BRONX 2022 Flashcards
Question 6:
You’re an engine company officer responding first due to a reported fire in the cellar of an old law tenement. CIDS information indicates that there are window bars on the first floor, a wide well-hole, and a BILCO door in the front which gives access to the cellar. On arrival, you give a 10-75 for a confirmed fire in the cellar. Which of the following points regarding hoseline placement at this fire is most correct?
A: You ordered the first line stretched to the cellar entrance door located inside the building, under the interior stairway on the first floor.
B: At this operation, the first line should be advanced down the interior stairs to the cellar.
C: First line should use the exterior entrance if it provides the quickest access to the cellar to extinguish the fire.
D: Second line should use the exterior entrance if it provides the quickest access to the cellar to extinguish the fire.
c Explanation:
***Updated material. OLT hoseline placement at a cellar fire.
MDs Ch 1 sec 3.2.2 C
Question 7:
On the new Motorola APX8000XE handie-talkie radio, whenever a member who has transmitted an Emergency Alert depresses the PTT button, members receiving such a transmission will observe the Emergency call appearing on their radio’s main display with the Unit and Position and a band of what color?
A: Yellow
B: Orange
C: Red
D: Green
B
Question 10:
When using two Engine pumpers for Emergency Mass Decontamination, you would be correct to employ all of the tactics below except?
A: Position the two pumpers parallel to each other, approximately 100 feet apart.
B: The control panels of the pumpers should be facing the outside.
C: Place an Aquastream fog nozzle on each pumper on a selected inside discharge gate. Operate the nozzles in the fog position.
D: Utilize the recommended operating pressure of 50 to 80 psi.
A
Explanation:
Position the two pumpers parallel to each other, approximately 25 feet apart.
HM 7 2.4.4
Question 12:
Units are designated by the following letter suffix when assigned a specific task at an incident. Which suffix is correct for a High Rise nozzle unit?
A: E259P
B: E259H
C: E259N
D: E259R
C
Comm ch 2 pg 18
Question 17:
Company officers play a vital role in the proper administration of the units under their command. Which of the following regulations is not in accordance with Department procedures?
A: Captains, when detailed to companies, assume the duties and responsibilities of the company commander.
B: Changes involving company policy or administrative routine shall not be made by the detailed captain unless approved by the assigned company commander or ordered by the division commander.
C: During an extended leave of absence of the assigned company commander, the senior lieutenant in rank, assigned to the unit, shall assume the duties and responsibilities of the company commander; provided that, no other captain is detailed to the unit.
D: Company officers shall immediately notify battalion chiefs of all injuries occurring in quarters.
B
Explanation:
B. unless approved by the assigned company commander or ordered by the BATTALION commander
Regulations Ch 10: 10.1.7, 10.2.2, 10.3.3
Question 18:
If a biological release occurs indoors, evacuate the immediate area and seal off the area by closing doors and windows and using plastic to cover any openings. Avoid entry to the site for a minimum time of?
A: 5 to 10 minutes.
B: 30 minutes to 1 hour.
C:15 to 20 minutes.
D: 1 to 2 hours.
B
Explanation:
This will allow the biological agent to settle to reduce exposure of the inhalation hazard.
ERP Add 1 Ch 1 5.2.3
Question 21:
Two ECCs assigned to a busy Brooklyn Engine Company were discussing in-line pumping tactics. Which choice below is incorrect?
A: If intake pressure drops below 15 psi, the ECC must have their water supply augmented.
B: In-line pumping is exclusive to a situation with a hydrant before the fire building.
C: The term in-line pumping refers to any situation in which 3 ½” hose is used to connect to a hydrant.
D: It is important to specifically identify in-line pumping because the smaller size of the 3 ½” supply hose may limit the available water supply.
B Explanation:
In-line pumping is NOT exclusive to a situation with a hydrant before the fire building and can be used regardless of the position of the hydrant or apparatus. In-line pumping can be used if the hydrant and apparatus are positioned past the fire building as well.
Eng Ops ch 5 sec 2.7
Question 22:
Proper knowledge of the advantages and disadvantages of aluminum portable ladders is key to operating safely at a fire or emergency. You’re a company officer conducting a drill with your members, and you make the following points regarding the advantages of aluminum portable ladders. You were incorrect in which remark below?
A: Aluminum ladders do not require any protective finish.
B: Aluminum will not weaken with age. It has a long life expectancy.
C: Aluminum ladders will not fail suddenly do to overloads.
D: If an aluminum ladder has been subjected to excessive heat exposure at a fire it may have lost its heat treatment, however this will not affect its load carrying capacity.
D
Explanation:
D. THIS MAY AFFECT ITS LOAD CARRYING CAPACITY, EVEN IF THE METAL SHOWS NO SIGNS OF ANY CHANGE.
Portable Ladders Section 3 & 4
Question 35:
The most correct signal to give for smoke seeping from a manhole can be found in which choice?
A: 10-25
B: 10-25-1
C: 10-25-2
D:10-25-3
E: 10-25-4
D
Explanation:
10-25 (without code) Situation other than code 1,2,3,4
10-25-1- Fire has extended from a manhole, conduit, or transformer into a building
10-25-2- Fire has blown one or more manhole covers, or smoke is issuing from a manhole under pressure
10-25-3- Smoke is seeping from a manhole
10-25-4- Fire or smoke condition from a transformer at any location
Comm Ch 8
Question 37:
For fires in “traditional” private dwellings built of ordinary/wood frame construction, early collapse is not a primary consideration. At these types of buildings, depending on the duration and intensity of the fire, the size of the structural components, and the type of construction involved, the amount of time before collapse occurs is generally estimated to be ___. However, when there is no ceiling to provide protection, therefore exposing structural components, failure can occur within ___.
A: 20 minutes; 5 to 10 minutes
B: 60 minutes; 20 minutes
C: 60 minutes; 5 to 10 minutes
D: 30 minutes; 15 minutes
B
PD Chapter 6 Section 1.6
Question 1:
The incident of brush fires is usually greatest during which time of year?
A: Summer season
B: Spring and Summer seasons
C: Summer and Fall seasons
D: Spring and Fall seasons
Explanation:
In anticipation of this problem, Brush Fire Units (BFUs) assigned to Staten island Borough Command are staffed independently on 9X6 tours, from March 17th through April 30th and October 17th through November 30th
AUC 151 sec 3.1DDD
Question 5:
There are a lot of items used for Logistic support found at the emergency exits nearest the under-river tubes. Which item listed below is NOT specifically found at or near this location?
A: Emergency Evacuation Devices.
B: Blue Light
C: Standpipe Section Valves
D: Standpipe Siameses
Explanation:
UNDER RIVER RAIL OPERATIONS
A – Correct – EED’s are located at the base of emergency exit stairs nearest the under-river tubes. 9A-9C 2.7.2
B – Incorrect – Not listed - Blue Lights are found near the emergency power removal boxes, approximately 600 feet apart 2.9.4
C – Correct – Standpipe section valves are often found at the base of emergency exits & every 600 feet in the tube. 2.7.1 figure 8A
D – Correct – Siameses are usually located at the emergency exits closest to the river. 2.7.1.
Question 6:
The only correct procedure when using the Vehicle Recovery Strap can be found in which choice?
A: The Vehicle Recovery Strap is only to be used on Department and Civilian vehicles when stuck in deep snow
B: The Vehicle Recovery Strap can be used to remove Engine or Ladder apparatus when stuck in deep snow
C: If the stuck vehicle is an ambulance with a patient, recovery may be attempted as long as the patient is not Critical
D: The Vehicle Recovery Strap shall never be attached to the front or rear bumper
D
Explanation:
Training Bulletins Apparatus C-2 add 3
A- Department vehicles…sec 1.1
B- Shall not exceed 20,000 lbs….Battalion vehicles and ambulances are under 20,000 lbs …Engine and Ladder exceed this amount…..sec 2.2 and 2.3
C- Patient shall be offloaded to a secondary ambulance prior to vehicle recovery use..sec 5.5.note
D- 3.1
Question 28:
Which of the following statements provides correct information pertaining to the description of Queen Anne private dwellings?
A: Braced frame construction is most common and early attempts at built-in fire stopping are negated by poor workmanship, open holes for house service lines etc.
B: Large open stairs in the living room connect the 1st, 2nd and 3rd floors.
C: A narrow rear or side stair may lead directly to the 3rd floor from the 1st floor.
D: The fire escape will be attached to a non-combustible wall. Careful consideration should be given to its use due to age, or if that wall is exposed to or involved in fire.
C
Explanation:
A. BALLOON frame construction is most common…
B. …1st and 2nd floors.
D. The fire escape will be attached to a COMBUSTIBLE wall…
PD Chapter 1 3.3
Question 34:
You are an S/A Officer assigned to work in a Communications Engine for the night tour. The previous officer left you a note with several points to be aware of during your tour. Which one listed below is CORRECT?
A: To operate as a Communications Unit, the company shall be staffed with a minimum of three trained members. Trained officers do not count towards this total.
B: A trained officer is not required for the unit to be in service.
C: At large, complex operations extending over many operational periods, the Communications Unit will be part of the Operations Section.
D: If a Communications Leader is not assigned, the officer of the Communications unit will be designated the Communications Leader pending their arrival.
B
Explanation:
ICS CHAPTER 2 – ADDENDUM 3
A – Incorrect – Trained Officers count towards this total 2.2
B – Correct – A trained officer is not required 2.2
C – Incorrect - Logistics Section 2.3
D – Incorrect – Will not be designated Communications Leader 3.2
MM
Question 37:
The proper loading of hose in a traditional hosebed arrangement will allow the hose to play out smoothly when stretched. When properly loaded, __ folds of hose in the hosebed is roughly one 50’ length of hose.
A: 5
B: 2
C: 3
D: 4
D
Question 13:
Choose the incorrect description of a Brownstone building.
A: Brownstone buildings are 20-25 wide and their depth varies to about 60 feet
B: The first floor (basement) was composed of a kitchen in the rear with a dining room in the front, and an interior stairway to the second floor (parlor) and cellar. There is also a large closet. This floor has only one means of egress to the outside
C: The third and fourth floors contained two bedrooms each with hall rooms in the front and the rear, off the stairway
D: Interior wooden stairs connect the cellar and first floor (basement), and first floor (basement) and second floor (parlor). An open interior stair connects the second floor (parlor) and upper floors. An iron ladder gives access from the top floor to the roof through a scuttle
B
Explanation:
This is the only floor with TWO means of egress to the outside
Brownstones sec 2
Question 23:
Size-up begins with the receipt of the alarm and continues until the fire is under control. The following are factors that can be included in the size-up for engine and ladder companies operating at private dwellings. Which one is correct?
A: Inside ladder company operations are predicated on whether the roof is flat or peaked. This information must be transmitted with the signal 10-75, if this can be determined upon arrival.
B: Balloon frame construction lacks fire stopping between the floors on interior walls, allowing for rapid fire extension.
C: The lack of windows on the side of a PD combined with a secondary entrance on that side of the house with a stoop is indicative of a possible second floor apartment with the only entrance to the second floor from that side of the house.
D: Possible indications of attic occupancy may be: attic area with a dormer, adequate height (approximately six feet in the attic), air conditioner at attic level, and/or windows of fair size and normal appearance with curtains and drapes.
C Explanation:
A. OUTSIDE ladder company operations…
B. …on EXTERIOR WALLS…
D. …(approximately SEVEN FEET in the attic)…
PD Chapter 2: 2.4; 2.6; 2.7
Question 29:
At 10 AM, While on an EMS response in an occupied high rise MD, Engine 98 members notice the building’s standpipe system is out of service. There was no notification made to the FDNY, and the shutdown was not scheduled. Which of the following is an inappropriate action taken by Engine 98?
A: The officer of Engine 98 shall request a Battalion Chief to respond, due to the large life hazard.
B: Upon notification, the administrative officer immediately investigated. This investigation may be accomplished via telephone.
C: The officer of Engine 98 obtained full particulars and she made a company journal entry.
D: Due to the fact that the building is not in Engine 98’s administrative area, the officer did not complete the A-500 form and she immediately telephoned the officer of the administrative company.
B xplanation:
AUC 5, CH 2, ADD 4
A-4.2, Request BC if officer feels it is necessary, BUT: occupancies that have large life hazard, large property value, or if sprinkler head replacement is considered (for sprinklers), officer shall request a BC to respond.
B-4.1- immediately investigate with members and apparatus. Take note, the word IMMEDIATELY appears a number of times in this bulletin.
C-3.6
D-3.6.1, NOTE: immediately telephone administrative company, & 4.10.2 (this is for residential) admin unit forward the A-500 if system is going to be out of service for more than 1 business day
Question 36:
Care must be taken to differentiate between gas curb valves/service valves and gas main valves. Which of the following points below is correct concerning these types of valves?
A: On the National Grid “Long Service” system, the curb valve/service valve is sometimes located across the street from the building it supplies, and it may be found in the street.
B: Con Edison main valve covers are identified by an ID number stamped on the North side of the collar, underneath the cover; however, these numbers may be difficult to see.
C: Main valves are usually found on the sidewalk side of the curb and these valves shut the gas supply to the entire building.
D: An “NSV” stamped on a tag near the service meter indicates there is no service valve.
Explanation:
B. NATIONAL GRID main valve covers…
C. CURB VALVE/SERVICE VALVES are usually found…
D. A “NC” stamped on a tag near the service meter indicates there is NO CURB VALVE OR SERVICE VALVE
NOTE: Con Edison main valves have ID numbers on tags inside the valve cover.
Natural Gas 4.3; 4.4 A A A
Question 21:
In rare instances there may be a situation where the first hoseline was advanced through the main entrance of a private dwelling, and units are unable to locate an interior cellar entrance, and there is no other hoseline available on scene to attempt entry via the secondary entrance. If the decision is made to reposition the first hoseline to a secondary entrance which of the following tactics is correct?
A: Only a Chief officer can make this decision.
B: The IC shall transmit an URGENT message utilizing the emergency alert button to broadcast this to all members and ensure acknowledgment is received from all units/members on scene.
C: Ladder company members operating on the first floor must be withdrawn before the first hoseline is repositioned from that floor.
D: Members operating on the upper floors must be withdrawn to a safe area.
C Explanation:
A. The ACTING CHIEF OFFICER/CHIEF OFFICER SERVING AS THE IC can make this decision.
B. …ensure acknowledgement is received from all units/members OPERATING IN THE INTERIOR.
D….must be withdrawn to a safe area IF NO PORTABLE LADDERS ARE PRESENT AND READILY AVAILABLE.
Question 27:
The incorrect procedure, when resorting to outside streams, can be found in which choice?
A: The use of outside streams into a building can cause injuries to members operating inside the building. Except in extreme lifesaving instances, outside streams may be used without warning members and ensuring members are in a safe location
B: Outside streams should be used in one position only as long as necessary to extinguish visible fire
C: Only the IC may order the use of outside streams. This may be the first arriving officer
D: Some of the situations which may call for the use of outside streams include: protect life by putting a stream between the fire and the occupants, to protect exposures, to confine the fire, and to diminish heavy fire so that an interior attack can be made
A
Explanation:
The use of outside streams into a building can cause injuries to members operating inside the building. Except in extreme lifesaving instances, members inside the building must be warned, and moved to safe location BEFORE outside streams are directed into the building. This safe location must be verified by radio or personal contact, by the IC
Multiple Dwellings p-13
Question 30:
The pump pressure gauge will read when the apparatus is at its lowest RPMs. With the engine set for volume, and the hydrant producing 50 psi, the pump pressure gauge will read which correct psi?
A: 105 psi
B: 160 psi
C: 110 psi
D: 50 psi
A Explanation:
Pump idle pressure when in volume mode is 55 psi…55 psi + 50 psi for the hydrant = 105 psi
Pump idle pressure when in pressure mode is 110 psi + 50 psi for the hydrant = 160 psi when in pump idle pressure
On a recent exam
Training Bulletins app P3 sec 1.2
Question 30:
The pump pressure gauge will read when the apparatus is at its lowest RPMs. With the engine set for volume, and the hydrant producing 50 psi, the pump pressure gauge will read which correct psi?
A:105 psi
B: 160 psi
C:110 psi
D: 50 psi
A Explanation:
Pump idle pressure when in volume mode is 55 psi…55 psi + 50 psi for the hydrant = 105 psi
Pump idle pressure when in pressure mode is 110 psi + 50 psi for the hydrant = 160 psi when in pump idle pressure
On a recent exam
Training Bulletins app P3 sec 1.2
Question 38:
E287 has their ANNUAL HOSE TEST. They correctly set the test pressure to ___ psi and maintain it for 5 minutes.
A:300
B:250
C: 200
D: 150
A
Eng Ops Ch 3 add 3 sec 5.4.11
Question 10:
Which of the following choices is not in accordance with Fire Department policy when asbestos is suspected at a fire operation?
A: Strictly enforce the Department’s SCBA policy to reduce inhalation exposure. This is critical to the health and safety of members operating in the contaminated area.
B: Gently wet down suspected asbestos material using a fog or spray stream. This will minimize the amount of fibers that become airborne.
C: Do not, under any circumstances, overhaul in the suspected area of contamination.
D: Isolate members suspected of being contaminated to prevent cross-contamination of apparatus or other members. SCBA must be used until decon procedures are initiated or the member has been washed down.
Explanation:
LIMIT overhaul in the suspected area.
HM 3 4.4-4.7 C
Question 12:
Operations involving the removal of victims via the aerial ladder are dangerous for both the victim and the rescuer. Which of the following choices is incorrect regarding these operations?
A: The OV (tiller firefighter) set the chocks and stabilizers. An alternative method, when staffing is available, is to have one member assigned to the inboard side stabilizer and chocks while the OV takes care of the outboard side.
B: Only in an extreme emergency such as an exposure to heavy smoke or high heat will the movement of the ladder with firefighter and the victim be justified.
C: The OV ascends the ladder followed by the chauffer, climbs in the window, assists victim out feet first, closes the door to the fire area, and then searches the area.
D: To descend with an ambulatory victim, place yourself one rung below the rung the victim is standing on.
B
Explanation:
B…such as exposure to FLAME OR HIGH HEAT…
**SMOKE DOES NOT COUNT**
NOTE “A” CHOICE: OV=Outboard: “OO”
Cross Reference Aerial Ladders 8.9 & 8.10:
- 9: Avoid moving the ladder while MEMBERS are on it, except to remove them from SERIOUS EXPOSURE OR FOR AN EXTREME RESCUE EFFORT.
- 10: Do not EXTEND OR RETRACT the ladder while members are on it.
Aerial Ladders 5.2; 5.6; 5.7; 8.9; 8.10
Question 19:
The incorrect statement made about the Personal Safety System (PSS) can be found in which choice?
A: The PSS shall be inspected daily and Semi-annually
B: The PSS is 50’ long, 7.5 mm in diameter, and has a figure “8” stopper knot tied at the end of the rope
C: The PSS is a one time use system. After the use, the PSS will be placed OOS
D: If the bag (or any component of PSS) shows signs of heat exposure (discoloration, degradation, melting, charring, etc.) the entire system (PSS bag, EXO, and harness) should be placed OOS
A
Explanation:
Training Bulletins Rope 4
A- At the start of each tour and Semi-annually…..5.1
B- 1.2, 1.7, 1.12
C- 2.1
D- 5.3.3
Question 24:
Maneuvering on the roof of the fire building can be extremely dangerous. There are certain precautions that the roof firefighter can take to ensure his or her safety on the roof. Which one is incorrect?
A: When momentarily blinded by smoke or darkness, and there is an immediate danger to the firefighter, it may be best for the member to remain in place until visibility is restored.
B: Before walking or moving on the roof when visibility is poor, or a heavy smoke condition exists, firefighters should crouch to a kneeling position.
C: In order to alert members to the presence of openings, roof level skylights and/or scuttle covers if removed, should be placed upside down on the roof.
D: If possible, firefighters should move from one roof to another near the front wall always checking his/her footing.
A
Explanation:
A. …and there is NO IMMEDIATE DANGER TO THE FIREFIGHTER…
Ladders 3 5.2
Question 27:
The incorrect procedure when operating at an OLT can be found in which choice?
A: A 2 1/2” line should be stretched for a store fire when there is a medium size fire
B: For a store fire, the 2nd line is stretched to the hallway entrance
C: For a stairway fire, the first hoseline should be stretched up the stairway, operated to extinguish fire, shut down and advanced further up the stairway. When possible, the line should be operated up the well hole to cool off the hall and stairs above. This procedure should be repeated until line is advanced to the top floor
D: For a stairway fire, portable ladders may be placed over weakened, damaged or burnt-out stairs in order to safely gain access to upper stories of a building. The preferred ladder for this is the extension ladder, rather than a straight ladder
A
Explanation:
Multiple Dwellings
A- Large volume of fire…. 4.3.1
B- 4.3.1
C- 4.5.2
D- 4.5.5
Question 28:
When a victim is required to be removed from a vehicle, the large majority of the time they are removed via the doors. However, roof removal may be necessary for victim access or possibly even victim removal. Which tactic is correct when performing total roof removal?
A: Cut high on the A Post and low on the B, C and D Posts with cutters.
B: Cut all the posts on one side before passing the tool to cut the posts on the opposite side of the vehicle.
C: Cut across the bottom of the windshield using the Sawzall with the metal cutting blade.
D: After completing cuts, slowly carry the roof toward the rear of the vehicle.
B
Explanation:
A. Cut LOW on the A Post and HIGH on the B, C and D Posts with cutters.
C. …WOOD cutting blade.
D. …FRONT of the vehicle. THIS WILL PREVENT DRAGGING THE CUT WINDSHIELD OVER VICTIMS IN VEHICLE.
Disentanglement and Extrication 8.2
Question 4:
Units are operating at a fire on the 3rd floor of a 5-story old law tenement. Hoselines are deployed in the following manner. Which line is deployed correctly?
A: In all cases, the first line must be stretched to the 3rd floor via the interior stairs.
B: After receiving a report that the fire is about to extend across a narrow shaft to exposure 2, the IC orders the 2nd line stretched to that exposure.
C: At this fire, the second line is usually stretched by way of the interior stairs to the 4th floor.
D: The 3rd hoseline is usually stretched via the interior stairs to a floor above the fire.
B Explanation:
A. In MOST CASES, the first line is stretched via the interior stairs to the location of the fire. An EXCEPTION to stretching the first line up the interior stairs may be made when FLAME is issuing from windows opening onto the fire escape and endangering people trying to come down the fire escape. In this case, the first line may be operated from the street to protect people on the fire escape. A second line should be promptly stretched to the interior of the building.
C. The second line is usually stretched by way of the interior stairs to THE SAME FLOOR AS THE FIRST LINE. IF NOT NEEDED ON THE ORIGINAL FIRE FLOOR, it is advanced to the floor above.
D. The third line in the building is usually stretched via the FIRE ESCAPE OR ROPE STRETCH via a window.
NOTE B: In some cases, the second or third lines may be urgently needed in one of the exposures. The decision as to the location to which these lines shall be stretched rests with the Incident Commander, and is based on his/her size-up of the fire situation. For example, at a fire in an Old Law Tenement it is often necessary to stretch the second or third line into Exposure 2 or 4 because fire has extended, or is about to extend, across the narrow shaft or shafts between buildings.
Question 13:
During hot weather, responding without Personal Protective Equipment (PPE) is permissible for all of the following runs except?
A: Non-Structural fires
B: BARS Alarms
C: Class 3 Alarms
D: Class E Alarms
C
Explanation:
Non-Structural Fires and Response to BARS Alarms, Non-Fire responses, ERS no contact, and Class E Alarms, and CFR responses
AUC 310 sec 7.2.2
Question 16:
At an isolated building, when roof access and egress via conventionally positioned aerial ladders would be endangered or impeded by a serious fire condition, officers should consider the following points. Which one is incorrect?
A: Use one of the aerial ladders by having it placed to the least exposed sidewall of the building.
B: This position may require placing the apparatus on the sidewalk.
C: Members should ascend and descend at close intervals.
D: This use of the aerial ladder requires that it initially be placed in the cantilever position with the tip close to the building so that when placed under load it will ether not touch or barely touch the wall.
C
Explanation:
C. …at WELL SPACED interval.
Aerial Ladders 3.6
Question 21:
If a building’s duplex UHF radio repeater system fails, consider utilizing the “Reverse Channels” of the Post Radio or FDNY mobile UHF radio to transmit an emergency message. Which Reverse Channel description is correct?
A: On the UHF mobile radio Tactical zone Channel 14 is the Reverse Channel for (Building Radio Repeater) Channel 11
B: On the UHF mobile radio Tactical zone Channel 22 is the Reverse Channel for (Building Radio Repeater) Channel 12
C: On the Post Radio Channel 18 is the Reverse Channel for (Subway Radio Repeater) Channel 14
D: On the Post Radio Channel 20 is the Reverse Channel for (Subway Radio Repeater) Channel 15
Explanation: D
Comm 13 5.2 On the Post Radio:
Channel 17 is the Reverse Channel for (Building Radio Repeater) Channel 11
Channel 18 is the Reverse Channel for (Building Radio Repeater) Channel 12
Channel 19 is the Reverse Channel for (Subway Radio Repeater) Channel 14
Channel 20 is the Reverse Channel for (Subway Radio Repeater) Channel 15
On the UHF mobile radio Tactical zone:
Channel 12 is the Reverse Channel for (Building Radio Repeater) Channel 11
Channel 14 is the Reverse Channel for (Building Radio Repeater) Channel 12
Channel 17 is the Reverse Channel for (Subway Radio Repeater) Channel 14
Channel 19 is the Reverse Channel for (Subway Radio Repeater) Channel 15
Question 23:
Fire extension at a wood frame private dwelling is a major concern for operating members. When discussing fire extension with her members, a company officer made the following remarks. Which one of them was incorrect?
A: Although balloon framing is very common in Queen Anne homes, many of the older and larger 2 ½ - 3 story peaked roof private dwellings are built of balloon frame construction.
B: In this type of construction, the 2”x4” exterior wall studs are continuous and extend from the sill (located on the top of the foundation wall), to the top floor ceiling, where they are capped with a top plate.
C: A quick determination as to whether a structure is balloon frame is to remove a baseboard on an exterior wall and check for the presence of a sole plate. If a sole plate is found, treat the building as balloon construction.
D: In platform construction the exterior wall studs extend only from the floor to the ceiling of each individual floor.
C
Explanation:
C. If NONE is found treat the building as balloon frame construction.
** NO SOLE PLATE = BALLOON FRAME CONSTRUCTION**
Private Dwellings Ch 4: 3.1; 3.3
Question 24:
A Flanking strategy is the application of water from inside the fire building to control the main body of fire via a non-frontal attack. From the choices listed below, select the most correct procedure for the Flanking strategy.
A: A small opening is made in the adjoining wall to the fire room as close to the interior wall as possible, so as not to create a flow path
B: Initially, the hole in the wall should be large enough for the entire nozzle to be placed into the opening allowing the stream to be directed at the ceiling of the fire room
C: With the fire apartment door left open, and once access is obtained to the adjoining apartment, the door to that apartment must remain closed and the hoseline stretched to this adjoining apartment from the apartment below via an exterior window or balcony using a utility rope
D: With the fire apartment door left closed, and once access is obtained to the adjoining apartment, the door to that apartment must remain closed and the hoseline stretched to this adjoining apartment from the apartment below via an exterior window or balcony using a utility rope
C
Explanation:
A- A small opening is made in the adjoining wall to the fire room as close to the EXTERIOR wall as possible, so as not to create a flow path
B- Initially, the hole in the wall should be ONLY large enough for the MAIN STREAM TIP of the NOZZLE to be placed into the opening allowing the stream to be directed at the ceiling of the fire room
C- Correct
D- With the fire apartment door left closed, and once access is obtained to the adjoining apartment, the hoseline will be stretched via the fire floor public hallway into the adjoining apartment to operate into the fire apartment
Multiple Dwellings add 3 sec 4.2.4
Question 30:
The Halligan tool has a variety of uses when operating at any type of building, particularly an old law tenement. Which use of the Halligan described below is correct?
A: To remove metal gates often found on fire escape windows use either the fork or adz end of the tool to pull the gate loose at the side opposite the locking device.
B: To loosen the bulkhead door from the upper hinge, open the door slightly and put the adz end of the tool between the door and the door jamb. Close the door on the tool loosening the hinge screws.
C: An alternative method to loosen the bulkhead door from the upper hinge, is to place the fork end of the tool between the door and the door jamb. Then apply outward or downward pressure.
D: To open windows to gain access from the fire escape place the fork end of the Halligan in the corner of the window and push down.
A Explanation:
B. …put the FORK END…
C. …place the ADZ END…
D. …in the CENTER of the window…
Ladders 3: 5.3.2 & Figures 5D, 5E, 5F and 5G **LOOK AT PICTURES WHEN READING**
Question 32:
Which of the following chemical agents would cause skin blistering?
A: Organophosphates
B: Pulmonary agents
C: Vesicants and choking agents
D: VX
C
Explanation:
Nerve Agents (Organophosphates) - respiratory distress, convulsions, S-L-U-D-G-E-M
Blister Agents (Vesicants) - signs and symptoms do not appear for several hours - skin blistering. Chocking agents also cause blisters.
Blood (Pulmonary) Agents - victims gasping for air, convulsions
VX is a nerve agent
ERP Add 2 2.2
Question 33:
If a member goes on medical leave at 2pm in the middle of a 9X6 tour, the officer should make an entry in the company journal. What should the flagging column entry be?
A: OM
B: LV
C: ML
D: MO
B V
Explanation:
LV - Leaves (starting at time other than roll call)
CJ p8 LV
Question 10:
The most correct time a unit shall leave quarters for scheduled training can be found in which choice?
A: No later than 0900/1800 hours
B: No later than 0915/1815 hours
C: No later than 0930/1830 hours
D: No later than 0945/1845 hours
AUC 287 sec 5.1.3 B
Question 21:
The incorrect tactic, when operating at an old law tenement (OLT), can be found in which choice?
A: At least the first length of hose should be brought up to the fire floor and the hose strap attached to prevent hose from slipping back down the well hole of the stairway
B: If there is fire in two apartments on a floor or fire involves an apartment from front to rear, two lines may be needed on that floor
C: The absence of a fire escape on the front of an OLT will usually indicate 3-4 apartments per floor. .
D: For fires in rooms in the vicinity of a shaft, after the fire in the room has been knocked down, the line should be operated into the shaft in order to knock down the shaft fire before continuing through the apartment for knockdown and final extinguishmen
C
Explanation:
The absence of a fire escape on the front of an OLT will usually indicate that the apartments are railroad flats.
Multiple Dwelling Ch 1 secs 3.1.2, 3.1.3, 3.1.4, 3.7.6
Question 36:
The incorrect tool assignment/position for the second arriving Ladder Company when operating at a Brownstone type Rowframe can be found in which choice?
A: 2nd due Extinguisher FF shall consider taking two 6’ hooks in lieu of the pressurized water extinguisher to the top floor of the fire building at a top floor fire
B: 2nd arriving LCC when no longer needed at Aerial, goes into an exposure as directed by their officer
C: For a top floor fire, the 2nd OV FF shall team up with the 1st OV FF for VEIS of top floor
D: 2nd arriving Roof FF when examining returns of exposures, the returns remote from the fire should be avoided, as this action could spread the fire in the cockloft
A
Explanation:
Rowframes
A-Initially, the top floor of the most severely threatened exposure (for a top floor fire)….5.8.1
B- p-42
C- p-43
D- p-43
Question 37:
Which of the following choices contains incorrect information regarding elevators in Older Cast-Iron Lofts?
A: Passenger and freight elevators are normally located within the area of the front wall, on either side or in the middle of the building.
B: When elevator shafts face the street, any window serving the shaft is required to display a “SHAFTWAY” sign across the outer portion of the window that is clearly visible from the street. Never place aerial or portable ladders to these shaft windows or operate streams into them.
C: Frequently, freight elevator shafts were built using terra cotta tile which can be readily breached if needed.
D: Freight elevators will not be installed with Fire Service capabilities. They are not initially used during fire operations due to their proximity to rubbish removal areas which are commonly fire origin locations.
B Explanation:
AVOID placing aerial or portable ladders to these shaft windows or operating streams into them UNLESS visible fire is extending up the shaft.
“D” note: After evaluation and approval for use by the Incident Commander (IC), these elevators will allow for greater movement of members, tools and equipment due to their large size.
Loft 5.1.2
Question 12:
All members should be familiar with the “Transportation Index” of a package or shipment. What is the maximum level of radiation one meter from an intact package with a “Radioactive Yellow - II” label?
A: 0.5 mR/hr
B: 10 mR/hr
C: 50 mR/hr
D: 1 mR/hr
D
Question 15:
Company officers must be alert to certain response considerations in order to facilitate an efficient and coordinated operation. Which of the following response considerations is correct?
A: In order to facilitate an efficient, coordinated operation, the officer of the ladder should strive to enter the block before the 1st engine company and from the same direction.
B: If the second ladder company to arrive is moving into the fire block opposite the first engine company, the LCC must verify that the engine has a hydrant before moving too close.
C: When the first engine company and the first ladder company enter the block from opposite ends, the ladder apparatus positioning shall be given preference over the engine company.
D: When the first engine company and the first ladder company enter the block from opposite ends, the ladder officer and remaining members shall proceed to the fire building on foot.
D
Explanation:
A. …AFTER the 1st engine company…
B. …The LADDER COMPANY OFFICER must verify…
C. …When the first engine company and the first ladder company enter the block from opposite ends, the ladder apparatus shall be stopped just short of the hydrant that the engine company expects to use. …
Aerial Ladders 6.3
Question 17:
The incident commander can special call a communications unit anytime they deem necessary. You are working in Engine 100 and discussing the dispatch policy with the members over roll call. Which choice below is INCORRECT about the response matrix for these units?
A: 10-60 transmitted for the collapse of an exterior wall of a private dwelling.
B: 10-66 transmitted for an unconscious member trapped in the cellar of an MD.
C: 10-75 transmitted for fire in the sub-cellar of a commercial building
D: 10-76 transmitted for fire on the 40th floor of a 60 story Commercial Building.
C
Explanation:
ICS CHAPTER 2 ADDENDUM 3 – COMMUNICATIONS UNIT
A – All 1060’s – 3.1
B – All 1066’s – 3.1
C – 1075’s for below grade incidents in facilities other than buildings. 3.1
D – All 1076’s – 3.1
Question 23:
Tower Ladder 200 arrived second due to a fire on the first floor of a peaked roof private dwelling. Ladder 100 is already on-scene and operating as per department SOP’s. Members of TL200 took the following actions. Which one was incorrect?
A: The Roof/OV team took a 6’ halligan hook and a halligan for each member.
B: The Roof/OV team vented the roof as directed by their officer.
C: With the Roof/OV team utilizing the bucket for VEIS, the LCC remained on the turntable until the fire was controlled and members inside were not in immediate danger.
D: After determining that the second arriving apparatus would not be used, the LCC contacted the first arriving LCC to determine if assistance was required.
Explanation:
B. Vent the roof as directed by THE FIRST ARRIVING LADDER COMPANY OFFICER OPERATING INSIDE THE FIRE AREA.
Private Dwellings Ch 4: 5.8 B
Question 24:
Which of the following choices lists features indicative of the most prevalent type of taxpayer built from the 1920’s into the 1960’s?
A: Usually one story in height but there are some that have two stories.
B: Cornices, of the facade type, and signs are often attached to the front of the building outside off the brick walls. Removing the cornice or sign in most cases will not provide access to the cockloft area.
C: The floor and roof may be concrete poured on top of metal decking, which is supported by the metal joists.
D: The the use of combustible construction material has been reduced.
C
Explanation:
A - older type built from the turn of the century until the 1920’s.
C - newer type construction built since the 1960’s.
D - newer type construction built since the 1960’s.
Txpyr 2.3.1 - 2.3.3
Question 37:
While working in E-99 in the great borough of the Bronx, a FF from your unit and tells you that she thinks her PSS might be contaminated from the top floor fire earlier that night. The only correct procedure for decontamination of the PSS can be found in which choice?
A: When only the PSS “bag” is contaminated from fireground contaminates, the bag shall placed OOS
B: When only the PSS “bag” is grossly contaminated, the “bag” shall be spot cleaned in quarters
C: When the bag and rope (PSS) are contaminated from fireground contaminates, the bag and rope shall be decontaminated in quarters using a sponge and water. A mild detergent may be used if necessary
D: If either the rope or bag is placed OOS, the officer on duty is to notify the administrative battalion
C xplanation:
Training Bulletins Rope 4
A- Spot clean in quarters….p-1
B- OOS….p-1
C- p-1
D- Division…p-1
Question 3:
Which of the following operations was incorrect at a high rise office building fire?
A: The first arriving Engine Officer will consult with the first arriving Ladder Officer regarding the location of the fire and available stairways to properly select the attack stairway.
B: The second hoseline was stretched to protect the search and evacuation of the fire floor.
C: The attack stairway needs to be a stairway with a standpipe outlet and should not be a fire tower.
D: Due to the large, uncompartmented areas in these commercial buildings, all hoselines stretched and operated shall be 2 ½” hose.
C
Explanation:
***Recent update
C. The attack stairway does not need to be a stairway with a standpipe outlet. However, the attack stair should not be a fire tower.
High Rise Office 9.3.1
Question 6:
Immediate entry of an imminently hazardous condition can be accomplished in eCIDS how?
A: Use the eCIDS application to enter the proposed immediate CIDS and change the “CIDS type” dropdown to “Immediate”. Then notify the administrative BC by phone to inform the Chief of the pending immediate CIDS.
B: Fax a paper copy of the CD-201 to the administrative BC and email the Chief, notifying the BC of the condition and need for the pending immediate CIDS.
C: Use the eCIDS application to enter the proposed immediate CIDS and change the “CIDS type” dropdown to “Immediate”. Then notify the administrative BC by email to inform the Chief of the pending immediate CIDS.
D: Fax a paper copy of the CD-201 to the administrative BC and call the Chief, notifying the BC of the condition and need for the pending immediate CIDS.
A
Explanation:
A phone call is required to alert the BC if the need to approve the immediate eCIDS.
Comm 4 4.3.3
Question 9:
While performing a search during a plane crash, you come across a spherical flight data recorder. From the choices listed below, what is the correct color of this flight data recorder?
A: International orange
B: Bright yellow
C: Red
D: Black
B Explanation:
Spherical recorders Bright Yellow
Rectangular recorders are Red or International Orange
As a general rule, the voice and flight data recorders are located in the rear of the fuselage. If found attached to the aircraft, they should not be removed except to preserve them from further fire damage.
AUC 325 sec 4.2.3
Question 17:
Choose the incorrect statement when operating at a Compactor/Incinerator incident.
A: For a Compactor chute fire, the first arriving engine company will proceed to the fire floor and stretch a line and operate into the chute to extinguish the fire
B: For a Compactor chute fire, the first arriving OV FF will operate with the engine company to provide access to the chute and check for extension
C: For an Incinerator fire, the first arriving engine company generally will stand fast in the lobby with SCBAs, roll ups, and standpipe kit. Officer can send members to assist the ladder company in search and vent, however, generally the officer and at least 2 men shall remain in the lobby.
D: In City Housing Projects, the chute door on the first floor may be color coded: RED for incinerator, GRAY for compactor
A
Explanation:
Training Bulletins Fires 7
A- One level above….8.2
B- 8.2
C- 4.1
D- 1.3
Question 20:
Engine 99 lost their CFR status during the course of the day tour. Which of the following actions taken by the officer was MOST CORRECT?
A: The officer notified the dispatcher they were out of service and again at the change of tours when they were in service for CFR runs.
B: The officer notified the Battalion they were out of service for CFR runs.
C: The officer notified the Division they were out of service for CFR runs.
D: The officer entered the event in the company and office record journals.
B
Explanation:
CFR CHAPTER 2
A – Incorrect – At 0900 & 1800, unit status defaults to normal CFR status 1.8.1 Note.
B – Correct – Notify the Battalion 1.8
C – Incorrect – Companies only notify the Division when they are completely out of service. REGS CH 30
D – Incorrect – The event is only entered in the company journal. 1.8
Question 22:
Two members of a SOC Support Ladder Company were discussing OSHA regulations in regard to protecting employees from cave-ins in an excavation and were correct in which statement/s?
- There shall be an adequate protective system (shoring) unless the excavation is made entirely in stable rock.
- There shall be an adequate protective system (shoring) unless the excavation is less than 5 feet in depth and examination of the ground by a
competent person provides no indication of a potential cave-in.
A: Neither 1 or 2
B: Only 1
C: Only 2
D: Both 1 and 2
D
Question 24:
All units are 10-84 and in position for a fire in apartment 12C on the 12th floor of a 18 story 100X100 High-Rise Fireproof Multiple Dwelling (HRFPMD). Choose the unit/member in the incorrect position.
A: The FAST Unit and CFR Engine staged on the 11th floor
B: With the door to the fire apartment left open, the first arriving engine charged the hoseline before exiting the attack stairway
C: The 2nd arriving engine obtained the Post Radio from the 2nd arriving BC and brought it to the standpipe outlet where the first hoseline is being connected and established a communications link on the Command Channel 2 if necessary
D: The 1st and 3rd arriving Roof FFs brought the K.O. Curtain to the apartment directly above the fire
C
Explanation:
Multiple Dwellings
A- 6.6.3 staged on the floor below ready for rapid deployment when the fire is above the 6th floor
B- 6.7.3.B
C- Obtain Post Radio from 1st arriving BC …..6.8.2
D- 6.14.4, 6.16.4
Question 39:
Units are taking up from a 2nd alarm in a peaked roof Queen Anne private dwelling. Due to the heavy body of fire, the Incident Commander had ladder company members ventilate the roof to relieve interior conditions and facilitate the extinguishment of the fire. Which tactic mentioned below was incorrect?
A: The first hole was made at the main gable.
B: Members operated the power saw from the basket of the tower ladder.
C: After the hole was cut, the ceiling on the top floor was pushed down with a 6-foot hook.
D: Members realized that if they were to cut the roof with an axe, the opening would be limited to the members reach, but would generally be about 2’ X 3’.C
C
Explanation:
C. …10’ hook
“A 6’ hook (10’ HOOK FOR QUEEN ANNE) SHOULD BE BROUGHT TO THE ROOF TO PUSH DOWN THE CEILING ON THE TOP FLOOR AFTER THE ROOF HAS BEEN CUT.”
**TOUGH QUESTION. JUST BE AWARE OF ANY VARIATIONS MENTIONED BASED ON TYPE OF BUILDING OR OCCUPANCY**
Private Dwellings Ch 4: 6.3
Question 40:
The Drag Rescue Device (DRD) can be beneficial in the removal of a distressed member. Once packaged, the distressed member can be securely moved in a number of ways. Which way is not in accordance with Department policy?
A: When using the DRD only horizontal drags should be attempted.
B: The member can be dragged horizontally by grasping the DRD with one hand and the distressed members left shoulder strap with the other hand.
C: The member can be lifted vertically by grasping the DRD only and a second rescuer grasping the legs of the distressed member.
D: The member can be carried horizontally, or up or down stairs, with one rescuer grasping the DRD only and a second rescuer grasping the leg-straps of the distressed member
C
Explanation:
Also….The member can be carried horizontally, or up or down stairs, with one rescuer grasping the DRD with one hand and the distressed member’s left shoulder strap with the other, while a second rescuer assists by grasping both leg straps of the distressed member.
***Read these 2 sections carefully. You’ll hear the word conflict from many and many other state it is 2 different operations and not a conflict. We recommend you know both cold and let the others protest it if it is on your test:
MMID Ch 3 Add 4 3.1 states members “can be carried horizontally, or UP or down stairs.”
MMID Ch 3 Add 2 2.1 states the “DRD is designed for horizontal drag only. No other application shall be attempted.” Also the note on 2 states “members should not be dragged up stairs utilizing the DRD.”
MMID Ch 3 Add 4 3.1
Question 8:
Loft buildings pose a certain degree of collapse potential depending on conditions encountered and actions by members. Of the following choices, which is incorrect?
A: A brick wall with sand lime mortar can have this bonding material washed out by a LCS dislodging bricks and seriously weakening the wall.
B: Floor collapse can be initiated by the failure of a single column. Members should avoid striking columns with a LCS.
C: If the structural stability of gravity tank supports is questionable, consider draining the contents of the tank onto the roof and top floor to reduce the hazard of water weight concentrated at one point.
D: Wide-dimensional cast-iron lofts having front and rear walls supporting girders pose catastrophic collapse potential should they be compromised.
C
Explanation:
If the structural stability of gravity tank supports is questionable, consider draining the contents of the tank and diverting the water OFF THE ROOF into a drain pipe, or by opening a standpipe outlet on a lower floor.
Also…..During winter operations, ice can accumulate on the outside of a gravity tank. These ice formations have broken away and fallen through the roof of loft buildings or adjoining buildings.
Loft 9.1.1, 9.1.4, 9.1.5, 9.1.6
Question 10:
During freezing weather when ice forms on portable ladders due to water spray, members shall take certain precautions to ensure safe ascending and descending. Which precaution below is incorrect?
A: Position the rung of the ladder under the arch of the boot, next to the heel.
B: Position the feet on the rungs directly next to the beams with each step, to avoid slipping.
C: The hands should grasp the rungs of the ladder for better control while climbing.
D: Should a member slip while climbing, they should immediately pull themselves into the ladder and regain their footing.
Explanation:
C. The hands REMAIN ON THE UNDERSIDES OF THE BEAMS.
Portable Ladders 8.1
Question 11:
The following actions were taken at a string of recent track fires. Which action taken was MOST CORRECT according to department guidelines for operations underground?
A: Only the Chauffeur was needed for HT relay, so the other truck members proceeded with the officer to the incident location.
B: The Officer, Can, FE, and OV firefighter walked out on the bench wall to extinguish a small rubbish fire while the remaining members of the truck company stayed at the end of the platform.
C: After holding the train in the station to prevent movement, the Officer and Can firefighter entered the track bed outside of the station to extinguish a small rubbish fire without power removal.
D: Each of the engine companies assigned took and connected to hydrants upon their arrival at the box location.
A
Explanation:
AUC 207 – SUBWAY OPERATIONS
A – Correct – 4.1
B – Incorrect – When walking out on the benchwall, the officer and can firefighter should be sufficient to achieve our purposes. 5.4.2
C – Incorrect – Members can use the benchwall. Power must be removed if members are to enter the track bed. 5.4.1
D – Incorrect – Engine companies are not to hook up to hydrants until the location of the fire is determined. 5.1
Question 13:
From the choices listed below, which Units carry the Window Blanket?
A: All Rescues and Squads
B: Rescues only
C: Squads only
D: All Squads and Divisions
A
Explanation:
Any Unit or Units may be used to deploy the blanket
The Blanket is large enough to cover at least two windows if necessary
Training Bulletins Tools 3 page 1
Question 18:
Operational considerations are many when dealing with fires in EIFS buildings. Of the below statements, which are CORRECT about fire operations involving these structures… ***1 – Upon the transmission of a 1075, an additional Engine and Ladder should be special called. ***2 – EIFS buildings shall be entered into CIDS & a tower ladder should be assigned as part of the initial assignment. ***3 – A Satellite Monitor can provide the greatest reach of all of the solid stream options. ***4 – A 1 ¾ hand line with a 15/16 tip will provide a greater vertical reach than a 2 ½ hand line with a 1 1/8 tip. ***5 – Initial handlines should be positioned for both interior and exterior attack on the fire.
A: 1,2,5 are correct
B: 2,3,4 are correct
C: 1,4,5 are correct
D: 1,3,4 are correct
C
Explanation:
AUC 362 – EIFS BUILDINGS
C is Correct - 2.8 / 3.1 chart / 2.2
2 - TL does not have to be assigned as part of initial response. Special call if not on initial alarm 2.8
3 - Tower Ladder provides the greatest reach. Chart
Question 19:
Members can reduce unnecessary exposure to radiation at an operation by utilizing the proper PPE and using objects to shield or block the radiation while operating in the Hot Zone. The following are listed “minimum precautions” to be taken prior to initiating operations. Which choice is incorrect?
A: Don proper bunker gear (with hood and helmet)
B: Don an APR and adapter; keep the SCBA in close proximity
C: Utilize a radiation detector (at least one per team)
D: Utilize a dosimeter (1 per position)
B
Explanation:
DON a SCBA. The APR and adapter must be CARRIED by each member in case SCBA tank gets depleted.
Note: If radioactive material is dispersed (i.e. not a point source), removal of PPE should not be initiated until the member is evaluated and decontamination is verified.
ERP Add 4 4.4.3 C
Question 21:
Hydrant spray caps may only be used from 1000 hours until ____ hours.
A: 2300
B: 2200
C: 2100
D: 2000
Eng Ops Ch 3 add 2 sec 3.3 C
Question 24:
You are the first to arrive ladder company officer at a flat roof attached private dwelling of ordinary brick construction. CIDS indicates that there are firewalls between each building. Your roof firefighter takes the following actions. Which one is correct?
A: She realized that she must take the LSR as part of her tool assignment for any flat roof private dwelling.
B: She understood that the immediate adjoining building must not be used for roof access despite offering the easiest access to the interior.
C: She took a scissor ladder to a similar uninvolved attached exposure top floor to gain access to the roof via the scuttle.
D: Once she realized that a LSR rescue was required, she contacted the first OV via HT for assistance on the roof.
C
Explanation:
A. Life saving rope should be taken to the roof WHEN THERE WILL BE A DELAY IN LADDERING THE REAR OF THE BUILDING DUE TO ATTACHED EXPOSURES AND/OR THE HEIGHT OF THE BUILDING REQUIRES THE LSR.
B. Use of an attached exposure for interior access to the roof depends on the type of building construction. In ATTACHED WOOD FRAME type P.D.’s the immediate adjoining building should not be used due to the possibility of cockloft involvement. For attached P.D.’s of ORDINARY BRICK CONSTRUCTION WHERE FIREWALLS EXIST BETWEEN BUILDINGS, choose the building offering the easiest access to its interior.
D. …she contacted THE CHAUFFER…
Private Dwellings Ch 4: 7.1
Question 27:
Con Edison workers refer to a steam pipe rupture on the street as a High Energy Line Break (HELB). Which of the following points concerning a HELB in the street is correct?
A: Escaping high pressure steam can hurl debris at 200 MPH.
B: Asbestos has been removed from most of the underground piping.
C: If a vent pipe has a green stripe on the top of it, this indicates that the steam is the result of a water leak, not a leaking steam main.
D: When operating at a HELB, the HVAC systems of nearby buildings must be left open and operating.
A
Explanation:
B. Asbestos has been removed from Con Edison steam manholes but remains on most of the underground piping.
C. BLUE STRIPE
D. CONSIDER shutting the HVAC of nearby buildings.
Steam System Emergencies: 4.2 & 4.3
Question 32:
Two members of a Manhattan Truck Company were participating in a conversation about canopies and marquees found on commercial buildings. Which comment made was incorrect?
A: A canopy or marquee which is cantilevered over the sidewalk can act as a lever on the parapet wall pulling down a long section of it.
B: Canopies and marquees are generally supported by cables, steel tie rods or steel beams, which go through the wall and are attached inside the building, probably to combustible members in the cockloft. A fire in the cockloft can weaken these attachments or supports, causing sudden collapse of the canopy or marquee and a long section of the parapet wall, without any warning.
C: Marquees are hollow boxes which can fill up with run-off water at a fire operation due to use of heavy streams. A 12’ x 24’ marquee, 4’ deep, when filled would contain approximately 35 tons of water.
D: Canopies are required by the building code to have drainage facilities. Many have been found to have roof type gutters and down spouts blocked with debris, rubbish and rubber balls. Marquees are not required to have drainage facilities.
D
Explanation:
Marquees are required by the building code to have drainage facilities. Many have been found to have roof type gutters and down spouts blocked with debris, rubbish and rubber balls.
Txpyr 3.5.1
Question 34:
The minimum safe distance when operating at a Con-Edison substation with the voltage known to be between 15,000V-38,000V, can be found in which correct choice?
A: 50 feet
B: 25 feet
C:18 feet
D: 10 feet
D
Explanation:
18 feet for 345,000V
10 feet for 15,000V-38,000V
AUC 338 add 2 page-2
Question 35:
According to regulations, there are several occasions where it is necessary to precede reports with an immediate telephone notification to the Battalion and Division. Which choice below is INCORRECT?
A: Unusual occurrence at a fire or elsewhere.
B: Accidents to apparatus, or the placing of a company or apparatus out of service.
C: Loss of department property during fire operations
D: Depletion in a unit of manual strength required for fire duty.
C
Explanation:
REGULATIONS CHAPTER 30 – 30.1.6
C IS INCORRECT – Lost Property is not listed.
A, B, D – 30.1.
Question 38:
Upon arrival to an aircraft emergency at Kennedy Airport, the IC orders you to find and hook up to the high pressure hydrant. This high pressure hydrant can be identified in which correct choice?
A: Painted all yellow
B: Painted all red
C: Body is painted black with yellow top
D: Body is painted black with silver top
A
Explanation:
A- High pressure (160 psi)
B- Doesn’t exist at airports
C- Intermediate pressure (90 psi)
D- Low pressure (60 psi)
AUC 325 add 2 sec 9.2
Question 40:
Sound Powered Phones have made their way along with standpipe systems into nearly all of the underground subway stations in the system. Their use can greatly facilitate operations. Which choice below is CORRECT about these systems?
A: Upon completion of the installations, Operations will generate CIDS Cards listing the location of the Siamese connection and the street level sound-powered phone outlet jack.
B: If the dry standpipe is going to be utilized for firefighting purposes, the engine company shall carry the rolled-up lengths of hose, standpipe kit, a subway emergency exit key, and a 1620 key.
C: Unlike the Repeater System which can prove unreliable, the standard HT Relay procedure for communicating during subway emergencies can be replaced by sound-powered telephones, depending on the circumstances and the location of the incident.
D: Any firefighter who recognizes that the involved station is served by a dry standpipe system shall relay this information back to the ladder company officer and Incident Commander.
B
Explanation:
AUC 207 - ADDENDUM 10 - SOUND-POWERED TELEPHONES AND DRY STANDPIPES
B IS CORRECT – 3.7
A – The administrative company will create a CIDS CARD 3.3
C – The standard HT relay procedure for communicating can be augmented (not replaced) 3.6
D – Relay the information back to the Engine officer and Chauffeur. 3.4
Question 2:
First alarm units are operating at a fire in the cellar of 4-story brownstone building. Hoselines are deployed in the following fashion. Which line was stretched to the incorrect location?
A: The first line was stretched through the front door on the first floor and remained there to secure the first floor.
B: The third line was stretched to the parlor floor as per the Incident Commander
C: The second line was stretched via the interior stairs to the cellar.
D: The second line was stretched to the parlor floor, with the third line backing up the first line.
D
Explanation:
D. Second hoseline stretched through the front door on the first floor to back up the first hoseline. If the first line was used to secure first floor, second line will be stretched to cellar via interior cellar stair to extinguish the fire.
Brownstones 3.1
Question 7:
For a taxpayer (Group M-Mercantile) constructed under the 2008 Building Code, when does an occupancy require a sprinkler, even if the full building does not?
A: The area exceeds 12,000 square feet.
B: The combined area on all floors, including mezzanines, exceeds 24,000 square feet.
C: Area of any size is located 3 stories above grade.
D: Storage of merchandise is in high-piled racks or rack storage arrays.
C
Explanation:
C) In this case only the “occupancy” requires sprinkler protection; not the full building.
Taxpayer 2.5.1
Question 12:
The incorrect description of the FAST Pak can be found in which choice?
A: Contains a 5 ft. high pressure hose with a Universal Air Coupling (UAC)
B: Contains a 6 ft. low pressure hose
C: Contains a Non-CBRN regulator
D: Contains a vibra-alert or heads up display indicator
D Explanation:
There is a remote pressure gauge with a “Low Air Whistle” assembly
Training Bulletins SCBA add 1 sec 2
Question 13:
A search is an orderly and systematic examination of a building or area for the purpose of locating persons, or locating fire and extension of fire. It consists of a primary and secondary search. Which statement below is incorrect?
A: The primary search is an immediate search for life. This primary search is rapid but thorough and systematic.
B: The primary search must also include the entire perimeter of the building and all shafts, basements/cellars, etc.
C: If primary or secondary search is delayed or not completed for any reason, the incident commander must be notified.
D: When searching or examining a number of apartments it may be quicker to enter from the related fire escape then to force numerous doors.
B
Explanation:
B. THE SECONDARY SEARCH must also include the entire perimeter of the building and all shafts, basements/cellars, etc.
Ladders 3: 5.5.1; 5.5.2; 5.5.4
Question 36:
Supplying a sprinkler system is to be given a high priority _____ the establishment of the initial line. This is especially important at _____ fires in taxpayers.
A: before, cockloft
B: after, cockloft
C: before, cellar
D: after, cellar
D
Question 37:
When it is determined that a fire and/or smoke condition (smoke grenades) is present, in which active shooting is occurring or possible firearms could be used against firefighters, members shall take all of the following actions except?
A: Remain behind hard cover and out of the line-of-sight.
B: If members are in an open area without some type of cover, they should immediately assume a supine position on the ground.
C: Alert on-scene and incoming units of an active shooter. Consider using the emergency alert tone with an urgent message to notify units that this is an active shooter incident and not a routine fire or emergency.
D: Since the alert over the Department Radio is critical to all incoming units; the member transmitting shall not request a “Mixer off”.
B
Explanation:
If members are in an open area without some type of cover, they should immediately assume a PRONE position on the ground.
A Note: Cover is not the same as concealment. Cover is any material that can reasonably be expected to stop the travel of a bullet fired from small arms. Concealment simply conceals an individual from view.
SB 7 ch 3 sec 3.1
Question 5:
Tower Ladder placement will depend upon conditions encountered on arrival. Which of the following choices is not listed as a factor in tower ladder placement?
A: Fire Conditions – location and extent of fire.
B: Type of Structure – Height and Area.
C: Time of Day.
D: Smoke Conditions – light, medium, heavy.
D
Explanation:
TOWER LADDERS – CHAPTER 2
A, B, C Correct -2 PG 1
D – Not listed – Smoke Conditions are not listed as factors influencing TL positioning.
Question 8:
When positioning the bucket for Rescue and Removal of people from windows, it is important to properly position the bucket for operation. Which choice below is CORRECT about bucket and apparatus positioning?
A: To expedite placing the bucket to a window, position the apparatus with the cab angled away from the objective lining up the bucket with the window.
B: To expedite placing the bucket to a window, position the apparatus parallel to the objective, lining up the bucket with the window.
C: To expedite placing the bucket to a window, position the apparatus parallel to the objective, lining up the turntable with the window.
D: To expedite placing the bucket to a window, position the apparatus with the cab angled away from the objective, lining up the turntable with the window.
B
Question 9:
Ladder 99 is responding to an advanced fire on the 1st & 2nd floors of a 2 ½ story peaked roof private dwelling. Which of the following is INCORRECT about their positioning upon arrival?
A: At an advanced fire, the main objective is to position a tower ladder in front of the fire building.
B: When possible, the preferred position is with the apparatus cab angled away from the building so the bucket can be placed over the corner of the building near the peak of the roof.
C: The turntable should be positioned to enable the bucket to cover two sides of the private dwelling
D: If the apparatus cannot be placed in the preferred position, place the bucket to the valley area where a hook ladder can be used to reach the peak.
TOWER LADDERS – CHAPTER 2
A – Correct 2.1.6 PG11
B – Incorrect – Parallel to the front of the building. PG11
C – Correct 2.1.6 PG 11
D – Correct 2.1.6 PG 12
Question 17:
Pictures are a part of the testing process as well and are fair game when writing exams. According the picture associated with ventilating a peaked roof private dwelling, there are a series of cuts made in a sequential order. Which cut is the first cut made perpendicular to the ridge pole in the illustration?
A: 1st cut
B: 2nd cut
C: 3rd cut
D: 4th cut
Explanation:
TOWER LADDERS – CHAPTER 3
C is correct – The 3rd cut is perpendicular to the ridge pole. Ch 3 3.5 figure 1.
Question 23:
Which of the following choices is CORRECT regarding the use of the Tower Ladder Bucket?
A: The controls at the pedestal allow for smoother positioning than the joystick controls. The pedestal firefighter should always perform delicate movements.
B: All jacks and outriggers must be fully lowered whenever the Tower Ladder Bucket is to be used.
C: Detailed members should not operate on the turntable unless they are assigned to a truck company, are a qualified Chauffeur, or Company trained FF assigned to a TL.
D: The pedestal firefighter should relay operational and safety concerns received from the bucket to the company officer.
B Explanation:
TOWER LADDERS – CHAPTER 1 – PG 6
A – Incorrect – Exception is when pedestal firefighter’s view is obstructed.
B - Correct 1.2 PG 6 Bottom
C – Incorrect – Tower Ladder Company firefighter and NOT Company trained.
D – Incorrect – Incident Commander should be notified
Question 24:
Water delivery via Tower Ladder at a fire is a major factor in the success of an operation. Which water delivery strategy is INCORRECT according to Large Caliber Stream delivery from a Tower Ladder?
A: At an advanced Row Frame fire where multiple floors are involved, LCS delivery should begin at the lowest level and work its way up to the top floor and cockloft area.
B: For common cockloft protection, commence LCS attack at the leading edge of the building and traverse towards the middle to facilitate extinguishment.
C: At H-types with fire showing out windows in the front, courtyard, and throat, the TL stream should be directed at the windows in the throat first, then advanced toward the front of the building, and finally into the front windows.
D: A street level attack at a taxpayer fire using the LCS to penetrate the ceiling and collapse it, thereby exposing fire in the cockloft, enables extinguishment of fire therein.
E xplanation:
TOWER LADDERS – CHAPTER 4
A – Incorrect – The exception is – At an advanced fire in a Row Frame, begin application at the top floor and into the cockloft. 4.2 bottom
B – Correct – 4.2 Bottom
C – Correct 4.2 pg 3 Bottom
D – Correct – 4.2 pg 3 Bottom.
Question 28:
Initial positioning of the apparatus is a mark of a company’s professionalism & often is a determining factor in the success at an operation. Which choice below is INCORRECT according to the recommended initial tower ladder positioning guidelines?
A: At a fire on the 3rd floor of a 4-story brownstone, the initial apparatus positioning of the tower ladder would be for top floor VEIS.
B: At a fire on the 4th floor of a 5-story tenement, the initial positioning of the tower ladder would be to the fire apartment/floor above or off window of the fire escape.
C: At a taxpayer with fire extending to exposures, the initial positioning of the tower ladder would be to operate at roof level and protect exposures.
D: At a top floor fire in an H-type multiple dwelling, positioning a tower ladder in the throat can dramatically influence an operation.
xplanation:
TOWER LADDERS – CHAPTER 2
A – Correct – 2.1.1
B – Correct 2.1.3
C – Incorrect – Position to operate at street level and protect exposures
D – Correct – 2.1.4.
Question 29:
Arriving as the extra truck at a fire involving a large 2 ½ story private dwelling, Tower Ladder 90 is tasked with ventilating the peaked roof. Which choice below is CORRECT regarding this operation?
A: The tower ladder bucket should be positioned on the roof as close to the ridge pole as possible.
B: The saw operator shall wear the installed safety belt or the LSR tied with a bowline to the bucket railing to allow maneuverability.
C: The saw shall be started outside the bucket and held outside the bucket until it is shut off.
D: The saw operator shall make the first cut perpendicular to the ridge pole. The size of the cut will depend on the reach of the operator.
A Explanation:
TOWER LADDERS CHAPTER 3
A is CORRECT 3.5
B – Incorrect – LSR tied to a substantial part of the bucket. Bucket railings are not a substantial pare of the bucket and shall not be used as a substantial object when tying off. 3.5 -1
C – Incorrect – Saw shall be started inside the bucket and held outside until shut off. 3.5 -2
D – Incorrect – Make the first cut parallel to the ridge pole 3.5 -3
Question 30:
Anytime a Tower Ladder is set up, supplied, and placed into operation, Safety remains on the front burner. Which choice below regarding operations is INCORRECT?
A: The pedestal firefighter must don PPE and be continuously aware of changing fire conditions. This member should have a working knowledge of the location of other operating units.
B: The pedestal firefighter shall activate the platform control switch and/or Safety Interlock Foot Pedal during overhaul and whenever members or civilians enter or leave an elevated bucket to prevent accidental movement.
C: The member operating the joystick should preplan bucket movement in the event of an imminent or actual collapse. When operating at upper floors, this will generally be upwards.
D: When collapse is feared, the height of the wall vertically above the bucket is the minimum distance horizontally that the bucket should be away from the wall.
Explanation:
TOWER LADDERS – CHAPTER 4 – LARGE CALIBER STREAM OPERATIONS
A – Correct – 4.3 bottom
B – Incorrect – Consider activating the platform control switch… 4.3
C – Correct 4.3 pg 5
D – Correct 4.3 pg 4 bottom
Question 34:
Which of the following choices below is not in accord with PAID 2-2019, the FDNY Lactation Policy?
A: A lactation room is a sanitary place that is shielded from view and free from intrusion
B: A lactation room includes an electrical outlet and a chair
C:Employees who submit a “Request for an Accommodation to Express Milk” form to the EEO office, shall do so no later than 14 days before they plan to express milk
D:Lactation rooms may never be used for any other purposes when the lactating employee is on duty
D
Question 35:
If a pregnant firefighter believes that they are incapable of performing the duties of a full duty member, they must provide the Bureau of Health Services (BHS) with written verification from the member’s health care provider. The member will be placed on light duty by BHS upon the member’s request. Which point below is a most accurate description in regards to the firefighters on light duty?
A: These firefighters shall report to the quartermaster to procure work-duty uniforms that are appropriate for pregnant members.
B: Pregnant Full-duty members may modify their uniform.
C: If on light duty and wearing a modified uniform, a pregnant FF shall display an FDNY identification card on their clothing.
D: The FDNY Identification card displayed by a light duty FF in a modified uniform shall not be displayed on their jacket/coat. It shall be attached to their shirt/sweater.
C
Explanation:
A-PAID 1-89, sec. 2, they may modify light duty uniform with business appropriate attire.
B-PAID 1-89 does not mention uniforms for pregnant full-duty members.
C-PAID 1-89 sec 2.2
D-PAID 1-89, sec 2.2, it only says displayed on outermost garment, so if they are wearing a jacket it goes on the jacket. If they remove the jacket, it goes on whatever is the new outermost garment.
Question 36:
Lt. Wendy was correct when she stated that the on-duty firefighters shall wear the long-sleeve-work-duty shirt beginning on which date each year?
A:October 1st.
B:November 1st.
C: October 31st.
D: November 30th.
B
B-Regs Ch 29, sec 29.6.4
Question 38:
During the 6x9 tour in the great Borough of the Bronx, the ladder company you are working in has just been activated as a Rapid Response Vehicle Task Force (RRV) due to a major blackout. As you turn out, you are trying to remember all the protocols of the RRV. Choose the incorrect protocol.
A: The initial Task Force may consist of an officer serving as a TASK Force Leader, 3-6 FFs ,and 2 apparatus
B: The second piece of the SOC Support Ladder that is equipped with an MDT, will be identified in the CADS system as RRV. For example, RRV027
C: When more than one task force is assembled, a Sector/ Group Supervisor shall be assigned
D: The primary method of communications shall be the DARS radio
B
Explanation:
AUC 159 add 8…New as of 11/20/2019 (Dept Order 108/2019)
A-3.2
B- “R” R027…..this is only for the 2nd pieces with an MDT. 2nd pieces without MDT will be called on dept radio as SOC Support Ladder, for example SSL-50…..sec 3.2.3
C- sec 3.5
D- Primary- DARS, Alternate- 800 MHZ, Emergency- Dept Radio……when DARS, 800 MHz, and Dept radio are OOS, then the contingency communication is the cell phone….NEW (this changed) sec 4.1
THIS IS A MUST READ. Several changes to this bulletin
Question 40:
When removing a windshield during a vehicle extrication, the four tools that can be used include all of the following except?
A: Windshield saw
B: Sawzall
C: Beluga knife
D: Circular saw with wood cutting blade
Explanation:
Axe is the 4th tool (used as a last resort)
The Beluga knife was added recently to this bulletin (11/12/2019)
Emergency Procedures Vehicle Disentanglement sec 11.3
Question 1:
There are many unique construction features encountered in places of worship. Which of the following is not a completely accurate description regarding these characteristics?
A: The purpose of any buttress is to resist the lateral forces pushing a wall outward by redirecting them to the ground
B: Choir lofts are usually located above the main entrance
C: When present, clearstory windows are often located on the exposure 2 and 4 sides of these structures
D: A steeple may be incorporated into the entrance or cellar of the building
D
Explanation:
FFPs Places of Worship Fires
A-glossary pg 1
B-glossary pg 1
C-glossary pg 1
D-glossary pg 2-entrance and center of the bldg.
Question 5:
Which of the following is not listed as a major defect or fault in the construction of places of worship?
A: Early collapse potential.
B: Numerous concealed voids.
C: The vast quantity of combustible material used in the wood joist roof construction.
D: Lack of fire suppression & detection systems.
C
Explanation:
Firefighting procedures, Places of Worship Fires
A- sec. 1.3.11
B- sec. 1.3.11
C- sec. 1.3.11 truss roof construction.
D-sec. 1.3.11
Note: another defect is the large open areas with limited or no fire stopping
Question 7:
Properly donned Personal Protective Equipment is an integral aspect of firefighter safety. It would be correct to state that?
A: Bunker gear is compromised of 4 distinct layers: Inner Shell, Outer Shell, Moisture Barrier, and Thermal Layer.
B: When decontaminating firefighting gloves it is important to wear latex or nitrile EMS gloves under the firefighting gloves.
C: If a member had their gear laundered by the Decontamination Support Unit (DSU) during the time period between advanced cleanings, it is not mandatory for their gear to be sent out the next month for scheduled cleaning by the independent service provider (Minerva).
D: If both a member’s bunker pants and PSS need to be sent out for decontamination, they shall be placed together inside of two clear plastic bags. In order to avoid cross contamination the two items shall not be separated from each other.
B
Explanation:
AUC 310
A- sec. 1.2 there are 3 layers, no Inner Shell
B- ADD 1 top pg 3
C- sec. 14.2 that does not satisfy NFPA 1851
D- ADD 5 sec 2.5, shall be separated and placed in separate bags. NOTE: a separate form (EDR-1) is required for each item and also for each type of contaminant.
Question 11:
Which of the following is a correct statement about the FDNY’s HT Batteries and Chargers?
A: When the charger displays a green/amber alternating light that is flashing, the battery is fully charged.
B: Wet batteries shall be allowed to air dry prior to placing them in the charge receptacle. Wiping them dry may cause damage to the terminal ends.
C: A flashing red light on the charger indicates that the battery is too hot or cold to charge.
D: a Flashing green light displayed on the charger indicates the battery is charged 80% or better.
A Explanation:
Communication Chapter 11, Addendum 1
A-sec. 2.3 solid green=fully charged, but green/amber alternating indicates fully charged too. This indicator is for radio shop info only.
B-sec. 1.3 if wet, wipe dry prior to charging
C-sec. 2.3 flashing red=not charging/reinsert
D-sec. 2.3 flashing green=trickle mode charge is at 90% or better
Note: steady red=rapid charge
flashing amber=battery is too hot or cold to charge/reinsert.
Of the following choices, which is the only correct point regarding proper FDNY operations at a place-of-worship fire?
A: Firefighters must gain access to the attic, this is especially important during the beginning stages of the operation, preferably before the main body of fire is knocked down.
B:Attic ventilation openings are typically located on the front or rear of the long side of a place of worship.
C: A dome above a bell tower is more unstable than a steeple atop a tower.
D:The newer style places of worship are susceptible to early collapse, due to the presence of large high timber truss roofs.
B
Explanation:
A-Firefighting Procedures, places of worship fires, sec. 2.1.1 during salvage and overhaul, sec 7.2.2 imperative as soon as first lines knock down fire
B- sec. 3.2 when in the front, it will be a few feet above the rose window
C-sec. 4.2 steeple is more unstable
D-sec. 4.5 due to lightweight truss construction
Question 16:
the NYC Department of Health recently issued a health alert for the Measles. Which piece of information below, is inaccurate when considering this viral infection?
A:Individuals are contagious from four days before the onset of rash, through the forth day after the rash appears.
B: Signs and symptoms appear around 10-14 days after exposure to the virus.
C:In cases where measles is a consideration, CFR units shall don respiratory protection in the form of an Air Purifying Respirator (APR).
D: some of the symptoms of measles include: high fever, white spots in the mouth, and a rash that tends to begin on the face and spreads down the arms and trunk toward the lower extremities
Explanation:
CFR-D Manual, Chapter 6, Office of Medical Affairs Dir. 2019-05
A-sec. 3.2
B-sec. 3.5
C-sec. 4.3-by donning an N95 surgical mask, although donning an APR would protect you, the bulletin says SHALL don N95.
D-sec. 3.5
Question 17:
The Company Journal is used to record day-to-day events of a unit or firehouse. Which of the following is inaccurate when it comes to the use and maintenance of these items?
A: They are to be retained indefinitely.
B: When a unit is involved in a motor vehicle accident, “ACC” should be entered into the flagging column and appropriate journal entry made.
C: CM in the flagging column, is used to stress or locate an entry regarding cleaning and maintenance.
D: “PAQ” is an abbreviation that can be seen in a roll call entry; it stands for Property, apparatus, quarters.
Explanation:
A-*Recent change… Regs 15 15.2.2
B-sec. 5, “ACC” is out use “COLL”. (short for collision). Note: AFID was replaced with BISP.
C-sec. 5
D-top pg 7, Note: the P is not for Personnel. B
Question 18:
Company Commanders have many unique responsibilities that most lieutenants and covering captains don’t. Choose the least correct point regarding a Company Commander’s responsibilities.
A: In fire department facilities, all single-occupant restrooms must be made available for use by all persons of any gender.
B: A single occupant restroom shall contain no more than 1 water closet and 2 urinals, except where egress from it is through a male or female designated locker room.
C: All single-occupant bathrooms shall have required signage affixed on or near the entrance to such room.
D: Battalion commanders will confer with every assigned company commander a least once each quarter regarding maintaining a professional workplace.
B
Explanation:
A-PAID 1-2017, sec. 4.1
B-PAID 1-2017 sec. 3.1, no more than one water closet and one urinal.
C-PAID 1-2017, sec 5.1
D-PAID 2-2017, sec 1.2
