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Step 2 CK > Endocrinology > Flashcards

Endocrinology Flashcards

1
Q

Lab values virtually diagnostic of a prolactinoma

A

Prolactin > 200, low testosterone with low/inappropriately normal LH +/- low TSH depending on compressive symptoms.

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2
Q

Why does prolactin rise in patients with primary hypothyroidism?

A

The increased secretion of TRH in response to low T4 also results in an increased stimulation of lactotrophs and elevated prolactin

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3
Q

Ca levels in patients with hypercalcemia secondary to malignancy?

A

> 13

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4
Q

Substances that can chelate calcium and cause symptomatic hypocalcemia?

A

Citrate (typically only seen in patients with liver failure that cannot rapidly metabolize citrate before it can chelate Ca)

Lactate

Foscarnet

EDTA

Phenytoin

Bisphosphonates

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5
Q

Why might patients being treated for eclampsia develop symptomatic hypocalcemia?

A

Mg infusion and hypermagnesemia can turn off PTH release from the parathyroids, reducing serum Ca levels.

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6
Q

3 forms of Ca in the blood

A

Albumin-bound, ionized and bound to organic and inorganic acids.

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7
Q

Why might a patient who is hyperventilating or vomiting repetitively have symptomatic hypocalcemia?

A

Both of these conditions cause alkalemia, which results in H+ dissociation from albumin and increased Ca binding to albumin.

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8
Q

Why are prolactin levels often elevated even when patients have a non-functioning pituitary adenoma?

A

The mass effect disrupts dopaminergic pathways in the brain, reducing the inhibitory effect dopamine has on pituitary lactotrophs.

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9
Q

How does excessive alcohol intake cause hypogonadism?

A

It directly inhibits testicular testosterone production and reduces pituitary LH secretion.

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10
Q

A patient presents with muscle atrophy of the hip flexors and quadriceps, high-frequency low-amplitude tremor worse with movement and increased reflexes with shortened relaxation phase.

A

Thyrotoxic myopathy

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11
Q

Diagnostic criteria for DKA

A

pH 250

+Plasma ketones

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12
Q

How many days of immobilization can it take to develop hypercalcemia in a patient with renal failure?

A

3

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13
Q

Infections that can result in primary adrenal insufficiency

A

CMV, fungal infections and Tb.

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14
Q

Most common congenital cause of primary adrenal insufficiency?

A

Adrenoleukodystrophy. This happens secondary to inability to properly metabolize VLCFAs, which accumulate in the adrenals.

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15
Q

When to discontinue antithyroid medications due to agranulocytosis?

A

WBC

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16
Q

Why are symptoms less severe in patients with secondary adrenal insufficiency?

A

They typically have preserved aldosterone production, so the hyperkalemia, hypotension and hyperchloremic metabolic acidosis are not as prominent as it would be if there were no mineralocorticoid function.

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17
Q

Lab values seen in patients with osteomalacia due to vitamin D deficiency?

A

Low Ca absorption from vitamin D deficiency results in hyperparathyroidism, Ca retention and PO4 excretion. Consequently, there is greater hypophosphatemia, relative hypocalcemia and elevated alk phos due to bone resorption.

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18
Q

Plasma aldosterone to renin ratio that suggests primary hyperaldosteronism

A

> 20 with aldosterone concentration > 15

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19
Q

Diagnostic criteria for metabolic syndrome

A

3/5 criteria:

1) Waist > 40 in men and 35 in women
2) FBG > 100-110
3) BP > 130/80
4) TGs > 150
5) HDL

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20
Q

Contraindications to radioactive iodine therapy for Grave’s disease

A

Pregnancy and ophthalmopathy

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21
Q

Diabetic medication to add to metformin if the patient needs to lose weight

A

GLP-1 agonists: exenatide and liraglutide

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22
Q

What patients may be considered for prophylactic total thyroidectomy

A

Those with RET protoncogene mutations that may lead to MEN2 syndromes. This mutation results in 90-100% incidence of medullary thyroid carcinoma.

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23
Q

Promotility agents used to manage patients with diabetic gastroparesis

A

Metoclopramide (look out for extrapyramidal symptoms)

Erythromycin (IV for acute exacerbations)

Cisapride (not in US)

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24
Q

Beta-blocker that may be amenable to use in patients with pheochromocytoma?

A

Labetolol has both alpha and beta blocking effects, which would not result in unopposed alpha-mediated vasoconstriction that is seen with beta-blockers that don’t touch alpha receptors.

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25
Q

Why do patients with ectopic-ACTH production often have hypertension and hypokalemia?

A

Typically cortisol is inactivated by the enzyme 11-beta HSD to cortisone. However, when there are exceedingly high levels of cortisol as seen in ectopic-ACTH producing tumors, the excess cortisol activates mineralocorticoid receptors.

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26
Q

Diagnostic criteria for PCOS

A

2/3 criteria:

Androgen excess (hirsutism, acne, alopecia)

Oligo or an ovulation

≥ 12 ovarian follicles and/or ovarian volume > 10mL

AND: other causes of hyperandrogegism such as non-classic CAH, hypothyroidism, hyperprolactinemia, Cushing syndrome and androgen secreting tumors have been ruled out.

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27
Q

When is metformin recommended for patients that do not meet criteria for diabetes, but demonstrate insulin resistance?

A

BMI > 35

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28
Q

Treatment of complications associated with PCOS?

A

DM = weight loss and metformin

Hyperandrogenism = OCPs decrease adrenal androgen production, increase SHBG production in the liver and inhibit LH secretion

Infertility = clomiphene

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29
Q

Who gets BRCA testing

A

History of ovarian or breast cancer in a first or second degree relative who was diagnosed when they were

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30
Q

Side effects of antithyroid medications

A

Methimazole = 1st trimester teratogen + agranulocytosis

PTU = agranulocytosis, liver failure and ANCA-associated vasculitis

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31
Q

Who should be screened for diabetes?

A

USPSTF = sustained BP > 135/80

ADA = all adults ≥ 45 years old and those with risk factors

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32
Q

Who should be screened for lung cancer?

A

Adults 55-80 with ≥ 30 years smoking history who currently smoke or have quit in the last 15 years

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33
Q

Who should get PAP smears?

A

Women age 21-29 every 3 years

Women 30-65 can get them every 5 years if they have concurrent HPV testing, or continue PAP alone every 3 years.

34
Q

3 characteristic features of hypopituitarism

A

Glucocorticoid deficiency (with preserved mineralocorticoid because it is ACTH independent)

Testosterone deficiency

Hypothyroidism

35
Q

Less intuitive causes of hypopituitarism

A

Hemochromatosis

Lymphocytic hypophysitis

Sarcoidosis

TB

36
Q

Patients with Paget’s disease who do not require bisphosphonates

A

Asymptomatic patients with disease involving non-weight bearing bones

37
Q

Pituitary microadenoma definition

A
38
Q

Who gets treated with dopamine agonists for prolactinomas?

A

Macro adenomas and symptomatic patients

39
Q

Prussian blue in urine after a patient takes an antibiotics

A

G6PD deficiency.

40
Q

Drugs that can cause autoimmune hemolysis due to anti-RBC IgG crossover

A

Alpha-methyldopa and penicillin

41
Q

Measure corrected calcium

A

Ca + (0.8 x (4 - Albumin))

42
Q

Patient presents with diabetes, weight loss, diarrhea, anemia and erythematous papules/plaques that coalesce to form large painful areas with central clearing.

A

Glucagonoma with necrolytic migratory erythema.

43
Q

How to confirm glucagonoma

A

Serum glucagon > 500

44
Q

Why do people with hyperthyroidism get accelerated bone loss?

A

Thyroid hormone increases osteoclast activity leading to hypercalcemia, reduced PTH secretion and net calcium loss.

45
Q

Most common type of thyroid cancer

A

Papillary (> 70%)

46
Q

Where do papillary thyroid cancers metastasize to?

A

Regional lymph nodes. Follicular thyroid cancers metastasize hematogenously.

47
Q

Pathophysiology behind Addison’s disease

A

Antibodies form against one or more adrenal enzymes involved in steroid synthesis

48
Q

Primary intervention to help reduce kidney damage in patients with diabetic nephropathy

A

The first change in diabetic nephropathy is glomerular hyper filtration and microalbuminuria. To reduce hyper filtration blood pressure control to

49
Q

Most common cause of death in patients with acromegaly

A

Cardiovascular

50
Q

Thyroid cancer you cannot diagnose with FNA

A

Follicular. The cells classically look normal, but you need to see if there is extra capsular extension

51
Q

Histopathologic features of papillary thyroid cancer

A

Psammoma bodies and orphan Annie nuclei

52
Q

When should you start supplementing patients in DKA with K+?

A

Once the K+ gets down to 4.5 on insulin + IVF alone.

53
Q

Malignancies that can produce PTHrP? Malignancies that cause hypercalcemia via other mechanisms?

A

PTHrP: SCC of lung, H&N, esophagus. Renal and bladder cancer. Ovarian and endometrial cancer. Breast (local production in bone).

Vitamin D: lymphomas

Bony mets with local cytokine production: breast, multiple myeloma and lymphoma

54
Q

How long before HPA axis regains normal function after chronic glucocorticoid use?

A

6-12 months

55
Q

Way to administer estrogen without decreasing LT4 levels

A

Transdermal patch. This bypasses the liver and will not increase thyroid binding globulin levels like OCPs do.

56
Q

Benefits if tight glycemic control in diabetics

A

Only seen with microvascular complications, not macrovascular. Mortality increases if A1c goal is

57
Q

What patients should receive eplerenone for primary hyperaldosteronism?

A

Those with bilateral adrenal hyperplasia or unilateral adrenal adenoma and not surgical candidates.

58
Q

How does CKD result in secondary hyperparathyroidism?

A

Decreased hydroxylation of Vit D leads to decreased Ca levels and increased PTH. Additionally, decreased tubular function results in PO4 retention and Ca sequestration as CaPO4, further promoting PTH secretion.

59
Q

Patient presents with watery diarrhea, achlorhydria, hypokalemia, hypercalcemia, hyperglycemia and secretory diarrhea with increased stool Na and osmolar gap

A

This patient has a VIPoma. VIP binds intestinal epithelial cells and promotes fluid and electrolyte secretion into the lumen. They have achlorhydria due to inhibition of gastric parietal cells, hypokalemia due to K+ loss in stool, hyperglycemia due to increased glycogenolysis and hypercalcemia due to increased bone resorption. Confirm diagnosis with VIP level > 75 and CT showing tumor in pancreas tail.

60
Q

Surgical candidates for hyperparathyroidism

A

Ca > 1 over upper limit of normal

Age

61
Q

Treatment of thyroid storm

A

Beta-blockers

PTU

Iodine to limit hormone release

Glucocorticoids to limit T3 -> T4

62
Q

4 main substrates of gluconeogenesis

A

Lactate

Alanine

Glutamine

Glycerol-3-P

63
Q

Most common testicular sex cord stromal tumor

A

Leydig

64
Q

Euthyroid sick syndrome

A

Normal T4 and TSH with reduced total and free T3 levels. This is thought to be due reduced peripheral conversion of T4 to T3 due to caloric deprivation, elevated glucocorticoid levels, elevated cytokine levels and 5’ monodeiodinase inhibitors.

65
Q

Subclinical hypothyroidism labs

A

Elevated TSH, normal T4

66
Q

Best marker for resolution of ketonemia in patients with DKA?

A

Direct assay of beta-hydroxybutyrate and serum anion gap

67
Q

What does the nitroprusside test measure?

A

Acetoacetate and acetone, not beta-hydroxybutyrate

68
Q

How is vitamin D absorbed in the intestines?

A

Via chylomicrons, this is why people with steatorrhea can get osteomalacia/rickets

69
Q

Why are alcoholics at risk for hypocalcemia?

A

They lose Mg in their urine, diarrhea, have malnutrition and get acute pancreatitis. Hypomagnesemia causes PTH resistance and non-responsive hypocalcemia.

70
Q

What patients are at high risk to get diuretic-induced hypokalemia?

A

Those with mild primary hyperaldosteronism

71
Q

How to evaluate for hyperandrogenism due to the adrenals and not the gonads?

A

DHEA-S is the only androgen produced specifically by the adrenal glands.

72
Q

Effective plasma osmolality

A

Excluded BUN from the equation because it crosses both intravascular and extravascular compartments:

2Na + Glc/18

73
Q

Corrected Na+

A

Na + 2 for each mg/dL glc is over 100

74
Q

Metabolic abnormalities that go along with hypothyroidism

A

Hyperlipidemia (decreased surface LDL-Rs)

Hypertriglyceridemia (decreased LPL activity)

Hyponatremia (decreased free water clearance)

Elevated CK

Transaminitis

Anemia (reduced RBC mass)

75
Q

AUA PSA screening recs?

A

Ages 40-75 as long as there is 10 year life expectancy

76
Q

Absent or decreased Achilles reflex in elderly

A

Normal loss due to decreased muscle done

77
Q

When is postpartum vaginal bleeding abnormal?

A

8 weeks post-partum

78
Q

Gestational trophoblastic neoplasia vs. choriocarcinoma?

A 
GTN = localized
Choriocarcinoma = mets to lungs
79
Q

Lab findings in patients with anti-phospholipid antibody syndrome

A

VDRL +, thrombocytopenia and prolonged aPTT

80
Q

4 causes of priapism

A

Sickle cell disease
Cavernous artery trauma
Spinal cord injury
Meds (trazodone, prazosin)

Step 2 CK (14 decks)

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