrival

C: The Company Officer assigned as Systems Control Unit Leader shall don the ICS vest with the insert “SYSTEMS CONTROL UNIT LEADER”

D:One of the many duties of the Systems Control Unit is to secure operations and demobilize personnel as determined by the demobilization plan

Answer 7

b

. The Lobby Control Unit shall also take on the duties of the Systems Control Unit until relieved by another designated unit 3.

Question 8

Question 39:
No officer may condone or ignore hazing if the officer knows, or reasonably should have known that hazing did occur. Once made aware of any such incident, all officers must report the incident through the chain of command and, where applicable, directly to the ________.

A: Equal Employment Opportunity (EEO) or to the Bureau of Investigations and Trials (BITs).

B: Equal Employment Opportunity (EEO) or to the Inspector General (IG).

C: EEO only

D: Inspector General only

Answer 8

a

Question 9

Question 7:
Upon return from BISP, you wish to submit an eCIDS for a renovated row frame that was completely gutted and altered with metal “C”- joists and “C” - studs throughout. This building should be designated as a?

A: CL1

B: CL2

C: CL2LW

D: CL4LW

Answer 9

Explanation:
A Wood Frame structure constructed using any type of structural Light-Weight materials would be classified as CL4LW.
A detailed description of the construction material or construction techniques used would be included in the transmitted data portion of the CIDS card.
Comm 4 4.4.2 D

d

Question 10

Question 16:

In which choice below should you begin, and continue to perform, resuscitation efforts on a patient in cardiac arrest on a CFR response?

A: When presented with an expired Out of Hospital DNR Order.

B: When there is no written DNR on scene but the patient is wearing a DNR Bracelet.

C: When a MOLST Form, without a DNR Order, is presented by the patient’s guardian.

D: When presented with an up-to-date, non-expired Hospital or Nursing Home DNR Order from the same facility from which the patient is being transported.

Answer 10

c

Explanation:
If a MOLST Form is presented as evidence of a DNR Order, review the MOLST to confirm that it contains a DNR Order. A MOLST form without a DNR Order is not sufficient for the withholding of CPR.
A) You can withhold CPR….Out of Hospital DNR Orders DO NOT expire. An Out-of-Hospital DNR Order should be updated by the patient’s physician every ninety (90) days but remains valid even if it has not been updated.
B) You can withhold CPR….If a DNR Bracelet is presented, it shall be assumed that a valid DNR Order is in place authorizing the bracelet. It is not necessary to locate the written DNR Order.
D) You can withhold CPR….If a Hospital or Nursing Home DNR Order is presented, review the DNR to confirm that the document has NOT expired and it is from the same facility from which the patient is being transported.
CFR Ch 2 Add 1 3.4, 4.1.2-4.1.5

Question 11

Question 8:
Units in the 33 battalion in Brooklyn operate at many Brownstone fires. They followed proper procedures in all choices except ______.

A: For a cellar fire, the first hoseline was stretched through the front door on the first floor.

B: For a cellar fire, the second hoseline was stretched through the front door on the first floor to back up the first hoseline. If the first line was used to secure first floor, second line will be stretched to cellar via interior cellar stair to extinguish the fire.

C: For a building fully involved, the first 2 lines are stretched into the fire building.

D: The first hoseline for a first floor fire shall be stretched through the front door on the parlor floor.

Answer 11

Explanation:
D. First hoseline stretched through the front door on the first floor to extinguish the fire.
FFP Brownstones sec 3.1, 3.2, 3.4

d

Question 12

Question 11:
Lad 6 arrives first due and Lad 11 second due for a 6th floor fire in an 18 story project. A victim is showing from a 6th floor window and Lad 6 OV/LCC team prepares for a rescue. What is the correct location for Lad 11’s OV firefighter at this fire?

A: Team up with your LCC and assist with outside operations.

B: If the building does not have fireman service elevators, proceed to the fire floor and team up with your officer.

C:

Explanation:
MD ch 2 sec 9.3.2 B 2
A. If outside operations are in progress, team up with your 2nd ladder chauffeur and assist with same.

If the building does have fireman service elevators, operate the elevator since first OV FF is performing a rescue.

D: Recall all elevators, regardless of the fire floor location and whether or not FD members will use them

Answer 12

Explanation:
MD ch 2 sec 9.3.2 B 2
A. If outside operations are in progress, team up with your 2nd ladder chauffeur and assist with same.

Question 13

Question 13:
You are 10-84 for a report of a fire on the 30th floor of a 67 sty 200 X 200 High-Rise Office building. You make contact with IC and he confirms there is a fire on the 30th floor. The IC tells you that there are access stairs from the 30th floor down to the 27th floor. The three elevators are as follows: Bank A services floors 1-28; Bank B services floors 28-50; Bank C services floors 50-67. Depending on where the IC ordered you to go, the most correct bank of elevators and floor you used can be found in which choice?

A: IC ordered you to the fire floor. You took bank A elevator to floor 25 and reported in to the Fire Sector Supervisor

B: The IC ordered you to report to the SAE Group Supervisor. You took bank C elevator to floor 51

C: The IC ordered you to report into the Fire Sector Supervisor. You took bank B elevator to the 30th floor

D: IC ordered you to report to the Forward Staging Area and stand fast. You took bank B elevator to the 30th floor where the Forward Staging Area is located

Answer 13

b Explanation:
A- Bank A elevator to 28….Do not use an elevator in a bank which services the fire floor if a lower bank of elevators reaches within five floors of the fire floor.
When it is necessary to use an elevator in a bank which serves the fire floor: Select a floor at least two floors below the fire floor or two floors below the lower level of an access stair in the fire area, whichever is lowest. TB Elevators sec 6.1.3, 6.1.4.B
Since the A bank doesn’t serve the fire floor, you take the elevator to 28.
B- If possible, the SAE Group Supervisor shall choose a location on a floor that is not serviced by the same bank of elevators as the fire floor and at least 5 floors above the fire floor…Bank B services the fire floor….High-Rise office sec 6.5.2
C- Bank A to the 28th floor and walked up to 29…..Fire Sector Supervisor shall take a position on the first floor below the fire(29th floor)…High-Rise office sec 5.5.2
D- Bank A elevator to the 28th floor the Forward Staging Area which is found on a floor below the Fire Sector……..High-Rise p-iv
TB Emergency 1 (Elevators): When its necessary to use an elevator in a bank which SERVES the fire floor
* Select a floor at least two floors below the fire floor or two floors below the lower level of an access stair in the fire area, whichever is lowest……The A bank does NOT service the fire floor

Question 14

Question 15:
Your company has been assigned to a 5 story OLT as the FAST unit. Suddenly the building partially collapses and there are multiple maydays given for members trapped. Your unit springs into action and finds a SCBA label with white numerals on a yellow background. The numbers read 1-1. You correctly identify this SCBA as a ________

A :squad or battalion SCBA

B: squad or battalion spare SCBA

C: rescue or battalion SCBA

D: rescue or battalion spare SCBA

Answer 14

a

Question 15

Question 18:
E58 receives a response for a man unconscious in his car. Upon arrival they see a note explaining it was a chemical suicide, warning all to stay out. E58 operated correctly in all choices except?

A: Ventilate the vehicle or occupancy prior to entering.

B:Remove the container with the chemicals from the car.

C:Stretch a charged hoseline with a fog nozzle used primarily for decontamination.

D: Transmit a 10-80 Code 1 and ensure the response of NYPD.

Answer 15

Explanation:
Avoid disturbing the container, generally found in a bucket, as it may increase chemical mixing and poisonous gas emissions.
Haz Mat 11 sec 4.1

Question 16

Question 25:
In order for the well hole to be used, it must be large enough to accommodate the hose. An effective test for size is ______.

A: the nozzle perpendicular to the railing

B:a closed gloved fist

C: the nozzle parallel to the railing

D: the nozzle without the tip

Answer 16

b Explanation:
An effective test for size is a closed hand. If you can fit your gloved fist inside a well hole, it should be large enough to execute a well hole stretch.
Eng Ops Ch 7 sec 5.2

Question 17

Question 39:

Yellow Hydrants on Parkways and Expressways must be turned on fully at the curb valve, approximately _______ using a curb valve key.

A: 17 turns clockwise

B:18 turns clockwise

C: 17 turns counterclockwise

D: 18 turns counterclockwise

Answer 17

c

Question 18

Question 25:
In order for the well hole to be used, it must be large enough to accommodate the hose. An effective test for size is ______.

A: the nozzle perpendicular to the railing

B:a closed gloved fist

C: the nozzle parallel to the railing

D: the nozzle without the tip

Answer 18

b

Question 19

Question 1:
You are the first arriving Ladder Officer crawling down a hallway on the 15th floor of a 20 story 100X100 High Rise Fire Proof Multiple Dwelling. You determine that the smoke and heat condition in the hallway is due to a wind impacted fire with the fire apartment door left open. In this scenario you carried out which procedure incorrectly?

A: You ensured all members exited the public hallway immediately, and notified the IC and Engine Officer of conditions.

B: Once retreated back to stairwell, you kept the stairwell closed until an alternate strategy has been implemented such as a KO Curtain or Window Blanket has been deployed over the target window

C:After receiving approval to enter the public hall by the IC or Fire Sector Supervisor, you and your inside team entered the public hall, in an attempt to locate and gain control the fire apt door, leaving the Engine Officer on the hallway side of the stairwell door to act as a beacon in case members need to evacuate

D: Once you gain control on the fire apartment door, the Engine Company advanced the charged hoseline to the fire apartment door

E:Once the decision has been made by the IC and/or Fire Sector Supervisor to enter the fire apt, the Engine Company entered the apt first followed by the Ladder Company

Answer 19

Explanation:
Only the Ladder Officer and one member of the forcibly entry team shall enter the public hallway to locate and gain control of the fire apt door. The other member of the interior team will remain at the attack stairwell door on the HALLWAY side of the door to ensure the stairwell door remains closed limiting the flow path and act as a BEACON in case members need to evacuate the hallway. THE ENGINE OFFICER SHALL BE RESPONSIBLE FOR CONTROL AND COORDINATION ON THE STAIRWELL SIDE OF THE DOOR
Multiple Dwellings add 3 sec 5

Question 20

Question 3:

When battling a fire on the exterior of an EIFS-clad building, a knowledgeable officer should know which appliance has the greatest vertical reach (from the top of the nozzle)?

A:Tower Ladder Monitor

B:Satellite Monitor

C: Engine Deck Gun

D: Multiversal Nozzle

Answer 20

a

xplanation:
Tower Ladder Monitor - 135 ft
Satellite Monitor - 130 ft
Engine Deck Gun - 130 ft
Multiversal Nozzle - 110 ft
2 ½” - 15/16” - 50 psi - 75 ft
2 ½” - 1 1/8“ - 40 psi - 40 ft
1 ¾” - 15/16” 50 psi - 70 ft
AUC 362 3.1

Question 21

Question 4:

As an officer, you become aware of a member of your unit misusing and/or misappropriating the Department’s time. You would be correct to take which action?

A: Immediate notification to the IG

B: Written notification to the IG

C: Immediate notification to BITS

D: Written notification to BITS

Answer 21

Explanation:
Written Notification to BITS
Acronym: IM MAC
Incompetence so serious that the officer believes disciplinary charges are warranted.
Misconduct not falling within the jurisdiction of the IG.
Misuse or misappropriation of the Department’s time.
Arrest followup information.
Charges.
AUC 268A 4.1.5

Question 22

Question 12:

The AirTrain system in Queens can be quite complex. A knowledgeable officer should know each of the following choices to be correct regarding operations at AirTrain emergencies except?

A: The Incident Commander shall ensure grounding straps are in place on each side of the operation before members are committed to the guideway, unless the Fire Department Borough Communications Office has received confirmation that the power is off.

B: The primary method for evacuating passengers from an AirTrain that is located between stations is to have AirTrain personnel bring a rescue train from either the front or the rear of the disabled train, or to the adjoining track, and safely evacuate and transport the passengers to the next station.

C: When using walkways to evacuate passengers, the Incident Commander must ensure that the power is removed and grounding straps are in place for the entire evacuation path prior to removing the passengers.

D: If immediate removal from an elevated area is required, the use of a Tower Ladder may be necessary. If a guardrail needs to be removed to allow for easier and safer access into the Tower Ladder basket, the guardrail can be removed by using a metal cutting saw.

Answer 22

a Explanation:
The Incident Commander shall ensure grounding straps are in place on each side of the operation before members are committed to the guideway. This procedure shall be adhered to EVEN AFTER the Fire Department Borough Communications Office has received confirmation that the power is off.
A Note: The only exception to this procedure should be when the Incident Commander has determined that an imminent life hazard exists and time does not allow for the placement of these grounding straps.
AUC 207 Add 12 8, 10

Question 23

During the course of their duties, members may encounter PCBs. Which choice below indicates an incorrect procedure?

A:Decontamination procedures shall be implemented only when members or equipment are exposed to PCB levels of 50 PPM or higher.

B: Entrance into a contaminated or suspected area shall be kept to a minimum.

C:Energized electrical transformers or capacitors must be deactivated and controls established to maintain this equipment in the “off” position. Deactivation of transformers shall only be performed by members at the direction of Con Edison or engineering personnel.

D: Proper extinguishing methods must be used according to the properties of the involved materials. Fog or foam may be used for flammable liquids and water for structural members.

Answer 23

c Explanation:
Energized electrical transformers or capacitors must be deactivated and controls established to maintain this equipment in the “off” position. Deactivation of transformers shall be performed only by Con Edison Personnel or Engineering Personnel of the premises familiar with procedure. No member of this Department shall attempt deactivation by direction or upon instruction of engineering personnel.
AUC 266 6.4.1 - 6.4.3 8.1

Question 24

Question 25:
There are many poisonous gases that members will encounter at fires, as well as hazardous material incidents. These gases are readily identifiable by either an odor or color. Choose the incorrect gas in relation to the odor/color

A: Hydrogen Cyanide- colorless, but has a noticeable almond odor

B: Hydrogen Chloride- colorless, but has a pungent odor

C: Phosgene- odorless at first, but at 6 ppm it has a musty-hay smell

D: Acetaldehyde- colorless and odorless

E: Nitrogen Oxides- reddish brown gas

Answer 24

d

Explanation:
Fruity odor
This section has been on past exams
Remember; Carbon monoxide is odorless and colorless
Training Bulletins SCBA add 3 pages 2-3

Question 25

Question 27:
With all units 10-84 during an all-hands structural fire, how many Pak-Trackers will be at the Incident Command Post?

A: 1

B : 2

C: 3

D: 4

Answer 25

c

Explanation:
Pak-Trackers are currently carried by all ladder, rescue, and squad companies. Pak-Trackers shall be brought to the ICP by the FAST unit, rescue, and squad companies. A member of the FAST unit will monitor the Pak-Tracker. The rescue and squad Pak-Tracker’s will remain at the command post as a back-up should the FAST unit be deployed
Training Bulletins SCBA add 8 sec 4.1

Question 26

Question 28:

Officers should be familiar with proper operations when responding to fires and emergencies related to the buckeye pipeline. Of the following choices, which is incorrect?

A: The pipeline operates at 1,200 psig at Linden, New Jersey. The maximum service pressure on the terminal piping and delivery lines to shippers from the Long Island City terminal is 200 psig.

B: Manual shut off valves are generally located below ground. Turn clockwise 42 half turns to shut off the valve. The only exceptions are the valves located on the shipper’s lines extending from the Long Island City terminal which require 24 half turns clockwise.

C: When response to a street box reveals that the alarm was transmitted for a leak from the pipeline, transmit a second alarm and 10-86

D: Reopening of manually closed valves for any reason can only be done with the approval of the IC (Deputy Chief and Above) after consultation with Buckeye Pipeline personnel.

Answer 26

Explanation: b
Turn clockwise 42 FULL to shut off the valve. There are exceptions where the valves require more or less than the 42 full turns. For example, valves located on the shipper’s lines extending from the Long Island City terminal require approximately 24 full turns clockwise to close. Valve 62QL only requires 12 full turns clockwise to close. Valve 66QI on JFK property near the “Head of Bay” requires over 100 full turns clockwise to close.
AUC 149 1.3, 2.1.5, 2.1.6, 7.8, 8.19

Question 27

Question 31:
At a Class”E” office building, there are four different procedures that a Fire Safety Director (FS)/Emergency Action Plan Director (EAPD) can implement to safeguard occupants in the event of an emergency. Choose the incorrect procedure

A: Shelter in place during a fire

B: In-building relocation

C: Partial building evacuation

D: Full building evacuation

Answer 27

a

Explanation:
Shelter in place for NON-FIRE EMERGENCIES
High-Rise Office Building add 1 sec 1.2 and 4.1

Question 28

Question 33:
The correct responsibility for the third arriving ladder company during a High-Rise Office building fire can be found in which choice?

A: Proceed to the floor above the fire via a stairway other than the attack stairway

B: Determine which stairway is the best stairway to be used by the members for evacuation and advise the Incident Command Post

C: Remove all occupants from the evacuation stairway for a reasonable distance above the fire floor and prevent its use by the occupants

D: Conduct a secondary search of the floor above the fire

Answer 28

b

Explanation:
B- Determine which stairway is the best stairway to be used by the OCCUPANTS for evacuation and advise the Incident Command Post
C- Remove all occupants from the ATTACK stairway for a reasonable distance above the fire floor and prevent its use by the occupants
D- Conduct a PRIMARY search of the floor above the fire
High-Rise Office Building sec 8.5

Question 29

Question 40:

When encountering displaced pets/pet remains at the scene of a fire or emergency, the FDNY shall protect/secure the pet with a responsible party (owner, neighbor, building representative, NYPD, etc.) if possible, and/or cover the pet remains and keep them out of view of the public and media. If reunification with the owner is not possible, the FDNY IC shall contact?

A: The American Society for the Prevention of Cruelty to Animals (ASPC) through the respective borough dispatcher.

B: The Animal Care Center (ACC) through the respective borough dispatcher.

C: The Animal Care Center (ACC) directly via cell phone.

D: The American Society for the Prevention of Cruelty to Animals (ASPC) directly via cell phone.

Answer 29

b

Question 30

Question 7:

At a biological incident, members would be correct to be familiar with each of the guidelines below except?

A: By weight, biological toxins are thousands of times more lethal than chemical nerve agents.

B: Agents in liquid form are opaque, but can vary in color depending on the method of production and the agent itself. The viscosity of a biological agent in liquid form is typically thicker than water, but not as thick as syrup.

C: The color of dried biological agents varies depending on the method used to prepare the agent. Weaponized anthrax may appear gray or brown in color.

D: Dried biological agents are easier to produce but more difficult to disseminate because they are less stable than liquid biological agents.

Answer 30

Explanation:
LIQUID biological agents are EASIER TO PRODUCE but MORE DIFFICULT TO DISSEMINATE because they are LESS STABLE than dried biological agents.
ERP Add 1 Ch 1 2.1.5, 3.2.8

Question 31

Question 18:
Choose the incorrect statement in regards to the Pressure Reducer Assembly (PRA) on the SCBA

A: The PRA is mounted on the left side of the backframe

B: Consisting of two systems (primary and secondary), the PRA normally reduces the operating pressure to 100 psi before entering the regulator’s low pressure hose

C: A malfunction of the PRA’s primary system will automatically direct breathing air into a secondary system. When this occurs, the operating pressure will only be reduced to 150 psi and cause the vibralert alarm to activate

D: Failure of both the primary and secondary systems in the closed position will activate a Relief Valve in the PRA, which will rapidly discharge all pressure in excess of 185 psi into the atmosphere. When this occurs, the cylinder valve should be partially closed, allowing only a minimal amount of air to release, permitting the member to both breathe and conserve air

Answer 31

Explanation:
Failure of both the primary and secondary systems in the OPEN position will activate a Relief Valve in the PRA, which will rapidly discharge all pressure in excess of 185 psi into the atmosphere. When this occurs, the cylinder valve should be partially closed, allowing only a minimal amount of air to release, permitting the member to both breathe and conserve air
Training Bulletins SCBA 3.6

Question 32

Question 30:
You have just received a Workplace Violence Report from one of your firefighters. At this point you follow several protocols. Choose the incorrect protocol.

A: Ensure that it is forwarded via the chain of command to the Workplace Violence Prevention Coordinator

B: If the incident was very likely to lead to an incident of workplace violence, you consulted the guidance of the Workplace Prevention Coordinator

C: Officers (in consultation with their chain of command) may take measures within their authority to correct a potential for workplace violence or to respond to a workplace violence incident including contacting law enforcement authorities, temporarily re-assigning personnel, or referring personnel for discipline

D: A copy of the Workplace Violence Prevention Policy shall be posted on the Company’s bulletin board for all members to access and view

Answer 32

d

Explanation:
A copy of the Workplace Violence Prevention Policy shall be made available on the Fire Department’s Intranet. Officers shall make a printed copy of this policy available to firefighters who they supervise, UPON REQUEST
PA/ID 1-2011 sec 11 and 14.1

Question 33

Question 36:
Which choice incorrectly describes the Purge Valve on the regulator of the SCBA?

A: Failure of the regulator in the closed position (no air to face piece), the FF shall turn the purge valve counter-clockwise

B: Failure of the regulator in the open position (too much air flow in the face piece), the FF shall open the purge valve fully and partially close the cylinder valve

C: The red purge valve knob is located on the right side of the regulator

D: Turning the purge valve downward 180 degrees away from the member’s face will activate the purge

Answer 33

c left side

Question 34

Question 19:
The incorrect position/assignment when operating at a High-Rise Building fire can be found in which choice?

A: CFRD engine company, with all CFRD equipment and forcible entry tools, shall be assigned to the Fire Sector Supervisor/Branch Director

B: 1st arriving ladder company shall be assigned to search and evacuate the fire floor

C: 2nd arriving ladder company shall be assigned to augment the search and evacuation of the fire floor

D: 3rd arriving ladder company shall be assigned to operate on the upper floors

Answer 34

d

Explanation:
Sec 8.5 has all the 3rd arriving ladder company duties
High-Rise Office Buildings sec 5.3.1 3rd arriving ladder company shall be assigned to search and evacuate the floor above the fire
***FAST Unit shall be assigned to the Fire Sector Supervisor/Branch Director

Question 35

Question 22:

What is the minimum safe operating distance for applying water on a live 138 kV electrical component when using a stream of less than 30 degree fog?

A:15 ft

B: 75 ft

C: 25 ft

D: 125 ft

Answer 35

Explanation:
The minimum safe operating distance for applying water on energized or de-energized electrical components:
15 feet on live 138 kV electrical components for 30 degree or greater fog streams.
75 feet on live 138 kV electrical components for all straight or solid streams and streams less than 30 degree fog. This distance is equal to approximately one and one-half (1½) lengths of hose.
25 feet on live 345 kV electrical components for 30 degree or greater fog streams. This distance is equal to approximately one-half (½) length of hose.
125 feet on live 345 kV electrical components for all straight or solid streams and streams less than 30 degree fog. This distance is equal to approximately two and one-half (2 ½) lengths of hose.
AUC 338 5.3

Question 36

Question 25:
Depending on the situation, the engine officer may have several options available for stretching hoseline. In the event that multiple methods are available, the following is the priority order of methods for stretching hoselines:

A: Rope, Interior stairs, Fire escape, Portable ladder, Aerial ladder

B: Interior stairs, Rope, Fire escape, Aerial ladder, Portable ladder

C: Interior stairs, Rope, Fire escape, Portable ladder, Aerial ladder

D: Interior stairs, Fire escape, Rope, Aerial ladder, Portable ladder

Answer 36

c

Question 37

Question 1:

What is the normal duty of the second arriving Engine at a Haz-Mat spill where the Department’s emergency response procedures have been activated?

A:Site Access Control

B: Water Supply

C: Decontamination

D: CFR duties

Answer 37

a Explanation:
First Arriving Engine Company - Water Supply
Second Arriving Engine - Site Access Control
Third Arriving Engine - should be assigned CFR-D duties for the safety of Fire Department members as well as victims removed that have been exposed or injured.
If the First or Second Arriving Engine Company is already assigned CFR-D work, then the Third Arriving Engine should be assigned to water supply and decontamination or site control as needed.

Question 38

Question 9:

While working in L100 you receive a response to an emergency in a high rise building in Manhattan. The ticket lists your unit as “L100R” which means you should be operating as the?

A: Tech Decon Task Force Ladder

B: Hi-Rise Roof Team

C:Rescue Collapse Transport Unit

D: Division Task Force

Answer 38

xplanation:
D - Tech Decon Task Force Ladder
H - Hi-Rise Roof Team
K - Division Task Force
Comm 2 p18

Question 39

Question 14:
The incorrect elevator removal procedure can be found in which choice?

A: Primary removal procedures consist of checking electrical contacts or activating Firemen Service. Both methods are performed without turning off elevator power

B:Secondary removal procedures consist of shutting power and opening elevator car door. 1) Hinge type door: depress the roller. 2) Sliding type door: push up on locking arm

C:During emergency removal procedures, a maximum of 3 FFs are permitted on the roof of the car at one time when going through the top hatch

D: For a side exit removal (emergency procedures) planks of 6’ or longer should be used as a bridge between cars. Member equipped with a HT and secured with LSR crosses planks to the stuck car

Answer 39

Explanation:
Training Bulletins Emergencies 1
A- sec 3.3
B- sec 3.6.4
C- Maximum of 2 FFs….3.7
D- p-9

c

Question 40

Question 21:

In which choice below should a 10-80 Code 1 be transmitted?

A: Release is of a small quantity (e.g., gas leak in a stove).

B: The material and its hazards have not yet been identified.

C: Firefighters’ PPE provides adequate protection against the identified hazards.

D: Special equipment and specialized training are not needed.

Answer 40

Explanation:
The material and its hazards HAVE been identified.
Guidelines for transmitting a Signal 10-80 No Code:
SIPS
SMALL QUANTITY release (e.g., gas leak in a stove)
IDENTIFIED material and its hazards
PPE for firefighters provides adequate protection against the identified hazards
SPECIAL equipment and specialized training are not needed
Comm 8 p21

d

Question 41

Question 22:
On occasion, units are called upon to operate at incidents where respiratory protection is necessary for extended periods of time. To provide this protection, the Department has issued Air-Purifying Respirators (APR) to field units, such as the Scott CBRN CAP 1 canister. The incorrect information about the Scott CAP 1 canister can be found in which choice?

A: The Scott CBRN CAP 1 canister for protection against airborne gases, vapors, and particulates

B: The Scott CBRN CAP 1 canister shall not be used in fire conditions, confined spaces, or permit-required confined spaces

C: The Scott CBRN CAP 1 canister shall not be used when the atmosphere is less than 19.5 percent oxygen or above 23 percent oxygen

D: The Scott CBRN CAP1 canister has a two year shelf life when stored in its vacuum sealed container

E: The Scott CBRN CAP 1 canister must be inspected at least every 30 days and/or on the first day of each month

Answer 41

d

Explanation:
7 year shelf life….The expiration date is labeled on both the vacuum sealed container and the canister itself
Training Bulletins SCBA add 2

Question 42

Question 25:

All members should be familiar with the Department’s “ventilation” procedures. Which choice below incorrectly describes the “neutral plane?”

A: It is a boundary layer in a structure fire.

B:Below it, air will be drawn into the structure.

C: Above it, combustion gasses will be exhausted.

D:It can be an indicator of the stage the fire is in, and will rise towards the ceiling as the fire grows in intensity.

Answer 42

d

Explanation:
It can be an indicator of the stage the fire is in, and will DROP DOWN TOWARDS THE FLOOR as the fire grows in intensity.
Vent Glossary

Question 43

Question 40:
When an Engine Company is ordered to stretch a hoseline to the top floor of an exposure during a Rowframe fire for the purposes of extinguishing the fire in the cockloft, what additional tool should the engine take with them?

A:6’ Hook

B: Pressurized water extinguisher

C:Fog tip

D: Halligan

Answer 43

a

Explanation:
Should take a 6’ hook to pull ceilings
Brownstones and Rowframes 6.1.C

Question 44

Question 2:
Choose the incorrect Ladder Company tactic for a fire in a flat roof Private Dwelling.

A: Tool assignment for the 1st arriving Roof FF is a Halligan, 6’ halligan hook, LSR (LSR should be taken when there will be a delay in laddering the rear of the building due to attached exposures and/or the height of the building requires the LSR)

B: If roof access via Tower Ladder, Aerial Ladder, or Portable Ladder is negated due to conditions; the Roof FFs should use the scissor ladder in an immediate attached exposure to gain access to roof via the scuttle, especially in wood frame type P.D’s

C: No vertical ventilation shall be performed unless the Roof FF directly communicates with and receives approval from the Ladder Company Officer operating in the fire area, or the Roof FF hears radio transmissions that the inside team has door control of the fire area or a charged hoseline is advancing into the fire area

D: Tool assignment for the 2nd arriving Roof FF is a 6’ halligan hook and saw

Answer 44

b

Explanation:
In attached wood frame type P.D’s the immediate adjoining building should not be used due to the possibility of cockloft involvement. For attached P.D.’s of ordinary brick construction where firewalls exist between buildings, choose the building offering the easiest access to its interior br> ***Flat roof operations, both Roof FFs go to the roof
Private Dwellings ch 4 sec 7.1 and 7.2

Question 45

Question 5:

As part of the Iroquois Pipeline, there is a buried manual valve designated E13A-1 outside the meter/regulating station at Food Center Drive. Of the following choices, which is incorrect regarding this valve?

A:There is a sign “FDNY Valve E-13A-1” located on the fence adjacent to the gated entrance and an additional sign opposite the valve manhole alongside the entrance road.

B: The valve stem is covered by a flush mounted valve box similar to a Con Edison manhole cover.

C:This valve requires 213 quarter turns to close.

D: There is a special manual wrench for this valve just inside the entrance gate with a sign attached identifying it.

Answer 45

Explanation:
This valve requires 213 FULL turns to close.
D Note: Rescue 3 carries a special hydraulic wrench for this valve and a backup hydraulic wrench is stored at the FDNY Command Post building at 500 Food Center Drive.
AUC 150 3.4.1

c

Question 46

Question 12:
You arrive to a High-Rise Office building with a confirmed fire on the 50th floor. You report into the Command Post and are given several assignments. Before you leave the Command Post the BC reminds you that there are access stairs from 50 down to the 47th floor and the elevator banks are: A bank 1-48; B bank 48-60; C bank 60-80; D bank 80-100. Choose the correct assignment/elevator bank

A: When reporting to the fire floor, you took the A bank to the 48th floor

B: When reporting to the fire floor, you took the A bank to the 45th floor

C: When reporting to the Search and Evacuation Post (SAE) you took the B bank and reported to the 55th floor

D: When reporting to the Forward Staging Area, you took the C bank and reported to the 61st floor

Answer 46

Choice A is correct.
***Do not use an elevator in a bank which services the fire floor if a lower bank of elevators reaches within 5 floors of the fire floor
***When using an elevator in a bank which services the fire floor then select a floor 2 floors below the fire floor or 2 floors below the lower level of an access stair in the fire area, whichever is lowest…..A bank DOES NOT SERVICE THE FIRE FLOOR, therefore you can take it to floor 48 (2 floors below the fire floor)
Training Bulletins Emergency 1 sec 6 SAE located on 61……location on a floor which is not serviced by the same bank of elevators as the fire floor and at least five floors above the fire floor
High-Rise Office p-29-31 Forward Staging Area on 48…2 floors below the fire floor
High-Rise Office p-29-31

Question 47

Question 21:

When a cell site is discovered on a building, the administrative unit must conduct an on-site inspection and evaluate the cell site. The administrative unit should complete and submit CIDS specifying each of the following except?

A: Location of the cell site room

B: Backup power supply location

C: Location of antennas and coaxial cable

D: Emergency telephone number of the cellular phone company

Answer 47

Shut off location
c

Question 48

Your unit arrives at a multiple alarm taxpayer fire and you are ordered to report to the FAST Group Supervisor. Which chief should you report to based on the response ticket information?

A: BC001F

B: BC002G

C: BC003K

D: BC004P

Answer 48

Explanation:
BC001F - Foam Coordinator
BC003K - Division Task Force
BC004P - Staging Area Manager
Comm 2 p18

b

Question 49

Question 32:
The incorrect action of the FAST Unit officer can be found in which choice?

A: The officer of the FAST Unit shall announce their arrival on the scene over the HT and report to the Command Post, unless otherwise directed by the IC

B: If assigned by the IC to other than FAST duties, the FAST officer shall immediately carry out the duties

C: The FAST officer should bring an up to date copy of the response ticket to the Command Post which would include any CIDS information that is available

D: Communication between FAST Unit members does not require the use of the word FAST after the unit designation. Ex: “Ladder 100 Can to Ladder 100

Answer 49

Explanation: b
If assigned by the IC to other than FAST duties, the FAST officer shall REMIND the IC of their FAST designation
Managing Members In Distress FAST Unit ch 2 sec 4

Question 50

Question 35:

Your unit responds to a stuck elevator emergency and assists two victims out of the elevator. Both victims refused medical attention. Which code should you transmit?

A: 10-31

B:10-29 Code 1

C: 10-29 Code 2

D: 10-91

Answer 50

Explanation:
10-29: Elevator Emergency
Code 1: Occupied
Code 2: Unoccupied
Comm 8 p9

b