pulomonary medications Flashcards

1
Q

what effects the bronchi and bronchioles

A

bronchcocontriciton

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2
Q

what plays a major role in the pathophysiology of most obstructive respiratory disorders

A

bronchocontrition

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3
Q

what is the balance of sympathetic and parasympathetic input to the smooth mm of brochi and bronchioles

A

bronchomotor tone q

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4
Q

what are the 3 main causes of abnormal bronchomotor tone

A

inflammation
excessive PNS activity
reduces SNS activity

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5
Q

bronchodilators act as ____ agents

A

sympathomimetics agents
(medications that mimic the SNS)

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6
Q

what are sympathomimetics agents (bronchiodilators) used for

A

anaphylaxis and acute asthma

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7
Q

what is used for lower respiratory disorders

A

sympathomimetics agents (bronchiodilators)

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8
Q

what drug is used during acute phase of asthmatic attacks

A

sympathomimetics agents (bronchiodilators)

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9
Q

what does sympathomimetics agents (bronchodilators) stimulate throughout the lungs

A

beta 2 adrenergic receptors

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10
Q

what drug is a sympathomimetics agent that works in 3-5 mins and effects last for 4-6 hours and acts as a rescue inhaler

A

short acting beta 2 agonist (SABA)

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11
Q

what sympathomimetics agents is given in emergent situation and what does it effect

A

epinephrine and affects all a drenergic receptors

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12
Q

why is epinephrine given in emergency situation

A

to promote bronchodilation and increase BP

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13
Q

what are some side effects of epinephrine (sympathomimetic agents)

A

tremors , dizziness , HTN , tachycardia , heart palapitation and angina

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14
Q

if someone has bronchospasm due to COPD what drug are they given via aerosol or tablet

A

selective beta2 adenergic agonist

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15
Q

what are 3 examples of selective beta 2 adrenergic agonist that are giving to patients with bronchospasm due to COPD

A

albuterol , salbutamol (SABA
formoterol (FABA)
salmeterol (FABA)

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16
Q

what drug is given to a patients with bronchospasm due to COPD with the effects beginning within 2-20 min , works up to 12 hours , used to help COPD pateints slow and used for matienance therapy

A

long lasting beta 2 agonist

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17
Q

what are some adverse reactions related to SABA

A

cough
tachycardia
muscle tremor
muscle contractions

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18
Q

what stimulate alpha-adrenergic receptor vasoconstriction of capillaries w/in nasal mucosa
shrinking of the nasal mucus membranes & reduction in fluid secretion (runny nose)

A

decongestants

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19
Q

decongestants can lead to __ in BP bc of vasoconstriction in the gut area

A

increase

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20
Q

what are side effects of decongestants

A

dizziness
hypertension
headaches
nausea
nervousness
insomnia
cardiovascular irregularities

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21
Q

what is used with anti inflammatories to treat acute moderate to severe asthma

A

parasympatholytics

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22
Q

parasympatholytics meds facilitates ____

A

bronchodilation

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23
Q

what affects the nicotinic and muscarinic receptors

A

acteylocholine

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24
Q

what are 2 muscarinic antagonist ?

A

ipratropium (atrovent) SAMA
tiotropium (spiriva) LAMA

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25
what does atropine do
promote bronchodilation and decreased mucus secretions
26
what is used for paralysis of the respiratory system due to poisoning
atropine
27
is atropine used for asthma
no
28
what are the 8 side effects of atropine
dry mouth headaches tachycardia blurred vison rash decreased GI activity dizziness confusion
29
what is an enzyme that reduces intracellular levels of cAMP
phosphodiesterase (PDE)
30
what promotes an increase in cAMP by blocking the breakdown of cAMP
methylxanthines
31
what is the precursor to norepinephrine and epinephrine
cAMP
32
what are 2 examples of methylxanthines
theophylline aminophylline
33
what does phosphodiesterase inhibitors promote
bronchodilation and vasodilation of peripheral arterioles
34
what are the 3 things that Methylxanthines do
Promotes Prostaglandin inhibition • Enhances catecholamine production • Stimulates CNS and skeletal mm
35
what drug increase exercise tolerance via imporoved contractility and reduced fatigue of diaphragm
Methylxanthines
36
what is the main drug that reduces the fatigue of the diaphragm
Methylxanthines
37
what are some things you want to monitor for a patient taking Methylxanthines
HR CNS effects RR SpO2 ABGs
38
chest pain or discomfort dizziness fainting fast, slow, or irregular heartbeat increase in urine volume lightheadedness persistent vomiting pounding or rapid pulse seizures tremors’ these are all side effects of which drug
Methylxanthines
39
what drug is Not a “true” bronchodilator but can promote this secondarily as a inflammation is controlled
corticosteroids
40
corticosteroids ___ airflow
increase
41
what drug Reduces mucosal swelling, increased bronchial lumen size via:
corticosteroids
42
what are side effects of corticosteroids
• Water retention • Hyperglycemia • Osteoporosis • Increases susceptibility to infections • Muscle atrophy • Growth retardation - hypokalemia
43
what device does these things • Delivers specific amount of meds per short burst from device • Device has a meter valve to deliver precise dosage • Drug is in aerosol form that is inhaled by the patient:
Meter dosed inhaler (MDI):
44
what device Administers medication via a mist inhaled into the lungs
nebulizer
45
respiratory stimulants are drugs that ___ the activity of the CNSD respiratory centers
enhance
46
___ and___ stimulate respiratory centers which ___ ventilation
sympathomimetics and methylxanthines increase
47
what are drugs that’s specifically increase respiratory activity
analeptics (amphetamines)
48
what stimulates chemoreceptors in carotid arteries and cortical-spinal neurons:
dopram
49
can to much o2 be bad for the patient
yes
50
sedatives, tranquilizers, narcotic analgesics are examples of respiratory _____
depressants
51
pateints with a pulmonary disease should avoid respiraotry ___
depressants
52
what is used to control abnormal breathing patterns due to anxiety or agitation
respiratory depressants
53
* IV Morphine * Midazolam (Versed) * Propofol (Diprivan) * Diazepram (Valium) * Haloperidol (Haldol) these are examples of what meds
respiratory depressants
54
are DVTS more worse proximal or distal and why
proximal bc vessels are larger
55
proximal DVTs involve the popliteal , femoral , or iliac venous system are are commonly complicated by __ __
pulmonary embolism
56
should the therapist mobilize the patients with a DVT when the therapeutic threshold levels of the anticoagulants have been reached ?
yes
57
after a IVC filter placement should a PT mobilize their patient once they are hemodynamicaaly stable
yes
58
when a pateint with a LE DVT below the knee is not related with anitcoauflation and does not have an IVC filter and is prescribed out of bed mobility by the physician what should the therapist do
consult with the medical team regarding mobilizing , do not just keep the patient on bed rest
59
does the padua prediction score for DVT include active cancer
yes
60
is a patients has signs or symptoms of a LE DVT therapist should assess DVT likelihood using what
wells criteria for DVT
61
what are the classic signs and symptoms for DVT
localized pain, tenderness , swelling and discoloration other symptoms may include edema , fever , extermity warmth and pain
62
what is included in the wells DVT clinical decision criteria
active cancer swelling edema
63
what is the critieria for UE DVT
constans
64
when is a sonography used
if DVT UE is likely
65
what is the normla for D diner test
< 500 so if more then 500 bad
66
D-Dimer reflects the amount ofdegradation of a protein clot from three enzymes:
thrombin plasmin activated factor XIIII
67
what is normal time for PT: prothrombin time
11-13 seconds
68
if prothrombin time is > ___ then it is high risk for bleeding
25
69
what is used to monitor effectiveness of warfarin for blood thinning
international normalized ratio
70
if INR have low values then risk of clots … what are u looking at
prednisone barbiturates vitamin K
71
INR: higher values increased risk of bleeding:
• Antibiotics • Amiodarone • Steroids (depends on dose)
72
is a patient is taking Fondaparinux (anticoagulant) when si it safe to get them up?
> 3 hrs
73
is a patients is taking UFH (heparin) when can u walk them
> 48 hours
74
is a patient is taking the anticoagulant NOAC (non VKA oral anticoagulant) when can you mobilize them
> 3hours
75
if a patient is taking a DOAC (directing affectv anticoagulants) when can they mobilize
> 3 hours
76
if a patient is taking a LMWH (low molecular weight heparin) when can they mobilize
> 5 hours
77
will an Inferior vena cava filter work if a pateint has a UE DVT
no
78
what is used to diagnose pulmonary embolism
ventilation perfusion scan