Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Step 2 CK > Pulmonology > Flashcards

Pulmonology Flashcards

1
Q

Lung conditions with increased A-a gradient

A

Diffusion limitation: ILD

Shunting: ARDS and intracardiac shunting

V/Q mismatch: COPD, atelectasis, PNA, pulmonary edema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

When are breath sounds decreased in a patient with a consolidated lung field?

A

Normally they are increased, however, when the airway is no longer patent they are decreased.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

When is diagnostic thoracentesis not the inital step in management in a patient with pleural effusion?

A

In patients with classic signs and symptoms of CHF, a trial of diuretic therapy is first indicated.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Tumors that most often cause malignant pleural effusions

A

Lung, breast and lymphoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Indications for chest tube in a patient with parapneumonic effusion

A

Glc

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Aspiration pneumonia vs. pneumonitis

A

Pneumonia: aspiration of oral cavity anaerobes, symptoms present days after aspiration and can progress to abscess in the RLL. Treat with clinda or beta-lactam + beta-lactamase inhibitor.

Pneumonitis: aspiration of gastric content, symptoms arise hours after aspiration, CXR shows infiltrates and symptoms resolve with supportive therapy.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

S1Q3T3

A

S wave in lead I, Q wave in lead III and inverted T-wave in lead III. Seen with acute PE.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Light’s criteria

A

Pleural fluid protein:serum protein > 0.5

Pleural fluid LDH:serum LDH > 0.6

Pleural fluid LDH > 2/3 upper limit of normal serum LDH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Asthma classification and treatment

A

Intermittent: daytime sx ≤ 2x/week, nighttime sx ≤ 2x/month, normal PFTs. No activity limitations, albuterol PRN only.

Mild persistent: daytime sx > 2x/week (but not daily), nighttime sx 3-4x/month, normal PFTs. No activity limitations, albuterol PRN + ICS.

Moderate persistent: daytime sx daily, nighttime symptoms weekly, FEV1 60-80% predicted. Moderate activity limitation, albuterol PRN + ICS + LABA.

Severe persistent: sx throughout day, frequent nighttime awakenings, FEV1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Treatment of exercise-induced bronchoconstriction

A

1) albuterol 10-20 minutes before exercise. May also add leukotriene inhibitors and ICS as needed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Ideal tidal volume for patient on ventilator

A

6mL/kg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

How to anticoagulate people with DVT

A

If there is a reversible risk factor and it is their 1st provoked DVT, continue warfarin for 3 months.

If there is no known risk factor, continue for 6-12 months.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Next test in a patient with hypoxemia and bilateral alveolar infiltrates without risk factors for ARDS.

A

Echo to rule out cardiac etiology for pulmonary edema.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Main modulators of oxygenation? Ventilation?

A

Oxygenation = FiO2 (target is below 50-60%) and PEEP.

Ventilation = TV and RR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

How does O2 supplementation exacerbate CO2 retention in patients with COPD?

A

1) You lose the compensatory vasoconstriction in areas of ineffective gas exchange, leading to V/Q mismatch.
2) Reduced CO2 uptake from peripheral tissue due to increased oxyhemoglobin concentration (Haldane effect)
3) Reduced respiratory drive = reduced minute ventilation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Target O2 levels in patients with COPD exacerbation

A

SaO2 90-93% and PaO2 between 60-70

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Definition of chronic bronchitis

A

3 months of chronic productive cough for at least 2 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Conditions with increased dead space ventilation

A

PE (V/Q = infinity because despite adequate ventilation, there is no blood flow)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Conditions with physiologic shunting

A

PNA (V/Q = 0 because despite adequate blood flow, there is no ventilation)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Risks of undergoing treatment for Hodgkin’s lymphoma later down the road

A

18.5-fold increased risk of developing secondary cancers after chemoradiation (lung, breast, bone, thyroid, GI, acute leukemia and non-Hodgkin lymphoma)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Time when patients may develop radiation fibrosis

A

4-24 months post-XRT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

How to diagnose and treat aspergillosus

A

Dx: fungus ball on imaging + positive IgG serology.

Tx: itraconazole, surgery or bronchial artery embolization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Most common source of acute PE

A

Deep veins (iliac, femoral and popliteal)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Differences in COPD due to chronic smoking and patients with alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency

A

Alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency results in panacinar emphysema and lower lobe destruction. Smokers tend to have centriacinar emphysema and upper lobe destruction.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Features of Legionairre’s disease that set it apart from CAP

A

GI symptoms, neurological symptoms, hyponatremia and high grade fever.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Treatment of PNA due to Legionella

A

Macrolide or fluoroquinolone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Normal pleural fluid pH, transudative pH and exudative pH?

A

Normal = 7.6

Transudate = 7.4 - 7.55

Exudate = 7.3 - 7.45

28
Q

3 cardinal symptoms of COPD exacerbation

A

Increased cough, sputum production and dyspnea.

29
Q

Treatment for AECOPD

A

Supplemental O2 with target of 88-92%

Inhaled bronchodilators

Systemic glucocorticoids (oral if mild-moderate)

Macrolide, fluoroquinolone or beta-lactam/beta-lactamase inhibitor if 2+ cardinal symptoms are present, exacerbation is moderate-severe or mechanical ventilation is required.

NPPV if moderate-severe exacerbation

Tracheal intubation if NPPV won’t work

30
Q

When might you see a normal CXR in a patient with pneumonia?

A

1st 24 hours

Neutropenia

Dehydration

Pneumocystis jirovecii

31
Q

When to anticoagulate a patient with suspected PE?

A

Modified Wells criteria > 4 = PE likely. You should anticoagulate the patient before getting the CT angio

32
Q

Symptoms of theophylline toxicity

A

CNS (HA, insomnia and seizures)

GI (nausea and vomiting)

Cardiac (SVT, atrial tachy and ventricular arrhythmias)

33
Q

Paraneoplastic effects of lung tumors

A

SCC = PTHrP

Small cell = ACTH, Lambert-Eaton and SIADH

Adenocarcinoma = hypertrophic osteoarthropathy

Large cell = gynecomastia, galactorrhea

34
Q

Diagnostic criteria for obesity hypoventilation syndrome

A

Sleep disorder breathing

BMI > 30

Daytime hypercapnea with PaCO2 > 45 and hypoxemia with PaO2

35
Q

Hypothermia classification and treatment

A

Mild (32-35C, 90-95F) *increased shivering. Treat with passive external warming (remove wet clothes, give blanket)

Moderate (28-32C, 82-90F) *decreased shivering. Treat with active external warming (warm baths, blankets and IV fluids).

Severe (

36
Q

Tests to get in patients presenting with AECOPD?

A

CXR and ABGs.

37
Q

Treatment algorithm in patients with chronic cough

A

Treat UACS with 1st generation antihistamine like chlorpheniramine.

If this doesn’t work, do a trial of PPI for GERD.

If this doesn’t work, get PFTs.

38
Q

Definition of a solitary pulmonary nodule

A
39
Q

Anticoagulants that cannot be used in patients with eGFR

A

LMWH (fondaparinux) and factor Xa inhibitors (fondaparinux and rivaroxaban)

40
Q

How to bridge to warfarin. What anticoagulant does not require a heparin bridge?

A

Anticoagulate the patient until the aPTT is 1.5-2x greater than normal, start warfarin and continue until INR is between 2 and 3 (usually takes 5-7 days).

Rivaroxaban has immediate anticoagulative effects and does not require heparin bridge.

41
Q

Central lung cancers? Peripheral?

A

Central: squamous and small cell

Peripheral: adenocarcinoma and large cell

42
Q

Calculate PAO2 at sea level

A

150 - PaCO2/0.8

43
Q

Classification of ARDS severity

A

Stratified by the PF ratio = PaO2/FiO2

Mild = 200-300mmHg

Moderate = 100-200mmHg

Severe =

44
Q

Treatment of ARDS

A 
Low TV (6-8mL/kg)
Inspiratory plateau airway pressure
45
Q

ARDS pathophysiology

A

Lung injury from trauma, infection, pancreatitis etc. causes release of protein, inflammatory cytokines and PMNs into the alveolar space. Bloody and proteinaceous fluid fill the alveoli, surfactant is lost, the alveoli collapse and are damaged. The end result is impaired gas exchange, decreased compliance and increased pulmonary artery pressure.

46
Q

Most common causes of secondary digital clubbing

A

Lung malignancy, cystic fibrosis and LT -> RT cardiac shunting

47
Q

Pathophysiology of digital clubbing

A

Megakaryocytes become entrapped in the distal fingertips and release PDGF and VEGF.

48
Q

Definition of cor pulmonale

A

Right heart failure secondary to pulmonary hypertension

49
Q

1st step in management of SIADH from a lung tumor

A

Limit fluids to less than 800 mL/day to allow serum sodium to rise. If the patient becomes severely symptomatic or resistant, administer hypertonic saline. If this fails, give demeclocycline, which blocks ADH action at the renal collecting ducts.

50
Q

Indications for oxygen therapy in patients with COPD

A

PaO2 55%

Cor pulmonale

51
Q

Features of non-allergic rhinitis vs. allergic rhinitis

A

Non-allergic: later onset, congestion, no trigger, perennial sx and erythematous nasal mucosa. Treat mild symptoms with intranasal antihistamine or glucocorticoids.

Allergic: watery rhinorrhea, itchy eyes, early onset, identifiable allergen, pale/blue mucosa, treatment is the same.

52
Q

Why does empyema typically not respond to antibiotics normally used to treat CAP?

A

These antibiotics cover strep, staph, klebsiella and hemophylus; however, empyema develops due to mixed aerobic and anaerobic bacterial seeding of the pleural space.

53
Q

Causes of recurrent pneumonia in the same region of the lung

A

Neoplasms, vascular anomalies, bronchiectasis, retained foreign body, bronchial stenosis, seizures, EtOH/drug use, GERD, dysphagia and achalasia.

54
Q

Causes of recurrent pneumonia in different lung regions

A

CF, Kartagener’s, vasculitis, bronchiolitis obliterans w/organizing pneumonia and immunodeficiency.

55
Q

Diagnosing Goodpasture’s disease

A

Hemoptysis and glomerulonephritis tip you off to the diagnosis. Diagnosis is confirmed with renal biopsy showing linear IgG deposition along GBM.

56
Q

Middle mediastinal masses

A

Tracheal tumors, pericardial cysts, lymphoma, lymph node enlargement and aortic arch aneurysms.

57
Q

Anterior mediastinal masses

A

Thymoma, retrosternal thyroid, teratoma and lymphoma. (4 T’s)

58
Q

Posterior mediastinal masses

A

Meningocele, enteric cysts, lympohoma, diaphragmatic hernia, esophageal tumors and aortic aneurysms.

59
Q

Lofgren’s syndrome

A

Erythema nodosum, hilar adenopathy, migratory polyarthralgias and fever associated with sarcoidosis.

60
Q

CXR seen in patients with pulmonary hypertension

A

Enlarged pulmonary arteries with rapid tapering of the distal vessels (pruning)

61
Q

3 setting of empiric CAP treatment

A

Outpatient: healthy = macrolide or doxycycline. Comorbid conditions = fluoroquinolone or beta-lactam + macrolide.

Inpatient: fluoroquinolone or beta-lactam + macrolide

ICU: beta-lactam + macrolide or beta-lactam + fluoroquinolone.

62
Q

Clinical tool used to determine if a patient will benefit from admission for CAP

A

CURB65

Confusion

Uremia > 20

RR > 30

BP 65

Patients scoring 2 or better = inpatient.
4 or better = ICU.

63
Q

Only treatments shown to decrease mortality in patients with COPD

A

Smoking cessation, home O2 therapy and lung resection.

64
Q

What’s the difference between apnea and hypopnea

A

Apnea = cessation of breathing x 10s

Hypopnea = SaO2 drop by > 4%

65
Q

Why do patients with ankylosing spondylosis get restrictive PFT patterns?

A

Fixation of the rib cage and diminished chest wall mobility

66
Q

When do patients with AECOPD get intubated

A

Poor mental status, hemodynamic instability, pH

Step 2 CK (14 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions