Q&A self assessement Flashcards
All of the following are true for fFN measurements except:
a. A positive test equates to an fFN concentration >50ng/mL in cervicovaginal fluid.
b. High-risk asymptomatic patients should have testing done between 22+0 and 30+6 weeks’ gestation.
c. In symptomatic patients, fFN should be measured between 24+0 and 34+6 weeks’ gestation.
d. Results are reliable when sample is collected from a patient whose amniotic membrane is ruptured.
e. Results are not reliable when sample is collected from a patient experiencing gross or moderate vaginal bleeding.
All of the following are true for fFN measurements except:
a. A positive test equates to an fFN concentration >50ng/mL in cervicovaginal fluid.
b. High-risk asymptomatic patients should have testing done between 22+0 and 30+6 weeks’ gestation.
c. In symptomatic patients, fFN should be measured between 24+0 and 34+6 weeks’ gestation.
d. Results are reliable when sample is collected from a patient whose amniotic membrane is ruptured.
e. Results are not reliable when sample is collected from a patient experiencing gross or moderate vaginal bleeding.
Total PSA assays measure which of the following?
- free PSA
- prostatic-specific acid phosphatase (PAP)
- PSA-ACT (alpha-1-anti-chymotrypsin)
- PSA-A2M (alpha-2-macroglobulin)
a. 1, 2, and 3
b. 1 and 3
c. 2 and 4
d. 4 only
e. all of the above
Total PSA assays measure which of the following?
- free PSA
- prostatic-specific acid phosphatase (PAP)
- PSA-ACT (alpha-1-anti-chymotrypsin)
- PSA-A2M (alpha-2-macroglobulin)
a. 1, 2, and 3
b. 1 and 3
c. 2 and 4
d. 4 only
e. all of the above
Given a tumor marker with the following test results for a group of patients: 164 true positive, 27 false positive, 245 true negative, 86 false negative. What is the diagnostic sensitivity and specificity, respectively?
a. 100% and 71%
b. 66% and 74%
c. 66% and 90%
d. 75% and 90%
e. 90% and 66%
Given a tumor marker with the following test results for a group of patients: 164 true positive, 27 false positive, 245 true negative, 86 false negative. What is the diagnostic sensitivity and specificity, respectively?
a. 100% and 71%
b. 66% and 74%
c. 66% and 90%
d. 75% and 90%
e. 90% and 66%
Growth hormone secretion is not
a. stimulated by exercise
b. stimulated by hypoglycemia
c. stimulated by glucocorticoids
d. inhibited by somatostatin
Growth hormone secretion is not
a. stimulated by exercise
b. stimulated by hypoglycemia
c. stimulated by glucocorticoids
d. inhibited by somatostatin
What is the effect of oxygen exposure from the air to whole blood ionized calcium measurements?
a. decreases
b. increases
c. magnitude of change depends on the albumin concentration
d. magnitude of change depends on the oxygen content
e. no change
What is the effect of oxygen exposure from the air to whole blood ionized calcium measurements?
a. decreases
b. increases
c. magnitude of change depends on the albumin concentration
d. magnitude of change depends on the oxygen content
e. no change
In patients with hypothalamic diabetes insipidus
a. circulating levels of ADH are elevated
b. circulating ADH is not functional
c. circulating levels of ADH are low
d. serum and urine osmolality are normal
In patients with hypothalamic diabetes insipidus
a. circulating levels of ADH are elevated
b. circulating ADH is not functional
c. circulating levels of ADH are low
d. serum and urine osmolality are normal
Hyperprolactinemia causes
a. inhibition of GnRH
b. increased TSH levels
c. increased testosterone levels
d. hypergonadism
Hyperprolactinemia causes
a. inhibition of GnRH
b. increased TSH levels
c. increased testosterone levels
d. hypergonadism
Identify the urine crystal from patient with a history of diuretic use

Acide urique
Which condition would most likely decrease the pO2 in a sample for blood gas analysis?
a. A pea-sized air bubble in the syringe.
b. The sample is analyzed 45min after collection at room temperature.
c. The sample is stored on ice for 30min.
d. Exposure of the sample to the atmosphere.
Which condition would most likely decrease the pO2 in a sample for blood gas analysis?
a. A pea-sized air bubble in the syringe.
b. The sample is analyzed 45min after collection at room temperature.
c. The sample is stored on ice for 30min.
d. Exposure of the sample to the atmosphere.
Which of the following is most true regarding the immunofixation gel shown as follows?
a. monoclonal bands for all immunoglobulins and light chains present
b. biclone for lambda light chains
c. prozone (antigen excess) for free lambda light chain
d. all bands exhibit the prozone effect
e. this patient has immune complexes

Which of the following is most true regarding the immunofixation gel shown as follows?
a. monoclonal bands for all immunoglobulins and light chains present
b. biclone for lambda light chains
c. prozone (antigen excess) for free lambda light chain
d. all bands exhibit the prozone effect
e. this patient has immune complexes
With respect to cellular iron uptake
a. The iron-transferrin complex is taken into the cell by receptor-mediated endocytosis.
b. The iron-ferritin complex is taken into the cell by receptor-mediated endocytosis.
c. Cells absorb free iron from solution.
d. Iron is released from transferrin at high (i.e., alkaline pH).
e. Transferrin receptor expression is decreased in iron deficiency.
With respect to cellular iron uptake
a. The iron-transferrin complex is taken into the cell by receptor-mediated endocytosis.
b. The iron-ferritin complex is taken into the cell by receptor-mediated endocytosis.
c. Cells absorb free iron from solution.
d. Iron is released from transferrin at high (i.e., alkaline pH).
e. Transferrin receptor expression is decreased in iron deficiency.
Which of the following are the criteria for determining if a troponin assay qualifies as high sensitivity?
a. Values at the 99th percentile produce a 10% imprecision
b. Values at the 99th percentile produce a 20% imprecision
c. At least 50% of healthy subjects detected above the assay’s limit of detection
d. At least 90% of healthy subjects detected above the assay’s limit of detection
e. 99% of patients with AMI detected
Which of the following are the criteria for determining if a troponin assay qualifies as high sensitivity?
a. Values at the 99th percentile produce a 10% imprecision
b. Values at the 99th percentile produce a 20% imprecision
c. At least 50% of healthy subjects detected above the assay’s limit of detection
d. At least 90% of healthy subjects detected above the assay’s limit of detection
e. 99% of patients with AMI detected
Which of the following tests are usually compared to a reference interval and not a clinical decision point?
a. digoxin
b. HbA1c
c. calcium
d. eGFR
e. neonatal bilirubin
Which of the following tests are usually compared to a reference interval and not a clinical decision point?
a. digoxin
b. HbA1c
c. calcium
d. eGFR
e. neonatal bilirubin
Which of the following statement is incorrect about medium-chain acyl- CoA dehydrogenase (MCAD) deficiency?
a. MCAD deficiency is responsible for the initial dehydrogenation of acyl-CoAs with a chain length between 4 and 12 carbon atoms.
b. MCAD deficiency present with hypoketotic hypoglycemia, vomiting, and lethargy.
c. MCAD deficiency is a potentially lethal disease and early diagnosis is crucial.
d. In cases with MCAD deficiency, analysis of plasma acylcarnitines by MS/MS reveals accumulation of C6–C10 acylcarnitine species with prominent concentration of C8.
e. In cases with MCAD deficiency, analysis of plasma acylcarnitines by MS/MS reveals accumulation of C10–C16 acylcarnitine species with prominent concentration of C14.
Which of the following statement is incorrect about medium-chain acyl- CoA dehydrogenase (MCAD) deficiency?
a. MCAD deficiency is responsible for the initial dehydrogenation of acyl-CoAs with a chain length between 4 and 12 carbon atoms.
b. MCAD deficiency present with hypoketotic hypoglycemia, vomiting, and lethargy.
c. MCAD deficiency is a potentially lethal disease and early diagnosis is crucial.
d. In cases with MCAD deficiency, analysis of plasma acylcarnitines by MS/MS reveals accumulation of C6–C10 acylcarnitine species with prominent concentration of C8.
e. In cases with MCAD deficiency, analysis of plasma acylcarnitines by MS/MS reveals accumulation of C10–C16 acylcarnitine species with prominent concentration of C14.
Normal response following a water deprivation test in the investigation of diabetes insipidus is
a. increased urine and plasma osmolality
b. increased urine osmolality and reduced serum osmolality
c. increased urine osmolality and no change in plasma osmolality
d. reduced urine osmolality and reduced serum osmolality
Normal response following a water deprivation test in the investigation of diabetes insipidus is
a. increased urine and plasma osmolality
b. increased urine osmolality and reduced serum osmolality
c. increased urine osmolality and no change in plasma osmolality
d. reduced urine osmolality and reduced serum osmolality
Which of the following may raise the set point in the parathyroid gland for negative feedback, eliciting hypercalcemia?
a. vitamin D deficiency
b. hypomagnesemia
c. chronic lithium therapy
d. acute pancreatitis
e. renal disease
Which of the following may raise the set point in the parathyroid gland for negative feedback, eliciting hypercalcemia?
a. vitamin D deficiency
b. hypomagnesemia
c. chronic lithium therapy
d. acute pancreatitis
e. renal disease
Which of the following does not enhance urinary excretion of calcium?
a. hypercalcemia
b. phosphate deprivation
c. acidosis
d. glucocorticoids
e. parathyroid hormone
Which of the following does not enhance urinary excretion of calcium?
a. hypercalcemia
b. phosphate deprivation
c. acidosis
d. glucocorticoids
e. parathyroid hormone
Gel 1 is urine and gel 2 is serum from the same patient. The total urine protein was 38mg/L and the sample was concentrated 200 fold. What is the best interpretation of these findings?
a. A biclonal gammopathy.
b. Urine contains free light chains, serum contains intact immunoglobulins.
c. There was a sample mixup, as these are not from the same patient.
d. This patient has significant renal involvement.
e. Monoclonal gammopathy of undetermined significance (MGUS) can be ruled out.

Gel 1 is urine and gel 2 is serum from the same patient. The total urine protein was 38mg/L and the sample was concentrated 200 fold. What is the best interpretation of these findings?
a. A biclonal gammopathy.
b. Urine contains free light chains, serum contains intact immunoglobulins.
c. There was a sample mixup, as these are not from the same patient.
d. This patient has significant renal involvement.
e. Monoclonal gammopathy of undetermined significance (MGUS) can be ruled out.
Which of the following statement is incorrect about urea cycle defects?
a. The dominant laboratory findings in urea cycle defects are hyperammonemia and respiratory alkalosis.
b. Plasma amino acids and urine orotic acid levels are necessary for a differential diagnosis of urea cycle defects.
c. Lower glutamine and alanine concentrations are common for these disorders.
d. Low or undetectable citrulline profile is consistent with either OTC deficiency or CPS deficiency.
Which of the following statement is incorrect about urea cycle defects?
a. The dominant laboratory findings in urea cycle defects are hyperammonemia and respiratory alkalosis.
b. Plasma amino acids and urine orotic acid levels are necessary for a differential diagnosis of urea cycle defects.
c. Lower glutamine and alanine concentrations are common for these disorders.
d. Low or undetectable citrulline profile is consistent with either OTC deficiency or CPS deficiency.
The 99th percentile is used for analytes like cardiac troponin rather than the 97.5th percentile because
a. it is not; we always use the central 95th percentile or upper 97.5th percentile when establishing population-based reference intervals.
b. using the 99th percentile reduces the number of healthy patients who would be further worked-up relative to the 97.5th percentile.
c. using the 99th percentile increases the number of patients who would be further worked-up relative to the 97.5th percentile and makes sure no one is missed.
d. the 99th percentile was derived from several clinical trials and is therefore the best upper reference limit for detecting acute myocardial infarction.
e. in conventional cardiac troponin assays, only 1 person out of 100 had detectable cTn and therefore the 99th percentile was a practical decision point to use.
The 99th percentile is used for analytes like cardiac troponin rather than the 97.5th percentile because
a. it is not; we always use the central 95th percentile or upper 97.5th percentile when establishing population-based reference intervals.
b. using the 99th percentile reduces the number of healthy patients who would be further worked-up relative to the 97.5th percentile.
c. using the 99th percentile increases the number of patients who would be further worked-up relative to the 97.5th percentile and makes sure no one is missed.
d. the 99th percentile was derived from several clinical trials and is therefore the best upper reference limit for detecting acute myocardial infarction.
e. in conventional cardiac troponin assays, only 1 person out of 100 had detectable cTn and therefore the 99th percentile was a practical decision point to use.
Where approximately is the peak spectral absorbance of hemoglobin?
a. 300–400nm
b. 400–500nm
c. 500–600nm
d. 600–700nm
Where approximately is the peak spectral absorbance of hemoglobin?
a. 300–400nm
b. 400–500nm
c. 500–600nm
d. 600–700nm
When establishing population-based reference intervals, increasing the sample size
a. dismisses the need to derive confidence intervals for the reference limit.
b. minimizes the likelihood that the data set will contain outliers.
c. has no effect on the precision of the reference limits.
d. decreases the precision of the reference limit.
e. increases the precision of the reference limit.
When establishing population-based reference intervals, increasing the sample size
a. dismisses the need to derive confidence intervals for the reference limit.
b. minimizes the likelihood that the data set will contain outliers.
c. has no effect on the precision of the reference limits.
d. decreases the precision of the reference limit.
e. increases the precision of the reference limit.
Pseudo Cushing’s syndrome is
a. characterized by the classical signs and symptoms of full-blown Cushing’s syndrome.
b. differentiated from true Cushing’s syndrome by metyrapone dynamic testing.
c. characterized by cortisol resistance.
d. characterized by decreased serum cortisol levels.
e. common in depressed and alcohol-abusing individuals.
Pseudo Cushing’s syndrome is
a. characterized by the classical signs and symptoms of full-blown Cushing’s syndrome.
b. differentiated from true Cushing’s syndrome by metyrapone dynamic testing.
c. characterized by cortisol resistance.
d. characterized by decreased serum cortisol levels.
e. common in depressed and alcohol-abusing individuals.











