LT ONLY PACKAGE Flashcards
Question 12:
Members operating at elevator incidents and emergencies must take certain precautions to ensure the operation is conducted as safely as possible. Which elevator SOP outlined below is correct?
A: When passengers are removed from a car between floors, they should be taken up and out of the car if practical.
B: When performing emergency removal procedures shutting power is essential and one member should be dispatched to the elevator machinery room to shut off power to the stalled car.
C: Primary and secondary removal procedures are simple approaches and may be performed without turning off the elevator power.
D: Upon completion of the operation restore power to the stalled car
A Explanation:
B. When performing emergency removal procedures shutting power is essential and TWO MEMBERS should be dispatched to the elevator machinery room to shut off power to the stalled car.
C. PRIMARY REMOVAL procedures are simple approaches and may be performed without turning off the elevator power.
WHENEVER SECONDARY OR EMERGENCY POWER REMOVAL PROCEDURES ARE USED, POWER REMOVAL IS ESSENTIAL.
D. Upon completion of the operation DO NOT restore power to the stalled car.
TB Elevators 3.3, 3.5.1, 3.5.2 B
Question 17:
Engine 256 was in quarters and received a verbal for a person in cardiac arrest on the block. Which of the following actions taken by the company was INCORRECT?
A: They advised the dispatcher of the verbal alarm by selecting the verbal button on the PC/ATS.
B: They advised the dispatcher of the nature of the incident via telephone.
C: They advised the dispatcher of the location of the incident they were responding to via telephone.
D: They advised the dispatcher via apparatus radio that additional assistance was required.
A
Explanation:
COMMUNICATIONS CHAPTER 2 – COMPUTER ASSISTED DISPATCH
A IS INCORRECT 2.2.4 – There is no verbal button on the PC/ATS – Units receiving a verbal alarm while in quarters must notify the dispatcher as soon as possible via telephone or apparatus radio indicating.
B – 2.2.4A1
C – 2.2.4A2
D – 2.2.4A3
Question 23:
Two-in two-out is a federally recognized safety standard set forth by OSHA. Which of the following components of this policy listed below is incorrect?
A: No member shall enter, leave or operate in an IDLH atmosphere unless the members teams-up with at least one other member and remains within visual or voice contact with that member.
B: If a known life hazard is discovered and immediate action is necessary to prevent the loss of life, appropriate action (rescue activity) may be taken by an individual member.
C: In all cases of such individual action, the company officer of the member performing the rescue shall forward a report detailing the full particulars to the Chief of Operations.
D: A known life hazard is defined as follows: a victim can be seen or heard by the rescuer; or a member has information from a credible source or person at the scene indicating the location of the life hazard.
Explanation:
C. In all cases of such individual action, the INCIDENT COMMANDER shall forward a report detailing the full particulars to the Chief of Operations.
MMID 1.2, 1.3, 1.4 C
ECC Thomson was instructing other members of his company on proper pressures and friction loss in hoselines. In which choice was a correct comment made?
A: The friction loss in each 50-foot length of 1 ¾” hose is 30 psi.
B:2 ½” hose is the most versatile type of hose in the FDNY and can be used as an attack line at a fire or emergency or as a supply line in a number of situations. The friction loss in each length is 5 psi.
C: 2” lightweight hose is red, with green stripes, and is only used as the lead (nozzle) length on the attack line from a standpipe system in residential buildings. The friction loss in each length of lightweight 2” hose is 10 psi.
D: 2 ½” lightweight hose is white, with red stripes, and is used as an attack line when using a standpipe system. The friction loss in each length of lightweight 2 ½” hose is 10 psi.
Explanation:
B
A) The friction loss in each 50-foot length of 1 ¾” hose is 20 PSI.
C) 2” lightweight hose is GREEN, with RED STRIPES, and is only used as the lead (nozzle) length on the attack line from a standpipe system in residential buildings. The friction loss in each length of lightweight 2” hose is 10 psi.
D) 2 ½” lightweight hose is white, with red stripes, and is used as an attack line when using a standpipe system. The friction loss in each length of lightweight 2 ½” hose is 5 PSI.
Note: Notice the trend - in general, the smaller the hose diameter, the larger the friction loss.
Question 27:
After the start of the tour, in order to be in-service as a CFR-D unit for CFR-D responses, what is the correct minimum staffing of CFR-D certified personnel?
A:2 firefighters
B: 2 members (2 firefighters or 1 firefighter & 1 officer)
C: 3 firefighters
D: 3 members (3 firefighters or 2 firefighters & 1 officer)
Explanation:
Note: While CFR-D Units must begin each tour with two certified firefighters, in the event that during a tour the minimum staffing reduces to 1 firefighter and 1 officer, the company shall remain available for CFR-D responses.
Question 31:
Ladder 100 arrives at the Rock for an extrication drill. The instructor is discussing safe operating procedures in the vicinity of airbags. He makes the following statements, but was incorrect in which one?
A: Airbag systems are equipped with an energy storage feature that enables them to deploy even when the battery has been destroyed in an accident.
B: Members should observe a 10” safe operating distance from driver airbags.
C: Newer systems include the use of dual stage inflators which basically means that just because an airbag has deployed, it does not mean there cannot be a second deployment.
D: Airbags can be deployed either electronically or mechanically. Disconnecting the battery will start the drain time, which varies, for both types of airbags.
D. Airbags can be deployed either electronically or mechanically. Disconnecting the battery will start the drain time, which varies, for AN ELECTRONICALLY ACTIVATED DEVICE, BUT NOT A MECHANICALLY ACTIVATED ONE.
Note “B”: CODE:
Side airbags = 5” (shortest word = shortest distance)
Driver airbags = 10” (middle length word = middle distance)
Passenger airbags = 20” (longest word = longest distance)
Disentanglement & Extrication 2.6
Question 34:
The incorrect procedure when operating at an Iroquois Pipeline (natural gas) incident can be found in which choice?
A: Due to the extreme high pressure found in this pipeline system, during a leak units must use a fog line to assist in dispersal
B: The initial actions of units responding to pipeline boxes are to set up a perimeter and eliminate sources of ignition
C: The primary consideration when operating at an Iroquois Pipeline incident is the evacuation of the area involved
D: Patrolling the pipeline to locate the leak will be performed by a Squad Company or SOC Support Ladder Company
Explanation:
AUC 150
A-Due to the extreme high pressure found in this pipeline system, consideration shall be given to allow escaping gas to naturally disperse into the atmosphere without the the use of fog lines to assist in dispersal. The use of fog lines may actually hinder the dissipation of the gas….sec 7.1.2
B- sec 7.1.1
C- sec 7.2.1
D- sec 7.2.3
Question 5:
Typically at a structural fire, the 2nd arriving engine company will team up with the 1st arriving engine to operate the 1st hoseline. However, there are situations in which the 2nd arriving engine company may stretch and operate a 2nd hoseline. This should only be done when each of the following conditions exist, with the exception of which choice?
A: The 1st arriving engine company must have secured a positive water source. The 2nd arriving engine officer can communicate with the 1st arriving chauffeur to confirm this.
B: The 1st arriving engine company does not require the help of the 2nd arriving engine to get the 1st line in operation. The 2nd arriving engine officer must communicate with the 1st arriving engine chauffeur to confirm this.
C: The hose stretches are sufficiently short, so the 1st arriving company will not require immediate assistance in operating the line once it is charged.
D: There is an immediate need for a 2nd hoseline to address fire extension or a life hazard.
Explanation:
B) The 1st arriving engine company does not require the help of the 2nd arriving engine to get the 1st line in operation. The 2nd arriving engine officer must communicate with the 1st arriving engine OFFICER to confirm this. D Note: The Incident Commander (Chief Officer or Acting Chief Officer) may order the second engine in any situation to immediately stretch a second line for any purpose including the need for a backup line or exposure protection.
Eng Ch 4 3.5
Question 6:
Which Engine Company is responsible for positioning near the 1st arriving Ladder Company and providing Emergency Gross Decontamination for ambulatory victims during a suspected chemical attack in an underground subway?
A:1st arriving Engine
B: 2nd arriving Engine
C: 3rd arriving Engine
D: 4th arriving Engine
A Explanation:
1st arriving Engine Company
- provide Emergency Gross Decontamination for ambulatory victims
- Direct persons who are decontaminated to Casualty Collection Points
- Provide estimate of number of victims to IC
- Inform 2nd arriving Ladder Company and IC if victims collapse on their way from the subway exit to the Gross Decon area
2nd and 3rd arriving Engine Companies
- ensure that decon facilities are available quickly at remote locations (entrances)
- Perform CFRD duties as needed
ERP add 2 sec 7.1 and 7.2.1
Question 8:
Proper Tower Ladder placement is crucial at a fire operation. All officers should be familiar with the information below except the incorrect statement in which choice?
A: Tower Ladders shall not be placed on sidewalks containing underground vaults.
B: Generally, the apparatus should be parallel to the building. Occasionally, the scrub area of the bucket will be reduced by the cab of the apparatus and this can be corrected by parking the apparatus with the front end angled toward the building line.
C :The ideal horizontal distance from the center line of the turntable to an objective is 32 feet.
D: Generally, the boom has enough clearance to reach most 3rd floor windows and above when operating over the crew cab.
Explanation:
B) Generally, the apparatus should be parallel to the building. Occasionally, the scrub area of the bucket will be reduced by the cab of the apparatus and this can be corrected by parking the apparatus with the front end angled AWAY FROM the building line.
C Note: When the center line of the turntable is 25 feet from a building there will be sufficient room for the bucket to be dropped below the horizontal with the boom perpendicular to the side of the apparatus.
TL Ch 2 2
Question 10:
Each Engine and Ladder Company were issued two Drager PAC 6500 C.O. meters recently. If a meter is damaged or not working properly, the company officer shall place the meter OOS and notify who for a replacement?
A: Haz-Mat 1
B: Haz-Mat Operations Meter Room
C: Administrative Battalion
D: Administrative Division
Explanation:
It used to be the admin battalion. This procedure has been changed since these meters were issued
CO meters will display readings up to 2,000 PPM. When readings exceed 2000 PPM, the CO meter will display “rrr” indicating concentrating too high to measure
Haz-Mat ch 4 add 2 sec 1.3 and 2.7.note
Question 11:
Manhattan fire units respond to a reported manhole emergency in midtown. On arrival, units encounter a concrete slab with access manholes placed in pairs. They would be most correct to identify this as which of the following items?
A: Transformer vault
B: Steam vault
C: Electric Manholes
D: Sewer Manholes
B
Question 21:
The proper maintenance of hose is essential to effective operations. Of the following choices, which one is incorrect?
A : All hose must be tested for serviceability each year to 250 psi. The hose must be less than 10 years old.
B: Hose tested must not have any obvious defects. These includes damaged couplings, abrasions, burns, or rot to the hose jacket. If defects are noted, the hose should not be tested and should be placed OOS.
C: During the hose test, the apparatus is hooked up to a hydrant using the inlet opposite the pump panel. In addition, attach a single gate to the pumper outlet, also on the side opposite the pump panel.
D: During the annual hose test, the test pressure is maintained for 5 minutes and the ECC should be mindful that there is no movement of water during the test and the pump may build up heat. If heat is noted, a valve on an unused gate may be partially opened to allow water movement.
Explanation:
A) All hose must be tested for serviceability each year to 300 PSI. *Note - this is a change from our old Engine Operations manuals.
Eng Ch 3 Add 3 5.1, 5.3.2, 5.3.5, 5.3.6, 5.4.11
Question 23:
Based on the following CFR assignments, which CFR firefighter is responsible for manually stabilizing the patients spine if trauma is suspected?
A:“A”: Airway
B:“C”: Checker
C: “D”: Defib/Documenter
D: “E” Equipment
A Explanation:
“A” Airway: Manually stabilizing spine (if trauma is suspected) while opening the airway, maintaining the airway, and administering oxygen if needed. In response to cardiac arrest, begins ventilation. Carries o2 bag.
“B” Boss: Officer in charge
“C” Checker: Conducts patient assessment and performs hand-on care. In response to cardiac arrest, checks pulse and begins compressions. Carries trauma bag.
“D” Defib/Documenter: Completes PCR. In response to cardiac arrest, hooks up and operates defibrillator.
“E” Equipment: If CFR unit is 5 FF, the fifth FF shall initially remain with the apparatus and help carry any additional equipment needed.
CFR Chapter 2 2.1
Question 24:
Your unit is operating at a fire on the 32nd floor of a high rise office building. What is the recommended pump discharge pressure?
A: 200psi
B: 260psi
C: 300psi
D: 350psi
C Explanation:
If you picked B, please read the full explanation
C) Floors 1-10 supply 150psi
Then add 50psi for every 10 floors
HROB 4.1.7
***There’s a difference between standpipe pressures for HRMD and HROB.
At a HRMD the correct answer would be 260 (Eng Ops ch 8 add 2)
Please see Eng OPs Ch 8 sec 3.9.11 Note: For fires in High Rise Office Buildings, the chart in FFP—High Rise Office Buildings shall be utilized.
Question 25:
All officers should be familiar with the types of hydrants and other water supply sources in their response areas. Of the following choices, which is incorrect?
A: Some Yellow Hydrants on Parkways and Expressways are maintained shut at the curb valve. They must be turned on fully at the curb valve, approximately 17 turns clockwise using a curb valve key, in order to be used.
B: Red Air Cock Hydrants are on 30” diameter or greater mains in strategic locations (high and low points on the water main). These hydrants are painted red and are excellent sources of water for Fire Department use.
C: Red Satellite Water System Hydrants are a twin hydrant arrangement on large mains and shall never be used. The hydrants are painted red and are high pressure hydrants.
D: Wall Hydrants are embedded in the wall of a building and closely resemble a Fire Department Connection (but should be labeled as a hydrant.) They are operated by turning an operating nut (often located above the outlets.)
C
Explanation:
C) Red Satellite Water System Hydrants are a twin hydrant arrangement on large mains for a rapid and ADEQUATE source of water for Satellite Units. The hydrants are painted red and MAY have two 4 ½” outlets.
Eng Ch 3 Add 4 2.3.3 - 2.3.6
Question 28:
Members were discussing the designations of units during a study session. Which designation is CORRECT?
A: Engine 256 is assigned to an Ice Rescue incident. They were listed on the ticket with the Prefix W.
B: Engine 244 is assigned to a High-Rise fire as the Systems Control Unit. They were listed on the ticket with the Suffix S.
C: Engine 232 is assigned to a 1075 as a High-Pressure Pumper. They were listed on the ticket with the Prefix P.
D: Engine 322 is assigned to a collapse incident as the transport unit. They were listed on the ticket with the prefix E.
D Explanation:
COMMUNICATIONS MANUAL – COMPUTER ASSISTED DISPATCH
D IS CORRECT – Engine companies are designated by the prefix E. 2.12.1A1
A – Water/Ice Rescue is indicated by the SUFFIX W
B – Systems Control Unit is indicated by the SUFFIX Y
C – High Pressure Pumper is indicated by the SUFFIX P
Question 32:
All officers should have a basic understanding of fire dynamics. Which of the following choices contains incorrect information?
A: The horizontal line between the inflow and outflow at a ventilation opening (i.e., at the plane where there is zero pressure difference and thus zero flow in or out of the opening) is known as the neutral plane. The position of the neutral plane can often be observed during a fire, given that the outflow often consists of visible smoke or fire.
B:The neutral plane is another term for thermal interface and may occur inside a fire compartment or at any ventilation opening.
C: Thermal Interface and interface height refer to the separation between the hot upper layer and the cool lower layer within a compartment. It can be used by firefighters to identify how far the hot upper layer has banked down and the possibility of flashover.
D:The neutral plane indicates pressure differences at an opening and may be used by firefighters outside the building to help determine the fire location within a building.
B Explanation:
B) The neutral plane is DIFFERENT from the thermal interface because the neutral plane ONLY occurs at a ventilation opening.
TB FD Ch 2 2.5.4, 2.5.5
Question 37:
Proper aerial ladder placement is important to the overall success of a fire operation. Of the following choices, which is incorrect?
A:Place the apparatus 13 feet from the building for a good climbing angle
B:Place the apparatus in the center of the street, if possible
C: For an experienced member, when placing the ladder, accuracy will be obtained by sighting along the ladder rail of the top section.
D: For the less experienced member, when placing the ladder, accuracy will be attained by sighting along the underside of the ladder beam on the top sliding section.
AExplanation:
A) Place the apparatus 25 to 35 feet from the building for a good climbing angle.
A Note: Average city sidewalk is 13’ from the building line to the curb and 35’ from curb to curb.
Lad 2 3.1, 3.1.4
Question 39:
First alarm units arrive at a chute fire in a compactor of a high-rise fireproof multiple dwelling. Which operation performed is incorrect?
A: The first engine company to arrive will proceed to one level above the burning material, stretch a line and operate into the chute to extinguish the fire.
B: The Roof FF of the ladder company operates with the engine company to provide access to the chute and check for extension.
C: The officer and forcible entry team of the ladder company will operate in the compactor room. They must first locate the electrical shut off and shut power to the unit before operations commence.
D: After the engine company has extinguished the fire, the ladder company may begin overhauling. Before opening the compactor unit access door, they are to be sure the hoseline is shut down and the sprinkler OS&Y is closed.
B Explanation:
B. THE OV FF of the ladder company operates with the engine company to provide access to the chute and check for extension.
THE ROOF FF of the ladder company will generally proceed to the roof to vent.
TB Fires 7 8.2
Question 7:
A member of Ladder 100 is inspecting her PSS at the start of the tour. She notices signs of heat exposure on the bag of the PSS. She would be most correct to place which components of the system out of service?
A: The PSS bag only.
B: The PSS bag and rope only.
C: The PSS bag, rope and EXO only.
D: The PSS bag, rope, EXO, and personal harness.
D Explanation:
If the bag (or any components of PSS) show signs of heat exposure (discoloration, degradation, melting, charring, etc.) the entire system (PSS bag, rope, EXO, and harness) should be placed out of service.
**Variation of this question was asked on 2021 Captains Exam**
TB Rope 4 5.3.3
Question 9:
Engine companies can use a standing body of water as a positive water source when there are no hydrants available, or in situations where more water is required than can be supplied by the hydrant system. When drafting water, units should abide by each of the following, except for which incorrect choice?
A: The apparatus should be operated in Volume Operation and the PPG should be switched to “Revolutions Per Minute (RPM) Mode”. Once switched to RPM Mode, the PPG throttle should be increased to 1,000 RPM.
B: The apparatus priming pump is used to remove air from the drafting hose, which creates a vacuum and pulls water into the system. The prime should last for at least 45 seconds.
C: A positive and steady Master Pressure Gauge reading will indicate a successful draft and a negative reading on the Master Inlet Pressure Gauge is normal. Once a successful draft is achieved, the PPG is returned to PSI Mode for pumping operations.
D: The connection is secured with a rope tied just below the strainer using a clove hitch and binder and lowered until the strainer is at least 22 feet under the water’s surface.
D Explanation:
D) The connection is secured with a rope tied just ABOVE the strainer using a clove hitch and binder and lowered until the strainer is AT LEAST 2 feet under the water’s surface. A pumper can draft water a MAXIMUM distance of roughly 22 feet, though anything over 10 feet reduces the Gallons Per Minute (GPM) capability of the pumper.
B Note: To make this possible, all inlets and outlets not used must be capped and spanner tightened.
Eng Ch 5 3.8
At a private dwelling cellar fire, the IC (Chief or Company Officer) may consider ordering an exterior hoseline operated into a cellar window to allow for a quick knockdown when there will be a delay in applying water from the interior, or whenever fire conditions dictate. Other parameters that must be met when considering this approach include each of the following except?
A: This should only be attempted when you know the location of members operating in the cellar. It must be carefully coordinated with and communicated to all units operating on scene.
B: The primary consideration for members operating on the first floor above a cellar fire is to close the interior cellar door at the top of the stairs.
C: Based on conditions encountered, for the safety of members remaining on the first floor, consider having them operate under the protection of a charged hoseline, secure an area of refuge (ensure a ready means of egress), or having them exit the building.
D: In an emergency such as members trapped by fire in the cellar or endangered by fire because a collapse has occurred, the IC should order the immediate operation of a hoseline into a cellar window.
A Explanation:
A) This should only be attempted when NO members are operating in the cellar. It must be carefully coordinated with and communicated to all units operating on scene. (However, note the exception in Choice D, when you can do this in an “emergency”.)
Note: It is a good practice at PD fires, especially serious cellar fires, to have a precautionary charged hoseline in position near the front of the building for these contingencies.
PD Ch 3 2.6
Question 15:
After reviewing four recent “All Hands” fires, the Deputy Chief found one instance of improper aerial ladder positioning. Which choice shows the incorrect positioning?
A: At a Brownstone fire, the LCC placed the aerial ladder tip 3” from the objective, which was a cornice.
B: In order to rescue two children from a Rowframe fire, the LCC placed the aerial ladder 2” from the objective, which was a window the children were hanging out of.
C: Since she had to place the aerial ladder to the roof of a 7-story Old Law Tenement, which was at a very extreme angle, the LCC allowed the ladder to barely touch the building.
D: At a fire in a Class 2 building, the LCC placed the ladder tip 6” over the window sill.
D Explanation:
D) When positioning a ladder at a window, the placement must allow for unimpeded access and egress at this window. Therefore, the ladder tip should be LESS THAN 6” over the window sill.
The recommended distance of the tip from the objective is 2” to 6”.
In case of rescue, use the 2” positioning so that the ladder will rest against the window sill after weight is put on it.
At a very extreme angle, e.g., placing the ladder to the roof of a seven story building, allow the ladder to barely touch the building.
Lad 2 3.1.5, 3.1.6
Question 16:
Which of the following choices indicates the CORRECT occasion when units in the same quarters would make themselves AQ simultaneously via the PC/ATS?
A: When units responded to multiple boxes.
B: When units responded to different boxes.
C: One unit is a relocated unit.
D: Unit(s) did not go 10-8.
A Explanation:
COMMUNICATIONS CHAPTER 2 – COMPUTER ASSISTED DISPATCH
A IS CORRECT 2.2.2B
B – 2.2.2 B
C – 2.2.2 B
D – 2.2.2 B
Question 19:
The Nozzle position in an Engine Company is one of the most important positions at a fire. Which choice is incorrect?
A: This position is assigned by the officer at the start of each tour but can be flexible, allowing a less experienced firefighter to move up to the nozzle at a minor fire to gain valuable “on the job” experience.
B: When the engine officer calls for water the nozzle firefighter must prepare for a “long bleed” of the hose line. While waiting for the line to be charged, the nozzle can either be kept closed or cracked slightly open, allowing air to escape and then the nozzle is fully opened after water reaches nozzle, allowing water to flow.
C: The long bleed is especially important at standpipe operations, as it allows the control firefighter to accurately set the operating pressure at the standpipe outlet while water is flowing.
D: When bleeding the line it should be directed away the fire area, and into the hallway, using caution to prevent water from going into the elevator shaft.
Explanation:
D) When bleeding the line, it should be directed TOWARDS the fire area, if possible. In buildings with elevators, an attempt should be made to direct the bleed AWAY from elevator shafts to help keep elevators serviceable for firefighting operations.
Note: The nozzle firefighter should never enter the fire area without a charged hoseline.
The long bleed is also particularly important when a 2 ½” hoseline is stretched from the apparatus as the lower friction loss of the 2 ½” hose will require lower discharge pressures - the ECC will need to manually set the operating pressure at the discharge gate while water is flowing. Without a long bleed, the ECC may not have the opportunity to set the pressure properly.
Eng Ch 6 2.2, 2.6.3, 2.6.5
Question 20:
When operating at the scene of ice/water/surf incidents, FDNY members must follow certain general safety precautions. Which one is incorrect?
A: Bunker gear shall never be worn when operating in the immediate vicinity of water/ice operations.
B: During night operations, members should not be allowed past the line of sight from the shore.
C: All members operating at or near a water emergency must wear a PFD.
D: Bunker gear does not float. Tests have shown that members wearing bunker gear with or without an SCBA will sink instantaneously.
Explanation:
A. Bunker gear shall ONLY BE WORN when operating in the immediate vicinity of water/ice operations WHEN ABSOLUTELY NECESSARY.
CROSS REF AUC 159 5.4.5: BUNKER GEAR SHOULD NOT BE WORN IN FLOODED AREAS
C. This is word for word from Water Rescue 1. This could be a “possible” conflict because water rescue 2 page 7 Note states… The PFD is only worn over the Cold Water Suit by the Primary and Back up Rescuers when performing an ice rescue. The PFD is not used in conjunction with the cold water suit when performing a water rescue.
Our advice is if it’s a general statement as in our question, choice C is correct, but would be protested. If the question specifically says water rescue, then choice C would most likely be considered wrong because the rescuers don’t wear PDF’s with Cold Water Suits.
Water Rescue 1 2.2.4, 2.3, 2.4
Question 22:
Roof operations at nonfireproof tenement fires can be hazardous. Of the following choices, which is not in accordance with Department policy and directives?
A:The fronts of buildings are aligned, building depths may vary, and opened end shafts are generally located directly in the middle of the building. Members operating on the roof should not step over a parapet or wall without first feeling the adjoining surface with a tool.
B: If possible, the member on the roof should move from one roof to another near the front wall, always checking his/her footing. In order to alert members to the presence of openings, roof level skylights and/or scuttle covers if removed, should be placed upside down on the roof.
C:Before walking or moving on a roof when visibility is poor, or a heavy smoke condition exists, firefighters should crouch to a kneeling position. Members should probe the roof surface by either swinging a tool or leg in the direction of movement.
D: When momentarily blinded by smoke or darkness, and there is no immediate danger to the firefighter, it may be best for the member to remain in place until visibility is restored.
A Explanation:
A) The fronts of buildings are aligned, building depths may vary, and opened end shafts are generally located TOWARD THE REAR. Members operating on the roof should not step over a parapet or wall without first feeling the adjoining surface with a tool.
Lad 3 5.2
Question 24:
At a fire in a high rise office building, your unit is tasked with operating the building fire pump. Of the following choices, which is incorrect?
A: Follow signs or directions to the pump room which is normally located on the lowest floor (cellar or sub-cellar).
B: Locate the bypass valve on the inlet side of the fire pump, which can be readily identified by examining the gauges. The inlet gauge is calibrated for lower pressures than the discharge gauge.
C: The bypass valve should be in the closed position (stem in). If found to be open, it should be closed by turning in a clockwise direction.
D: Some systems are quite complex and it is permissible to start the pump, when ordered, without checking the bypass valve. However, expect a loss of 25% in an 8” riser and 45% in a 6” riser with the bypass open.
B
Explanation:
B) Locate the bypass valve on the DISCHARGE side of the fire pump. The discharge side can be readily identified by examining the gauges. The discharge gauge is calibrated for HIGHER pressures than the inlet gauge.
D note: Notify the engineer upon his/her arrival if starting the pump without checking the bypass valve, and any other actions taken.
HROB 4.1.2
Question 32:
The ability to properly use the MDT is an important responsibility for members, especially chauffeurs. Which of the following is CORRECT regarding the use of the keys?
A: To acknowledge an assignment to an incident, relocation, or returning from relocation, the 10-4 (Orange) button must be pressed followed by the send button.
B: To acknowledge an assignment to an incident, relocation, or returning from relocation as a 4-firefighter engine company, the 10-14 (Yellow) button must be pressed.
C: To go available on the air, the 10-8 (Yellow) button must be pressed.
D: To release everybody except for the one engine or ladder designated, the 10-19 (Yellow) button must be pressed followed by the send button.
D Explanation:
COMMUNICATIONS MANUAL – COMPUTER ASSISTED DISPATCH
D IS CORRECT – 2.11.1 B & D – Double Action Key – The signal is not transmitted until the send key is depressed.
A – Single action key – not necessary to press send button. 2.11.1 A
B – Single Action Key – Not in use at this time (No 10-14 response designations) 2.11.1 A
C – 10-8 button is YELLOW – double action key – Operating units must hit 10-8 key and send when in service. 2.11.1A & D
Question 38:
What is the most prevalent type of fire escape found on loft buildings?
A: Standard
B: Counter-balance stairs/ladders
C: Vertical
D: Party Wall balconies
A
Explanation:
A
They serve multiple residents/tenants on an individual floor of the building. They have a width of 3-4 feet and stairway angles of 45 degrees, 60 degrees, 75 degrees or steeper. Constructed of steel or wrought-iron and long exposed to the deteriorating effects of the weather, firefighters operating on these fire escapes should spread out and move with caution.
Lofts 5.1.11 A
Question 39:
When investigating gas emergencies members must follow FDNY SOPs. Which one of the following guidelines is correct?
A: The first priority at natural gas emergencies is to locate and mitigate minor leaks.
B: When detector and meter readings were present at an inside call, it is acceptable to leave the scene of an “odor of gas” response after the odor has dissipated without mitigation or coordination with utility company representatives.
C:If the Engine arrives prior to the Ladder company for an inside call, the Engine officer should proceed to the reported location/caller noting odors, information gathered and detector/meter activity.
D:When the Ladder Company Inside Team arrives at the scene of an inside call for gas, if any natural gas levels are displayed on the natural gas detector upon entering the building, or while proceeding to the reported location within the building, they should proceed directly to the basement/cellar to evaluate conditions.
C Explanation:
A. The first priority at natural gas emergencies is to ENSURE THERE IS NOT A MAJOR GAS EMERGENCY. THIS IS FOLLOWED BY locating and mitigating minor leaks.
B. When detector and meter readings were present at an inside call, it IS NOT ACCEPTABLE to leave the scene of an “odor of gas” response after the odor has dissipated without mitigation or coordination with utility company representatives.
D. When the Ladder Company Inside Team arrives at the scene of an inside call for gas, if any natural gas levels are displayed on the NATURAL GAS METER upon entering the building, or while proceeding to the reported location within the building, they should proceed directly to the basement/cellar to evaluate conditions.
“D” WAS A TIGHT CHOICE. PAY ATTENTION TO THE DIFFERENCE BETWEEN THE METER AND THE DETECTOR.
Question 4:
Two members of a busy Queens Engine Company were discussing various methods for stretching a hoseline. In which choice below was an incorrect comment made?
A: Well holes can exist in all three types of return stairways (straight run stacked stairs, half-landing return stairs, or wrap-around stairs) and may also exist in some scissor stairways.
B: In a traditional stairway stretch, to properly manage turns on a stairway, the hose should be carried in the inside arm of the stretching members to prevent entangling hose as they climb the stairs.
C: In order for a well hole to be used, it must be large enough to accommodate the hose. An effective test for size is a closed hand; if you can fit your gloved fist inside a well hole, it should be large enough to execute a well hole stretch.
D: When conditions allow, during a well hole stretch, both the nozzle and back up firefighters may carry their lengths up the stairs. This technique should be considered when floors are larger and more hose is required on the fire floor.
B Explanation:
B) In a traditional stairway stretch, to properly manage turns on a stairway, the hose should be carried in the OUTSIDE arm of the stretching members to help them make wide turns with the hose as they climb the stairs.
Eng Ch 7 2.11.3, 4.3, 5.2, 5.8.1
Question 14:
Personnel at the scene of an MVA with victim(s) pinned must have a specific strategy for overall safety and efficient victim removal. Which of the following procedures is incorrect?
A: When there are several vehicles with numerous patients, the first arriving officer must transmit a 10-75 for an emergency.
B: The power unit should be placed in the front or rear of the vehicle.
C: Never position any part of your body between the tool and the vehicle.
D: First arriving officers must immediately notify the dispatcher when a person is pinned in the vehicle.
AExplanation:
A. When there are several vehicles with numerous patients, the first arriving officer SHOULD CONSIDER TRANSMITTING A 10-75 FOR AN EMERGENCY.
Question 15:
Engine 322 was assigned on the air to a box to divert traffic on a highway for an EMS unit as they operated alone providing care to a patient suffering a life-threatening medical episode in their vehicle. At the conclusion of the incident, the officer transmitted a signal. Which is CORRECT?
A: 10-37 Code 2
B: 10-36 No Code
C: 10-43
D: D10-31
D
Explanation:
COMMUNICATIONS MANUAL – CHAPTER 8 – RADIO COMMUNICATIONS
D IS CORRECT – All calls for assistance other than medical assignments, including a unit assigned to protect EMS by diverting or blocking traffic at a highway incident…pg 8-10
A – 10-37-2 Unit was not assigned to a CFR Run.
B – 10-36 NC -Vehicle Emergency
C – 10-43 - Any non-fire related rescue
Question 30:
At a fire on an upper floor of a High Rise Office Building, your Ladder Company is assigned to the Forward Staging Area. Your unit should bring each of the following, unless otherwise directed, except?
A: A SCBA for each member.
B: A set of forcible entry tools and a six-foot hook.
C: Search and utility ropes.
D: A spare SCBA cylinder for each member.
Explanation:
B) TWO sets of forcible entry tools and six-foot hooks.
Ladder companies reporting to the Forward Staging Area shall bring with them the following equipment, unless otherwise directed:
Acronym: 2 SUSS
2 sets of forcible entry tools and six-foot hooks.
Search ropes.
Utility ropes.
SCBA for each member.
Spare cylinder for each member.
Engines reporting to the Forward Staging Area shall bring with them the following equipment unless otherwise directed:
A SCBA for each member.
A standpipe kit and a nozzle.
A length of hose per firefighter.
A spare SCBA cylinder for each member.
HROB 6.3.6 E, F
Question 36:
A firehouse discussion regarding proper placement of the aerial ladder at a structural fire devolved into an argument over which incorrect comment?
A: For a severe fire with people on the fire escape above the fire, place the ladder alongside the fire escape with the tip 2” away from the face of the building and about one to three feet above the balcony railing.
B: For a severe fire with people on the fire escape above the fire, whenever possible, place the ladder on the most exposed side of the building.
C: For a severe fire in a large frontage building (over 30’) with no people showing, if no condition exists in front of building requiring a definite position, place the center of the turntable approximately 15’ from the side wall passed on your approach.
D: For a severe fire in a large frontage building (over 30’) with no people showing, if there is a condition requiring possible aerial ladder operations or possible use of the ladder pipe, then position the ladder for maximum coverage.
B
Explanation:
B) For a severe fire with people on the fire escape above the fire, whenever possible, place the ladder on the LEAST exposed side of the building.
Lad 2 3.3.1, 3.3.2, 3.5.1, 3.5.3
Question 3:
The use of a Large Caliber Stream (LCS) is an option in strategic firefighting operations. Of the following choices, which is incorrect?
A: A Large Caliber Stream (LCS) is a fire stream that delivers 300 gpm of water flow or more.
B: Only the Incident Commander may order the use of a LCS, which may be the first arriving officer. This includes the first arriving engine using its apparatus deckpipe.
C: Whenever possible, an engine company supplying a LCS should be dedicated to that task and not engaged in supplying handlines.
D:A LCS should be supplied with the largest available hoselines, which will most commonly be 3 ½” hose. However, the Blitzfire Oscillating Monitor should only be supplied with a 2 ½” hoseline.
Explanation: A
A) A Large Caliber Stream (LCS) is a fire stream that delivers 350 GPM of water flow or more.
Note: Engine companies supplying a LCS may require additional augmentation, especially when in-line pumping is used. This can be accomplished through the use of a 2 ½” single gate attached to a hydrant for the purpose of possible self-augmentation.
Eng Ch 9 1.1, 1.3, 2.1-2.3
A 2nd Alarm has been transmitted for heavy fire in a wood-frame private dwelling that has extended to a similar attached dwelling to the left and multiple stores in a taxpayer on the right. Which exposure designations are CORRECT according to the communications manual?
A: The similar attached building is exposure 2 and the third store in the taxpayer is O4B.
B: The similar attached dwelling is exposure 2 and the first store in the taxpayer is 4-OA.
C:The similar attached dwelling is exposure 2 and the second store in the taxpayer is 4A
D:The similar attached dwelling is exposure 2 and the fourth store in the taxpayer is 4-OC
D planation:
COMMUNICATIONS MANUAL CHAPTER 10 – ADDENDUM 3
D IS CORRECT – COMM SECTION 8 (Illustration #5) – If the Fire building is O, the similar attached dwelling on the left is 2 and the taxpayer to the right is 4. The first store /subdivision is 4-0. The second store is 4-OA, 4-OB, 4-OC, etc…
Question 7:
Which of the following choices is not indicative of positive stack effect in a high rise building during a structural fire?
A: Air and smoke movement inside the building travel upwards via vertical shafts and attempt to exit the building via available openings near the top of the building.
B:At the bottom of a vertical shaft, a negative pressure will be generated, which will have the effect of pulling air into the shaft via available openings near the bottom of the building.
C:A fire on a lower floor will tend to want to vent out of the windows while a fire on an upper floor will tend to draw air into the windows creating conditions similar to a wind impacted fire.
D: Smoke from a lower floor fire will be drawn up vertical shafts within the building and pulled back into floors with greater force as you go higher in the building and further away from the stack effect neutral pressure zone.
C Explanation:
C) A fire on an UPPER FLOOR will tend to want to VENT OUT of the windows while a fire on a LOWER FLOOR will tend to draw air into the windows, creating conditions similar to a wind impacted fire.
TB FD Ch 4 1.7.1
Question 8:
Which of the following represents the CORRECT radio code usage by a company officer?
A: Lt. A transmitted a 10-31 for an uninjured child rescued from a tree.
B: Lt. B transmitted a 10-37-3 for a person suffering from chemical burns.
C: Lt. C transmitted a 10-31 for the evaluation of the stability of a scaffold.
D: Lt. D transmitted a 10-28-3 for a medical emergency in the subway.
Explanation:
COMMUNICATIONS MANUAL – CHAPTER 8 – RADIO COMMUNICATIONS
B IS CORRECT – 1045 is only transmitted for fire related injuries pg 8-14.
A – 10-43 – Any non-fire related rescue – Any person rescued/removed from a dangerous situation.
C – 10-31 shall not be utilized for any incident/emergency involving evaluation of structural stability, an operation involving a rescue or mitigation effort, or any type of hazardous condition.
D – 10-28-3 is transmitted for a non-medical emergency in the subway.
Question 15:
When an inoperative standpipe system is encountered at a high rise fire, alternate procedures must be considered. One of these procedures is called the “exterior hose drop.” Which of the following choices contains incorrect information regarding this procedure?
A: The execution of an exterior hose drop must be approved by the Incident Commander and communicated to all units. The engine officer will communicate with the Incident Commander and the ECC to coordinate the location from which the hoseline will be lowered.
B: On the ground, the ECC will stretch a 2 ½” line to the point at which the lowered line will reach the ground.
C:On the floor below the fire, members of the first due engine will connect their lengths of hose and begin to lower it out the window. If there is a rope available, it can be tied as a safety precaution.
D:After the hose has been lowered, members of the first due engine company must properly secure the hose; this is the most critical point of the evolution. A clove hitch and binder must be tied and secured directly below the first hose coupling that will be located outside the window.
Explanation:
D) After the hose has been lowered, members of the first due engine company must properly secure the hose; this is the most critical point of the evolution. A ROLLING HITCH must be tied and secured directly below the first hose coupling that will be located outside the window.
Note: The rolling hitch must be tied and secured before the line is charged. If a different knot, such as a standard clove hitch, is used, the line will likely kink around the rope and severely limit water flow. The wide surface area of the rolling hitch (4 turns around the rope) will minimize this kinking effect.
Eng Ch 10 2.6.1 - 2.6.5
Question 20:
During certain emergencies, a Tower Ladder may be used as a high point anchor. Which choice below contains incorrect information regarding this procedure?
A:The preferred location for the high point anchor is under the bucket. The landing pads of the bucket serve as an excellent point to be used as a high point anchor.
B:Remove all members from the apparatus, turn the siren to the “on” position and place the apparatus to the “off” position.
C: The metal stokes basket should be utilized at all high point anchor operations.
D: Under no circumstances should a Tower Ladder be used as a crane to “lift” a patient.
Explanation:
A) The preferred location for the high point anchor is under the bucket. Under NO CIRCUMSTANCES shall the landing pads of the bucket be used as a high point anchor.
A Note: Pending the arrival of units from SOC, the bucket should be positioned in a manner that will allow for rigging to be properly secured.
B Note: In the event someone turns the apparatus on, the siren will alert all members on scene.
Question 23:
When an inoperative standpipe system is encountered at a high rise fire, alternate procedures must be considered. One of these procedures is called the “reverse stairway stretch.” Which of the following choices contains incorrect information regarding this procedure?
A: It involves members carrying 2 ½” roll-ups into the building and stretching down the stairway to the apparatus. Members should ensure the female end of the hose is being stretched downwards towards the street.
B: Rather than beginning the stretch on the street level, the stretch begins on the fire floor and additional lengths are added as it continues down the designated stairway. This method will use gravity to facilitate a long and difficult stretch.
C: The execution of a reverse stairway stretch must be approved by the Incident Commander and communicated to all units. The engine officer will communicate with the Incident Commander and the ECC to identify the stairway to be used for the stretch.
D: On the ground, the ECC (assisted by additional engine companies) will begin stretching 2 ½” hose up the designated stairway.
B Explanation:
B) Rather than beginning the stretch on the street level, the stretch begins on the FLOOR BELOW the fire and additional lengths are added as it continues down the designated stairway. This method will use gravity to facilitate a long and difficult stretch.
Note: Although 2.4.7 states “In both scenarios, the key point is that 2 ½” roll-ups are carried to the FIRE AREA and stretched down to the apparatus,” it’s this author’s opinion that Choice B would stand on test day.
Question 33:
Under normal conditions during a radiological emergency, when should you rotate your members out of the hot zone when exposed to radiation?
A: 5 Rem
B: 5 mR
C: 25 Rem
D: 25 mR
A
Question 34:
When operating at a gas leak members have several options for shutting down the gas supply depending on the situation. Which procedure outlined below is incorrect?
A: When possible, prior to shutting a master meter valve notify the utility company and inquire as to possible alternatives.
B: When shutting the head of service valve, regardless if it is located on the interior or the exterior of the building, it will always be located before the building meter(s).
C: Although the FDNY is authorized to shut curb valves, it should only be done as a last resort. Consultation with the utility company is not required.
D: The FDNY is not permitted to shut a main valve.
Explanation:
C. Although the FDNY is authorized to shut curb valves, it should only be done as a last resort AND IN CONSULTATION WITH THE UTILITY COMPANY.
Natural Gas 6.7.3
Question 35:
The multiversal is a tool that may be resorted to when a fixed, large caliber stream is required. All of the following choices contain correct information regarding this tool except?
A: If there is no substantial object readily available in the area, the supply hose itself can be used as a substantial object by looping the supply hose in front of the multiversal and tying the rope to it.
B: The multiversal shall always be supplied by two supply lines. It is dangerous to supply the multiversal with only one line.
C: The maximum allowable pressure supplied to the appliance base is 200 psi.
D: The multiversal should be supplied with the largest size hose available. Generally, this is 3 ½” hose, though it is possible to supply it with 2 ½” hose.
Explanation:
B) The multiversal should be supplied with two supply lines WHENEVER POSSIBLE, though it CAN be operated when supplied with only one line.
A Note: The supply hose should be laid straight back for 15 feet before it is looped in front of the multiversal.
Eng Ch 9 4.4.4, 4.6.2-4.5.4
Question 4:
Which of the following CIDS entries CORRECTLY describes an existing 4-Story Frame Multiple Dwelling that was renovated using lightweight metal C-joist with an added 2-Story, 10x20 setback in the rear?
A: REHAB – 4 STY – 25X80 – CL4LW
B: MJALT – 4 STY – 25X80 – CL2LW
C: REHAB – 4 STY – 25X80 – CL2LW
D: MJALT – 4 STY – 25X80 – CL4LW
D
Explanation:
COMMUNICATIONS MANUAL – CHAPTER 4 – CIDS – NEW MATERIAL
D IS CORRECT – 4.3.1A – FD Designation “MJALT” (MAJOR ALTERATION) should be utilized for existing structures which have extensive alterations that involve HORIZONTAL EXTENSIONS, VERTICAL EXTENSIONS, or extensive changes to the structure changing its occupancy or purpose. Added extension in the rear is the Major Alt. A Wood Frame structure which is constructed, renovated, or repaired using any type of structural Light-Weight materials should be classified as CL4LW.
Question 7:
Which procedure is incorrect when operating an at an aircraft incident?
A: When the landing gear or the tires of the aircraft are on fire, always approach from the sides (inline with the axle) of the wheel assembly
B: The safe distance for members to be of an operating aircraft engine is at least 40 feet
C: When laddering an aircraft wing for rescue, always ladder the leading edge or the front instead of the rear of the wing
D: When trying to determine if hazardous materials are stored on board, you can ask the pilot for the air-bill or cargo manifest
A
Explanation:
AUC 325
A- When the landing gear or the tires of the aircraft are on fire, always approach from the FRONT OR REAR of the wheel assembly….sec 6.5.1
B- Within 40 feet members can be drawn into the engine….sec 6.5.4
C- Moving parts are found at the rear of wings …sec 6.7.3
D- sec 6.7.4
Question 8:
While the specific organization of Engine Company hosebeds may vary among units based on their response area and response patterns, each of the following guidelines must be adhered to except?
A: At least one bed must contain 6 lead lengths of 1 ¾” hose.
B: At least one bed must contain only 2 ½” hose.
C: At least one bed must contain only 3 ½” hose.
D: The lead length of all hosebeds with either 1 ¾” hose or 2 ½” hose must be maintained with a straight-stream nozzle, or fog nozzle rotated to the right, attached.
D
Explanation:
D) The lead length of all hosebeds with either 1 ¾” hose or 2 ½” hose must be maintained with a STRAIGHT-STREAM nozzle attached.
D Note: These hosebeds are intended for fire attack.
Eng Ch 2 8.2, 8.3
Question 12:
Ladder Company 171 was assigned to a Class E Alarm in a 15-Story hotel. Upon arrival, they discovered the alarm is for a CO detector in room 707 on the 7th floor. Which action taken by the company was CORRECT?
A: All members of the ladder company accompanied the officer into the building lobby.
B: The officer made contact with building personnel in the lobby and directed them to attempt to reset the alarm system.
C: An additional member remained in the lobby while the officer and remaining members boarded an elevator to further investigate the CO alarm activation.
D: The officer transmitted a 10-38 code 3 after getting readings of 10 ppm on the CO meter.
D
Explanation:
COMMUNICATIONS MANUAL – CHAPTER 6 ADDENDUM 2 – NEW MATERIAL – CO DET
D IS CORRECT – Detector activation: CO Emergency – reading of greater than 9ppm – 10-38 code 3.
A – All members except the chauffeur 3.2
B – If the alarm is determined to be a CO detector activation, the officer shall notify the dispatcher, then investigate the area of activation REGARDLESS of alarm status. 3.4 note
C – Activation was on the 7th floor. Elevators are only used when above 7th floor. 3.6 & Elevators Section 6
Question 22:
Which Engine is responsible for Site Access Control during a hazardous material incident?
A: 1st arriving Engine
B: 2nd arriving Engine
C: 3rd arriving Engine
D: Engine companies aren’t responsible to control Site Access; Only Ladder Companies are tasked with controlling Site Access
B
Explanation:
ERP sec 12.2
1st Engine- Water
2nd Engine- Site Access Control
3rd Engine- CFR duties
Question 24:
Pressing the EAB on either the HT base or the remote mic causes all of the following to occur. Which choice is INCORRECT?
A: A “Beacon Tone” is sounded on the HT with the EAB activation.
B: Within range, the company, position, and name of the member who pressed the EAB displays in the EFAS.
C: HT transmission power on the tactical channel is increased from 2 to 5 watts, providing more power for the message to get through.
D: An “Emergency Alert Tone” is sounded on all HT’s within range (other than the HT with EAB activation) on all frequencies.
Explanation:
COMMUNICATIONS MANUAL – CHAPTER 9 ADDENDUM 3 – EFAS
D IS INCORRECT – Emergency Alert Tone is sounded on all HT’s within range (other than the HT with EAB activation) On the same frequency. 2.2
A - 2.2
B – 2.2
C – 2.2
Question 27:
A number 3 in the yellow section of the NFPA 704 Diamond can be correctly depicted in which choice?
A: Shock and Heat May Detonate
B: Stable
C: Unstable if Heated
D: May Detonate
Explanation:
Yellow Section= Reactivity Hazard
4- May Detonate
3- Shock and Heat May Detonate
2- Violent Chemical Change
1- Unstable if Heated
0- Stable
ERP p-39
2005 Lts Exam …Separator question for sure
Question 37:
Members should be aware that the actual length of the life-saving-rope may be less than the nominal length of 150 feet due to natural shrinkage after several years in the field. Over a period of time some ropes have shrunk ______ feet. A hockle reduces the strength of a rope by _____percent.
A: 8 to 10; 30 to 40
B: 8 to 10; 40 to 50
C: 10 to 12; 30 to 40
D: 10 to 12; 40 to 50
B
Explanation:
LSR OOS: “Deputy Tony Hit A Home Run Far Away”
Doubt; Two-People (weight); Heat; Acid or Acid Fumes; Hockle; Rust (Persistent); Frozen; Abrasions
TB Rope 1 1.6; 4.14
Question 1:
When arriving to a fire in a Con-Ed electric substation, which tactic/procedure is incorrect?
A: Units shall report to the designated muster site
B: Have a member retrieve information about the substation from the Lockbox located just outside the substation
C: If a Con-Ed representative (White hat) is not on scene then call the posted number and request one to respond
D: If a sprinkler siamese is present, stretch a 3 1/2” supply line to the siamese. Only charge the supply line if requested by Con-Ed white hat
Explanation: B
Have a Con-Ed white hat retrieve information from the Lockbox located INSIDE the substation. The Lockbox contains info that can be useful to the IC including PCB info, overhead photo, a site diagram and list of the hazards present at the substation
AUC 338 add 2 sec 4 and 5
Question 2:
When both the engine and ladder companies arrive together at a high rise fireproof multiple dwelling where no outside operations are indicated, and only one Fire Service-equipped elevator is available, which choice below most correctly reflects who should go up in the elevator first?
A: The ladder officer with the forcible entry team, OV and the engine officer with the control FF, with all rolled up lengths and standpipe kit.
B: The ladder officer with the forcible entry team and the engine officer with two firefighters (nozzle & control) with all rolled up lengths and standpipe kit.
C: The ladder officer with the forcible entry team, OV and the engine officer with the backup FF, with all rolled up lengths and standpipe kit.
D: The ladder officer with the forcible entry team, OV and the engine officer with all rolled up lengths and standpipe kit.
Explanation:
A
Note: The Engine Officer may also choose to leave out the Control FF and take the Nozzle FF instead.
The ladder officer with the forcible entry team and the engine officer with two firefighters (nozzle & control) with all rolled up lengths and standpipe kit shall go up first in a non Fire Service-equipped elevator. If the elevator has Fire Service, and no outside operations are indicated, the OV will be operating the elevator. This will necessitate reducing the elevator load by one of the engine firefighters.
MD Ch 2 5.6
Question 3:
Units are just taking up from a box where they encountered elevators in Sabbath mode. The Lieutenant gathers the members to discuss some of the features of these elevators, but he was incorrect in which point mentioned below?
A: Sabbath elevators are designed for religious services and operate automatically without the need to push any buttons.
B: Sabbath elevators shall not be used by firefighters.
C: When in Sabbath mode, these elevators typically stop at every floor or every other floor automatically.
D: Most often a sign will be present indicating this type of elevator.
Explanation:
B. Sabbath elevators shall not be used by firefighters IF THE FIREFIGHTER SERVICE FEATURE IS MISSING OR NOT OPERATIONAL.
NOTE: These elevators are required to be operable in fire service mode in accordance with building and fire code requirements.
Units shall verify the firefighter service feature is operational before electing to utilize any Sabbath elevator.
UPDATED JULY 2021
TB Emergencies 1 6.4.7
Question 4:
You are a new Lt. working your first day tour in Engine 327 and you are having difficulty with the apparatus mobile radio handset. Which of the following choices regarding problems with the handset is CORRECT?
A: In the event the first call is not acknowledged within 20 seconds, press the handset button and repeat the call. Do not make more than three attempts to contact the dispatcher.
B: If the third call is not acknowledged, assume the radio is inoperative and attempt to contact the citywide dispatcher via another mobile unit.
C: If no radio response is received after three attempts, switch to another frequency and advise the dispatcher of the difficulty being encountered on that frequency.
D: If the member is unable to communicate with the citywide dispatcher by radio, contact the borough or citywide dispatcher via telephone.
Explanation:
COMMUNICATIONS MANUAL – CHAPTER 8 – RADIO COMMUNICATIONS
D IS CORRECT – 8.4.3
A – In the event the first call is not acknowledged within 30 SECONDS, press the handset and repeat the call. 8.4.3
B – If the 3rd call is not acknowledged, assume the radio is inoperative and attempt to transmit your message from another mobile unit. 8.4.3
C – If no radio response is received after three attempts from another mobile unit, the member operating the radio shall switch to the citywide frequency and advise the citywide dispatcher of the difficulty being encountered on that borough frequency. 8.4.3
Question 5:
When accessing the Language Interpretive Services via phone, you must provide the Language Line representative with the personal code of the unit you are working in. The personal code for E-231 can be found in which choice?
A: FDNY units all have the same personal code…..9999
B: 9231
C: 7231
D: 5231
Explanation:
5 are for Engines…Ex 5231, 5001, 5063
7 are for Ladders….Ex 7120, 7136, 7024
Also, the FDNY Operations Client ID# is 502991
AUC 343 sec 4.2
Question 7:
If a gas leak is serious enough to consider shutting down the following valves, consider treating the incident as a major gas emergency. Which one is incorrect?
A: Master meter valve
B: Interior gas riser valve
C: Head of service valve
D: Service valve
B **Just be aware the “service valve” is AKA the “curb valve”**
Question 12:
Which of the following situations does NOT require an emergency roll call?
A: An Urgent Message from the 1st Due Engine Chauffeur following the Loss of Water supplying the 1st & 2nd lines at an MD fire.
B: An Urgent Message from the Roof Firefighter indicating a Danger of Collapse in the rear of a taxpayer.
C: An Urgent Message from the IC to units to discontinue an interior attack and institute an exterior attack at heavy fire in a row of frames.
D: A Mayday Message from the Ladder Company Officer indicating a partial collapse of the floor in a 2-sty commercial.
Explanation:
**COMMUNICATIONS MANUAL – CHAPTER 9 & 9 – ADDENDUM 2 – EMERGENCY ROLL CALL PROCEDURES**
B IS INCORRECT – An Urgent message for Collapse Feared does not require a roll call to follow. Danger of Collapse is the terminology used under the description
A, C, D – Ch 9 Add 2- 2.1 1st Bullet – Roll Call is necessary when – Mayday transmission for Collapse Imminent/Collapse Occurred, Urgent transmission for Interior attack discontinued and exterior attack instituted, or Loss of Water endangering members.
Question 16:
Which of the following is INCORRECT regarding the transmission of the 1045 signal?
A: Once transmitted, the 1045 signal shall never be cancelled.
B: Signal 10-45 code 3 and 4 do not require the submission of a BF 19 form.
C: Signal 10-37 with any code shall not be used at any fire operation.
D: Signal 10-45 shall not be used to indicate a fatality or injury to an on-duty member.
Explanation:
COMMUNICATIONS MANUAL – CHAPTER 8 – RADIO COMMUNICATIONS
A IS INCORRECT – Other than to address any patient discrepancies, the 10-45 shall not be cancelled once it is transmitted. 10-45 pg 8-14…
A
Question 33:
Of the following choices, which aerial ladder unit tactic would be considered incorrect?
A: In order to facilitate an efficient, coordinated operation, the officer of the first ladder company should strive to enter the block after the first engine company, and from the same direction.
B :If the second ladder company to arrive is moving into the fire block opposite the first engine company, that ladder company should be given preference to accessing the front of the building prior to the engine taking a hydrant.
C: When approaching a box location and there is no visible indication of fire on the avenue of approach, the chauffeur should slow down one intersection short of the box location and enter the intersection at a slow rate of speed.
D: At vacant building fires, officers of aerial ladders shall consider the need for access and positioning of tower ladders; however, precedence may be give to the positioning of aerial apparatus if the building is not completely vacant, there is information/prior knowledge of vagrants/squatters or the reach of the 100’ aerial is required.
Explanation:
B) If the second ladder company to arrive is moving into the fire block opposite the first engine company, the ladder company officer must VERIFY THAT THE ENGINE HAS A HYDRANT before moving too close.
B Note: The officer and non-committed members (excludes chauffeur or tiller firefighter) may approach the fire building on foot.
A Note: This is particularly important where street width or parked cars would prevent the engine from passing the ladder apparatus to reach the desired hydrant.
C Note: This will allow the members to look in the side streets for the fire or emergency.
Lad 2 6.3, 6.3.1 D, E, 6.6.1, 7.2.1
Question 34:
The incorrect procedure when operating at a Compressed Natural Gas (CNG) vehicle fire can be found in which choice?
A: Extinguish the fire by stopping the flow of gas. If the flow of Gas cannot be stopped, do not extinguish the fire-let it burn
B: If there are other CNG cylinders exposed to the cylinder that is on fire, apply water to the exposed cylinders in order to keep them cool
C: Establish a minimum safe perimeter of 100 ft around the vehicle
D: If the CNG cylinders are not involved in the fire, proceed with normal extinguishment procedures
B
Explanation:
DO NOT apply water to CNG cylinders exposed to fire because this may cool the pressure relief device (PRD) resulting in it not activating. This can result in a catastrophic cylinder failure (high pressure gas rupture).
Haz-Mat 1 sec 4…..This section is updated as of 4/19/2022.
Question 38:
While training a new member on properly positioning and operating a tower ladder on a hill, one member made an incorrect comment. Indicate the incorrect statement.
A: Position the apparatus parallel to the direction of the slope so that boom operations will be in the “up-hill” direction.
B: If possible, the apparatus should be facing “down-hill.”
C: If facing downhill, place the turntable before the objective; if facing uphill, place the turntable past the objective.
D: Verifying that all green lights are illuminated on the Outrigger Control Panel will confirm activation of the hydraulic system, indicating bucket function on newer Tower Ladder apparatus.
C Explanation:
C) If facing downhill, place the turntable PAST the objective; if facing uphill, place the turntable BEFORE the objective.
D Note: On older Tower Ladder models without green lights on the Outrigger Control Panel, the apparatus should be made as level as possible to allow boom operation.
Notes: Once positioned, set the parking brake and chock wheels to ensure the apparatus does not move. Lower the jacks and outriggers and confirm all wheels remain on the ground to help prevent skipping.
TL Ch 2 2.4
Question 40:
Operating in a high rise office building fire, if difficulty is encountered in clearing the attack stairway of occupants, the officer of the third arriving ladder company shall advise who to withhold the attack until the occupants have been safely removed?
A: The first arriving ladder company or the Fire Sector Supervisor/Branch Director, if established.
B: The first arriving engine company or the Fire Sector Supervisor/Branch Director, if established.
C: The second arriving ladder company or the first arriving engine company.
D: The first arriving ladder company or the first arriving engine company.
A
Question 8:
When operating at the scene of a major gas emergency, which of the following tactics is incorrect?
A: The size of the potential blast zone will be determined by the Incident Commander and identified by yellow, “DANGER DO NOT ENTER” TAPE.
B: Apparatus should not be located within the potential blast zone; however, do not enter a potential blast zone to move apparatus.
C: Other agencies should be prevented from entering the potential blast zone unless they are involved in direct, life-saving procedures; this includes utility company personnel.
D: At major gas emergencies, the potential blast zone shall be considered an exclusion zone for all personnel and shall only be entered for direct, life-saving purposes.
Explanation:
A. The size of the potential blast zone will be determined by the Incident Commander and identified by RED, “DANGER DO NOT ENTER” TAPE.
CROSS REF AUC 360: “DANGER DO NOT ENTER” TAPE CAN ONLY BE PASSED BY MEMBERS FOR “SIL”
SECTOR CHIEF APPROVAL
IC APPROVAL
LIFE
Natural Gas 9.0
Question 9:
All members assigned to a Tower Ladder should be proficient in “bucket” operations. Of the following choices, which contains incorrect information?
A: Whenever a Tower Ladder operation is in progress, the pedestal position should be staffed. This provides an extra pair of eyes to warn of impending danger and override bucket controls in an emergency.
B: Each member operating in a Tower Ladder bucket must personally verify the placement of both door latches.
C: Each member operating in a Tower Ladder bucket must ensure proper use of the installed safety belt or life belt/personal harness secured to a substantial part of the bucket (one of the bucket posts or the waterway) prior to raising the boom from the bedded position.
D: Prior to gaining entry by way of the bucket, members should clear the entire window. Setting the end of a 6’ hook firmly into the center of a window, and/or placing the bucket cord light into the window to be entered, may offer a reference point in the event a hasty retreat is required.
Explanation:
D) Prior to gaining entry by way of the bucket, members should clear the entire window. Setting the end of a 6’ hook firmly into the CORNER of a WINDOW SILL, and/or placing the bucket cord light into the window to be entered, may offer a reference point in the event a hasty retreat is required.
Note: When there is a need to search an adjoining area or room, it is sound practice to exit the IDLH and reposition the bucket to an appropriate window.
TL Ch 3 3
Question 19:
The members of Ladder Company 177 were discussing monitoring EFAS following the morning Roll Call and the following statements were made. Which one was CORRECT as stated?
A: It shall be the responsibility of the first arriving Battalion firefighter, prior to performing their primary duties to monitor EFAS until relieved by an EFAS trained member of the FAST Unit.
B: Upon arrival of the FAST Unit, an EFAS trained member will report to the Battalion vehicle being used to monitor EFAS. A second member will monitor the Battalion’s FAST Unit HT.
C: When the Division is on scene, it shall be the responsibility of the Division Back-up firefighter to report to the Battalion vehicle being used to monitor EFAS and relieve the EFAS firefighter and monitor the EFAS.
D: If the Division arrives on scene before the FAST Unit, it shall be the responsibility of the Division Back up firefighter to relieve the Battalion firefighter and perform EFAS duties.
D
Explanation:
COMMUNICATIONS MANUAL CHAPTER 9 ADDENDUM 3 – EFAS
D IS CORRECT – 2.3
A – AFTER performing their primary duties. 2.1
B – The EFAS trained member will monitor the EFAS in the Battalion vehicle and the Battalion’s FAST Unit HT. A second member is not assigned this duty. 2.2
C – The Division firefighter does not relieve the EFAS trained firefighter, they ASSIST…
Question 28:
Which of the following choices is CORRECT regarding Emergency Roll Calls?
A: The Bureau of Operations mandates training roll calls to be conducted semi-annually. Incident Commanders are encouraged to conduct training emergency roll calls whenever they feel it is warranted.
B: Training roll calls will be conducted during actual fire operations to keep members well versed in emergency roll call procedures.
C: Chief officers should use this time to have company officers conduct the training roll calls as a way to prepare for an actual occurrence.
D: Rescue, Squad, and Ladder Company members shall answer the roll call as per ladder company position assignments.
C
Explanation:
COMMUNICATIONS MANUAL – CHAPTER 9 – ADDENDUM 2 – EMERGENCY ROLL CALL PROCEDURES
C IS CORRECT – 1.3
A – Training Roll Calls are conducted quarterly 1.3
B – Upon the completion of operations (not during fire operations) 1.3
D – Rescue company members shall answer the roll call as per ladder company position assignments. Squad companies answer according to Engine company position assignments. 1.5
Question 29:
Ventilation of low rise fireproof multiple dwellings (LRFPMDs) must be carefully coordinated. Which of the following choices is not in accordance with Department guidelines?
A: Emphasis will generally be placed on venting the attack stair bulkhead after the fire has been controlled.
B: When ordered, venting of the attack stairway in LRFPMDs will be accomplished by the 1st and 2nd arriving Roof firefighter positions.
C: The officer of the first ladder company will initiate and control ventilation of the fire apartment.
D: Particularly on windy days, the opening of the attack stairway bulkhead should be delayed until a proper size-up can be made.
A
Explanation:
A) Emphasis will generally be placed on venting the attack stair bulkhead AFTER APPROVAL OF THE IC, EARLY IN THE OPERATION.
Don’t confuse this with vertical ventilation at fires in HRFPMDs.
MD Ch 3 1.4
Question 30:
When the Drager PAC 6500 C.O. meter exceeds 2000 PPM, the C.O. meter will display what LCD reading on the screen?
A:”OL”
B:”rrr”
C: The actual reading ex: “2005 PPM”
D: “XXX”
RRR
Explanation:
Haz-Mat 4 add 2 sec2.7.Note
New Bulletin as of January 2021
Question 37:
While exiting the building from an EMS run in apartment 10D an occupant from apartment 5A came up to you and complained her smoke detector hasn’t worked in months. At this point, the only correct action for you to take can be found in which choice?
A: Notify dispatcher to create a ticket and have the company take a walk up to the occupant’s apartment to take a look at the smoke detector. Then transmit a 10-38-1 for a defective smoke detector
B: Take the necessary information from the occupant and notify the Bureau of Fire Prevention’s Field Public Operations Support Unit (FPOSU)
C: Notify the Dispatcher to have the Battalion respond
D: Inform the occupant of 5A to call 311
AUC ch 2 add 5 sec 8 D
