Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

cardiopulm final > pulomonary medications > Flashcards

pulomonary medications Flashcards

1
Q

what effects the bronchi and bronchioles

A

bronchcocontriciton

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what plays a major role in the pathophysiology of most obstructive respiratory disorders

A

bronchocontrition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what is the balance of sympathetic and parasympathetic input to the smooth mm of brochi and bronchioles

A

bronchomotor tone q

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what are the 3 main causes of abnormal bronchomotor tone

A

inflammation
excessive PNS activity
reduces SNS activity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

bronchodilators act as ____ agents

A

sympathomimetics agents
(medications that mimic the SNS)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what are sympathomimetics agents (bronchiodilators) used for

A

anaphylaxis and acute asthma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what is used for lower respiratory disorders

A

sympathomimetics agents (bronchiodilators)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what drug is used during acute phase of asthmatic attacks

A

sympathomimetics agents (bronchiodilators)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what does sympathomimetics agents (bronchodilators) stimulate throughout the lungs

A

beta 2 adrenergic receptors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what drug is a sympathomimetics agent that works in 3-5 mins and effects last for 4-6 hours and acts as a rescue inhaler

A

short acting beta 2 agonist (SABA)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what sympathomimetics agents is given in emergent situation and what does it effect

A

epinephrine and affects all a drenergic receptors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

why is epinephrine given in emergency situation

A

to promote bronchodilation and increase BP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what are some side effects of epinephrine (sympathomimetic agents)

A

tremors , dizziness , HTN , tachycardia , heart palapitation and angina

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

if someone has bronchospasm due to COPD what drug are they given via aerosol or tablet

A

selective beta2 adenergic agonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what are 3 examples of selective beta 2 adrenergic agonist that are giving to patients with bronchospasm due to COPD

A

albuterol , salbutamol (SABA
formoterol (FABA)
salmeterol (FABA)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what drug is given to a patients with bronchospasm due to COPD with the effects beginning within 2-20 min , works up to 12 hours , used to help COPD pateints slow and used for matienance therapy

A

long lasting beta 2 agonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what are some adverse reactions related to SABA

A

cough
tachycardia
muscle tremor
muscle contractions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what stimulate alpha-adrenergic receptor vasoconstriction of capillaries w/in nasal mucosa
shrinking of the nasal mucus membranes & reduction in fluid secretion (runny nose)

A

decongestants

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

decongestants can lead to __ in BP bc of vasoconstriction in the gut area

A

increase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

what are side effects of decongestants

A

dizziness
hypertension
headaches
nausea
nervousness
insomnia
cardiovascular irregularities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

what is used with anti inflammatories to treat acute moderate to severe asthma

A

parasympatholytics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

parasympatholytics meds facilitates ____

A

bronchodilation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

what affects the nicotinic and muscarinic receptors

A

acteylocholine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

what are 2 muscarinic antagonist ?

A

ipratropium (atrovent) SAMA
tiotropium (spiriva) LAMA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

what does atropine do

A

promote bronchodilation and decreased mucus secretions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

what is used for paralysis of the respiratory system due to poisoning

A

atropine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

is atropine used for asthma

A

no

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

what are the 8 side effects of atropine

A

dry mouth
headaches
tachycardia
blurred vison
rash
decreased GI activity
dizziness
confusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

what is an enzyme that reduces intracellular levels of cAMP

A

phosphodiesterase (PDE)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

what promotes an increase in cAMP by blocking the breakdown of cAMP

A

methylxanthines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

what is the precursor to norepinephrine and epinephrine

A

cAMP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

what are 2 examples of methylxanthines

A

theophylline
aminophylline

33
Q

what does phosphodiesterase inhibitors promote

A

bronchodilation and vasodilation of peripheral arterioles

34
Q

what are the 3 things that Methylxanthines do

A

Promotes Prostaglandin inhibition
• Enhances catecholamine production
• Stimulates CNS and skeletal mm

35
Q

what drug increase exercise tolerance via imporoved contractility and reduced fatigue of diaphragm

A

Methylxanthines

36
Q

what is the main drug that reduces the fatigue of the diaphragm

A

Methylxanthines

37
Q

what are some things you want to monitor for a patient taking Methylxanthines

A

HR
CNS effects
RR
SpO2
ABGs

38
Q

chest pain or discomfort
dizziness
fainting
fast, slow, or irregular heartbeat
increase in urine volume
lightheadedness
persistent vomiting
pounding or rapid pulse
seizures
tremors’

these are all side effects of which drug

A

Methylxanthines

39
Q

what drug is Not a “true” bronchodilator but can
promote this secondarily as a
inflammation is controlled

A

corticosteroids

40
Q

corticosteroids ___ airflow

A

increase

41
Q

what drug Reduces mucosal swelling, increased
bronchial lumen size via:

A

corticosteroids

42
Q

what are side effects of corticosteroids

A

• Water retention
• Hyperglycemia
• Osteoporosis
• Increases susceptibility to
infections
• Muscle atrophy
• Growth retardation
- hypokalemia

43
Q

what device does these things
• Delivers specific amount of meds per
short burst from device
• Device has a meter valve to deliver
precise dosage
• Drug is in aerosol form that is inhaled by
the patient:

A

Meter dosed inhaler (MDI):

44
Q

what device Administers medication via a
mist inhaled into the lungs

A

nebulizer

45
Q

respiratory stimulants are drugs that ___ the activity of the CNSD respiratory centers

A

enhance

46
Q

___ and___ stimulate respiratory centers which ___ ventilation

A

sympathomimetics and methylxanthines
increase

47
Q

what are drugs that’s specifically increase respiratory activity

A

analeptics (amphetamines)

48
Q

what stimulates chemoreceptors in carotid arteries and cortical-spinal neurons:

A

dopram

49
Q

can to much o2 be bad for the patient

A

yes

50
Q

sedatives, tranquilizers, narcotic analgesics are examples of respiratory _____

A

depressants

51
Q

pateints with a pulmonary disease should avoid respiraotry ___

A

depressants

52
Q

what is used to control abnormal breathing patterns due to anxiety or agitation

A

respiratory depressants

53
Q
  • IV Morphine
  • Midazolam (Versed)
  • Propofol (Diprivan)
  • Diazepram (Valium)
  • Haloperidol (Haldol)

these are examples of what meds

A

respiratory depressants

54
Q

are DVTS more worse proximal or distal and why

A

proximal bc vessels are larger

55
Q

proximal DVTs involve the popliteal , femoral , or iliac venous system are are commonly complicated by __ __

A

pulmonary embolism

56
Q

should the therapist mobilize the patients with a DVT when the therapeutic threshold levels of the anticoagulants have been reached ?

A

yes

57
Q

after a IVC filter placement should a PT mobilize their patient once they are hemodynamicaaly stable

A

yes

58
Q

when a pateint with a LE DVT below the knee is not related with anitcoauflation and does not have an IVC filter and is prescribed out of bed mobility by the physician what should the therapist do

A

consult with the medical team regarding mobilizing , do not just keep the patient on bed rest

59
Q

does the padua prediction score for DVT include active cancer

A

yes

60
Q

is a patients has signs or symptoms of a LE DVT therapist should assess DVT likelihood using what

A

wells criteria for DVT

61
Q

what are the classic signs and symptoms for DVT

A

localized pain, tenderness , swelling and discoloration

other symptoms may include edema , fever , extermity warmth and pain

62
Q

what is included in the wells DVT clinical decision criteria

A

active cancer
swelling
edema

63
Q

what is the critieria for UE DVT

A

constans

64
Q

when is a sonography used

A

if DVT UE is likely

65
Q

what is the normla for D diner test

A

< 500
so if more then 500 bad

66
Q

D-Dimer reflects the amount ofdegradation of a
protein clot from three enzymes:

A

thrombin
plasmin
activated factor XIIII

67
Q

what is normal time for PT: prothrombin time

A

11-13 seconds

68
Q

if prothrombin time is > ___ then it is high risk for bleeding

A

25

69
Q

what is used to monitor effectiveness of warfarin for blood thinning

A

international normalized ratio

70
Q

if INR have low values then risk of clots … what are u looking at

A

prednisone
barbiturates
vitamin K

71
Q

INR: higher values increased risk of
bleeding:

A

• Antibiotics
• Amiodarone
• Steroids (depends on dose)

72
Q

is a patient is taking Fondaparinux (anticoagulant) when si it safe to get them up?

A

> 3 hrs

73
Q

is a patients is taking UFH (heparin) when can u walk them

A

> 48 hours

74
Q

is a patient is taking the anticoagulant NOAC (non VKA oral anticoagulant) when can you mobilize them

A

> 3hours

75
Q

if a patient is taking a DOAC (directing affectv anticoagulants) when can they mobilize

A

> 3 hours

76
Q

if a patient is taking a LMWH (low molecular weight heparin) when can they mobilize

A

> 5 hours

77
Q

will an Inferior vena cava filter work if a pateint has a UE DVT

A

no

78
Q

what is used to diagnose pulmonary embolism

A

ventilation perfusion scan

cardiopulm final (8 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions