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Pathophysiology > Pulmonary Pathophysiology (1) > Flashcards

Pulmonary Pathophysiology (1) Flashcards

1
Q

____ refers to the movement of air in and out of the lungs

A

Ventilation

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2
Q

Ventilation is responsible for the removal of ___ from the body

A

CO2

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3
Q

_____ refers to the delivery of oxygen to the alveoli and the diffusion of O2 into the pulmonary capillaries

A

Oxygenation

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4
Q

The processes of ventilation and oxygenation are ___

A

Linked

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5
Q

The central nervous system regulates ____, ____, and ____ of breathing

A

Rate, depth, and rhythm

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6
Q

____ ___ have the strongest influence on regulation of ventilation

A

Central chemoreceptors

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7
Q

A decrease in the pH of ____ ____ increases ventilation

A

Cerebrospinal fluid

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8
Q

____ ____ also affect ventilation

A

Peripheral chemoreceptors

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9
Q

What are some examples of peripheral chemoreceptors?

A

-Aorta (PaO2 and PaCO2)
-Carotid bodies

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10
Q

Carotid bodies can impact ventilation due to changes in…

A

-PaO2 and PaCO2
-Decreased pH
-Increased temperature
-Low perfusion
-Nicotine, cyanide, carbon monoxide

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11
Q

What two types of receptors also impact ventilation?

A

-Stretch receptors
-Baroreceptors

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12
Q

What are two baroreceptors?

A

-Carotid sinus
-Aortic arch

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13
Q

Carotid sinus baroreceptors are responsive to both increases and decreases in arterial pressure, while aortic arch baroreceptors are only responsive to ____

A

Increases

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14
Q

Stretch receptors and baroreceptors limit how much ___ you can take in and the stretch of the lungs

A

Oxygen

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15
Q

What are the muscles of ventilation:

A

-Diaphragm
-Intercostals (internal/external)
-Accessory muscles

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16
Q

What nerve controls your diaphragm?

A

Phrenic nerve (innervated by C3, C4, C5)

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17
Q

If a spinal cord injury is above the C3, C4, and C5, the patient might not have ____ ____

A

Diaphragmic breathing

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18
Q

What are three accessory muscles:

A

-Scalene
-Trapezius
-Sternocleimastoid

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19
Q

What makes up the upper respiratory tract?

A

-Nasal cavity
-Sinuses
-Naso, Oro, laryngopharynx
-Larynx

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20
Q

What makes up the lower respiratory tract?

A

-Airways
-Alveoli
-Lymphatics

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21
Q

If you bypass the upper airway, you bypass ____ and over time, the secretion in the lower lungs get too thick and you can’t cough them up

A

Humidification

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22
Q

Conduction airways generate from branches __-__

A

1-16

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23
Q

Respiratory airways generate from branches ___-___

A

17-23

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24
Q

Branch ___-___ is where gas exchange occurs

A

20-23

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25
Q

____ cells produce mucus (Emphysema and other conditions effect these cells and cause mucous to become too thick)

A

Goblet

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26
Q

____ cells replace damaged epithelial cells in the airway

A

Progenitor

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27
Q

Type 1 alveolar cells are ___ ___

A

Basal alveoli

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28
Q

Type 2 alveolar cells secrete ___

A

Surfactant

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29
Q

Alveoli must always be open to allow for ___ ___

A

Gas exchange

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30
Q

A liquid called ____ keeps alveoli open

A

Surfactant

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31
Q

If there is damage to the alveolar border, ____ and ____ can get into the alveoli which prevents oxygen from getting in; this causes alveolar collapse and damage to type 2 cells

A

Protein and fluid

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32
Q

When activated/in overdrive, ___ ___ initiate macrophage and cytokine response which damages alveoli

A

Alveolar macrophages

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33
Q

When activated/in overdrive, ___ ___ initiate macrophage and cytokine response which damages alveoli

A

Alveolar macrophages

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34
Q

Breathing is a ____ function

A

Mechanical

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35
Q

Breathing causes changes in ____, ____ and ____

A

Pressure, volume, flow

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36
Q

What things allow for changes in volume?

A

-Diaphragm
-Muscles (intercostal and accessory)

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37
Q

With inspiration, the diaphragm _____ downward to allow room for increased air volume of the lungs

A

Contracts

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38
Q

With inspiration, the thoracic cavity ___

A

Expands

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39
Q

With inspiration, the external intercostal muscles ___

A

Contract

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40
Q

With expiration, the thoracic cavity ____

A

Reduces

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41
Q

With expiration, external intercostal muscles ____

A

Relax

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42
Q

The diaphragm ____ during expiration

A

Relaxes

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43
Q

What might impact flow of air into the lungs?

A

-Diameter of the airway
-Compliance of the lung
-Compliance of the chest wall
-Elastance

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44
Q

Those with ____ have low compliance of the chest wall

A

Burns

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45
Q

Changes in pressure of the lungs are due to ___ ___

A

Muscle contraction

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46
Q

When the chest wall expands, it brings the ___ with it so that air can fill

A

Lungs

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47
Q

With a long and/or narrow breathing tube, there would be ___ resistance

A

High

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48
Q

With a small and/or wide tracheotomy tube, there would be ____ resistance

A

Low

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49
Q

Transpulmonary pressure is ___ mm Hg

A

4

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50
Q

Intrapleural pressure is ___ mm Hg

A

-4

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51
Q

Pneumothorax is when air gets into the ___ ___ of the lungs

A

Pleural space

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52
Q

Normally, we do not get rid of ___ ___ of oxygen in the lungs, meaning there will always be some oxygen in the lungs

A

Residual volume

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53
Q

Tidal volume is equal to…

A

Dead space + alveolar ventilation

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54
Q

___ of tidal volume does not participate in gas exchange and is considered anatomic deadspace ventilation

A

1/3

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55
Q

(Deadspace ventilation)/(tidal volume)=

A

(PaCO2 - PECO2)/PaCO2

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56
Q

Dead space is normal, but we don’t want dead space in the ____ because that would be there is no gas exchange through the lungs

A

Alveoli

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57
Q

Volume and speed of air flow can be measured using ____

A

Spirometry

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58
Q

What can spirometry measure:

A

-Forced vital capacity (FVC)
-Forced expiratory volume (FEV1)
-FEV1/FVC
-Peak expiratory flow rate (PEF)

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59
Q

We can also measure someone’s response to ____ or ____ to look at lung function

A

Bronchodilators; exercise

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60
Q

We are able to determine lung size by measuring volume with what two tests?

A

-Total lung capacity
-Residual volume

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61
Q

We can measure gas exchange with what test?

A

Diffusing capacity for carbon monoxide (DLCO)

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62
Q

If someone has reversible airway disease, they would have a ____ forced vital capacity on bronchodilators

A

Increased

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63
Q

Technique of spirometry:

A

-Obtain height, age, gender
-Patient blows into a device that records volume and the speed gas leaves the lungs

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64
Q

What three things does spirometry calculate?

A

-Predicted: norm based on height, age, and gender
-Best: highest flow
-% predicted: % of normal

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65
Q

Percent predicted should be at least ____%

A

80

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66
Q

The ___-___ ___ is a plot of inspiratory and expiratory flow against volume during the performance of maximally forces inspiratory and expiratory maneuvers

A

Flow-Volume Loop

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67
Q

Someone with a forces vital capacity 65% of predicted, a forced expiratory volume 37% of predicted, and a FEV1/FVC 46% of predicted would have ____ lung disease

A

Obstructive

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68
Q

The goals of spirometry include:

A

-Diagnose type of dysfunction
-Determine extent of dysfunction
-Monitor change over time (normal 20 mL/year or greater)
-Monitor response to treatment
-Preop, disability assessment

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69
Q

Bronchodilators improve ____

A

Volume

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70
Q

Obstructive lung diseases can affect the ___ or ___ airway

A

Upper or lower

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71
Q

What are three obstructive upper airway lung diseases?

A

-Croup/Epiglottitis
-SUID
-Sleep apnea

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72
Q

What are three lower airway obstructive lung diseases?

A

-Cystic fibrosis
-Asthma
-COPD

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73
Q

What are 4 categories of restrictive lung diseases:

A

-Lung tissue
-Dust diseases
-Nerves/muscles
-Chest wall

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74
Q

What are three lung tissue restrictive diseases?

A

-Idiopathic
-Pulmonary fibrosis
-Covid (long haul)

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75
Q

What three things can cause dust-related restrictive lung diseases?

A

-Silica
-Asbestos
-Coal

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76
Q

What things can cause nerve/muscle related restructed lung disease?

A

-ALS
-Post-Polio
-High cord injury

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77
Q

What types of chest wall deformities can cause restrictive lung disease?

A

-Kyphoscoliosis
-Flail chest (fractured ribs)

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78
Q

What are examples of vascular lung diseases?

A

-ARDS
-Pulmonary emboli
-Pulmonary hypertension

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79
Q

Obstructive lung diseases affect ____ of air

A

Flow

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80
Q

Restrictive lung diseases affect ____ of inspired air

A

Volume

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81
Q

Vascular lung diseases affect ___ and ___

A

Fluid and flow

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82
Q

What can cause airway obstruction?

A

-Narrowing of airways
-Object obstructing flow
-Loss of lung tissue

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83
Q

What can cause narrowing of airways?

A

-Airway inflammation
-Smooth muscle contraction

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84
Q

What objects might obstruct flow?

A

-Sputum
-Tumor
-Foreign body

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85
Q

What might cause a loss of lung tissue?

A

Emphysema

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86
Q

With emphysema, tissue is destroyed which causes a ___ airway that closes early during expiration

A

Small

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87
Q

Emphysema leads to ___ ___

A

Air trapping

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88
Q

With emphysema, there is ____ elastic recoil and ____ closing volume

A

Decreased; increased

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89
Q

Emphysema causes lungs to be ____, so they can’t get the air out on exhale which makes it hard to get the next breath in

A

Overcomlpliant

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90
Q

What may be done for treatment of emphysema?

A

-Lung reduction surgery
-Valves to help deflate lungs on exhale

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91
Q

Obstructive lung diseases cause a change in the inspiratory:expiratory ratio from ____ to ____

A

1:2 (normal) to 1:3-4 (this means that it takes a lot longer for people to exhale)

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92
Q

For those with obstructive lung diseases, it helps to create ____ to the inhale by inhaling through pursed lips to create back pressure to open the airways to the exhale

A

Resistance

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93
Q

Someone with an obstructive lung disease would have _____ intercostal spaces and a ___, ___ diaphragm

A

Wide; low and flat

94
Q

On a chest X-ray of someone with obstructive lung disease, you would see a lot of ___ space which indicates excess oxygen since they are chronically in an air-trapping system

A

Black

95
Q

What are some signs of respiratory distress in someone with obstructive lung disease?

A

-Frequent coughing or wheezing
-Excess phlegm or sputum
-Shortness of breath
-Trouble taking a deep breath
-Exacerbation
-Hypoxemia
-Pedal edema
-COPD

96
Q

Pulmonary vasoconstriction might lead to ___ ___ ___

A

Right ventricular failure

97
Q

___ ___ is dilation of the right ventricle caused by attempts to pump against increased peripheral vascular resistance

A

Cor pulmonale

98
Q

Right ventricular failure may lead to distension of the ___ ___

A

Jugular vein

99
Q

Right ventricular failure can also lead to ___ ___ since blood backs up to arms and legs

A

Peripheral edema

100
Q

With obstructive lung diseases, ____ is used to monitor severity

A

FEV1

101
Q

Classifications of severity for obstructive lung disease:

A

Mild: FEV1 > 70-79% predicated
Moderate: FEV1 60-69%
Moderately severe: FEV1 50-59% predicted
Severe: FEV1 35-49% predicted
Very severe: <35% predicted

102
Q

All severities of obstructive lung disease have a FEV1/FVC less than ____%

A

70

103
Q

With obstructive lung diseases, you can’t get air ____, whereas with restrictive lung diseases, you can’t get air ___

A

Out; in

104
Q

What conditions can restrict lung function?

A

-High spinal cord injury (C3-C5)
-Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis
-Duchenne’s Muscular Dystrophy
-Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis
-Dust (silicosis, asbestosis, pneumoconiosis)
-Kyphoscoliosis
-Fractured ribs

105
Q

What are three possible causes of a volume problem?

A

-Chest wall cannot move normally
-Muscles and nerves do not work
-Lung tissue is fibrous/dust filled

106
Q

With restrictive diseases, there is ___ volume in and ____ volume out, but a normal speed of respiration

A

Less, less

107
Q

What are three consequences of restrictive lung diseases?

A

-Tidal volume is decreased
-CO2 is not flushed from the lungs
-Acid-base balance is affected

108
Q

Restrictive lung diseases cause ___ ___

A

Respiratory acidosis

109
Q

Respiratory acidosis causes ___ PaCO2 and ____ pH

A

Increased; decreased

110
Q

With restrictive lung disease, the airway is not ____, so simple measures may help increase tidal volume

A

Obstructed

111
Q

What are some options to increase tidal volume?

A

-Mouth held support during the day
-Mask at night (avoids trach)
-Mechanical ventilation at night (no mouth held support during the day)

112
Q

Mouth held support during the day supplements tidal volume to remove ___

A

CO2

113
Q

Decreases in ____ estimates severity of restrictive lung diseases

A

FVC (forced vital capacity)

114
Q

Classifications of severity for restrictive lung diseases:

A

-Mild: FVC <80-70%
-Moderate: FVC <70-55%
-Severe: FVC < 55%

115
Q

Lower limit of normal for lung disease:

A

-5th percentile OR
- <80% predicted FEV1 and FVC OR
- <70% predicted FEV1/FVC

116
Q

With an obstructive pattern, there is ___ air in and ____ rate of expiration

A

Less, slower

117
Q

With a restrictive pattern, there is ___ air in and a ____ rate of expiration

A

Less, normal

118
Q

If FEV1/FVC is less than lower limit nomal, it would be an ____ lung disease

A

Obstructive

119
Q

If FVC is less than lower limit normal for an obstructive disease, it would be _____ or ___ ____

A

Obstructive or mixed volumes

120
Q

If FVC is greater than the lower limit normal, this would indicate…

A

-Mild disease or asthma

121
Q

If FEV1/FVC is greater than the lower normal limit and FVC is less than lower normal limit, this would indicate ____ lung disease

A

Restrictive

122
Q

If FEV1/FVC is greater than the lower normal limit and FVC is greater than the lower normal limit, this would indicate…

A

Normal lung function

123
Q

With inflammation of the upper airway structures, there is a risk of ___ ___

A

Airway obstruction

124
Q

Why does inflammation of the upper airway cause a risk of airway obstruction?

A

-Inflammation narrows the airway
-Anatomy restricts ability to expand
-Trachea incomplete rings
-Cricoid cartilage complete ring

125
Q

The risk of airway obstruction is more common in ___, since their airway is shorter and narrower

A

Children

126
Q

What age group is at the highest risk for developing croup?

A

6 months-3 years

127
Q

If there is a family history of croup, someone is ___ times more likely to develop croup

A

3.2

128
Q

With croup, the virus infects the ___ ___

A

Nasal mucosa

129
Q

The croup virus then spreads to the ___ and ___

A

Larynx and trachea

130
Q

Croup causes ____ and narrows airways in the subglottic region (below the vocal cords)

A

Inflammation

131
Q

The ___ ___ is rigid and cannot expand with croup

A

Cricoid cartilage

132
Q

The hallmark of croup is “___ ___”

A

Steeple sign

133
Q

With croup, we should evaluate the severity of what symptoms?

A

-Cough (occasional or frequent)
-Stridor/noisy breathing (none, at rest)
-Retractions (none, mild, marked)
-Agitation (none, at rest)

134
Q

Therapy to manage mild croup:

A

-Fluids
-Humidity
-Antipyretics

135
Q

Therapy to manage severe croup:

A

-Steriods
-Nebulized epinephrine

136
Q

Who is at risk for epiglottitis:

A

-Immunocompromised
-Child not immunized (Haemophilus influenzae)

137
Q

Pathogenesis of epiglottitis:

A

-Bacteria infection
-Rapidly progresses
-Cellulitis (edema, narrows airway)
-Life-threatening airway obstruction

138
Q

What should you evaluate to determine the severity of epiglottitis?

A

-Visualize epiglottis in a safe setting
-Drooling/anxiety
-Signs and symptoms of infection

139
Q

How is epiglottitis managed?

A

Antibiotics

140
Q

What is an example of an obstructive disease secondary to altered breathing?

A

Sudden Infant Death Syndrome

141
Q

___ ____ ___ ___ can either be explained or unexplained

A

Sudden Unexpected Infant Death

142
Q

___ ___ ___ ___ is sudden and unexpected death in an infant less than 1-year-old with no obvious causes after autopsy and investigation

A

Sudden Infant Dead Syndrome

143
Q

About ___% of SUID cases are SIDS

A

50

144
Q

There is the highest risk of SIDS at ___-___ months of age

A

2-4

145
Q

90% of SIDS cases occur before ___ ____ of age

A

6 months

146
Q

2018 CDC data shows that there were 3400 causes of SUID, which ___ of those being explains and ____ being unexplained

A

1300; 2100

147
Q

The 1,300 explained cases of SUID were due to…

A

Accidental suffocation (sheets, blankets)

148
Q

Of the 2100 explained cases of SUID, ____ of them were caused by SIDS

A

1300

149
Q

SIDS occurs in infants who…

A
  1. Have underlying vulnerability
  2. Experience a trigger event
  3. Are at vulnerable developmental stage of the CNS
150
Q

What are some examples of underlying vulnerability?

A

-Premature birth/low birthweight
-Deficiency in serotonin or alteration signaling
-Cardiac/genetic variants
-Arousal failure

151
Q

A premature birth/low birthweight causes delayed maturation of regions in the brain that regulate ___ ___ to hypoxia (decreased PaO2) and hypercarbia (increased PaCO2)

A

Ventilatory response

152
Q

A deficiency in serotonin or alteration signaling alters ____ in the medulla

A

Respirations

153
Q

A deficiency in serotonin or alteration signaling is associated with ____ exposure in utero

A

Nicotine (maternal smoking/2nd hand smoke)

154
Q

The trigger event common to all causes of SIDS is ___ ___, which means that the infant doesn’t turn its face or lift its head to inhale, so they inhale CO2 and go into respiratory arrest

A

Arousal failure

155
Q

____ position increases risk of arousal failure

A

Prone

156
Q

Data on SIDS is not good because we can’t conduct ___ ___ ___, so we do epidemiological research and infer from data

A

Randomized control trial

157
Q

Infant risk factors for SIDS:

A

-Low birth weight, premature
-Sleep position (prone)
-Sleep environment (sleep surface (not firm), bed-sharing, overheating, swaddling)

158
Q

What are some maternal risk factors for having a child with SIDS?

A

-Race (African American, American-Indian)
-Smoking (during pregnancy or 2nd hand smoke)
-Drug/alcohol abuse

159
Q

What is the triple risk model of SIDS?

A

-Vulnerable infant (preterm, LBW, nicotine exposure)
-Critical period (2-4 months)
-Environment (sleep environment/position)

160
Q

There is a large variation in rates of SUID between ___ and ____

A

States and countries

161
Q

What factors might impact large variations in rates of SUID?

A

-Smoking rates
-Racial/cultural factors (increased in Native Americans)
-Bed sharing

162
Q

Another example of an obstructive disease secondary to altered breathing is…

A

Sleep Disordered Breathing

163
Q

What are the two distinct stages of sleep?

A

-NREM
-REM

164
Q

____ predominates in the first 1/3 of the night, while ____ predominates in the last 1/3

A

NREM; REM

165
Q

What happens in REM sleep?

A

-Breathing is irregular
-Apneas occur in normals
-Muscle activity is reduced
-Decreased depth of breathing (tidal volume)

166
Q

Who is at risk of sleep-related breathing disorders?

A

-Those whose airway narrows during sleep
-Those who are obese
-Those with obstructive airways
-Obstructive sleep apnea

167
Q

Obstructive sleep apnea increases the risk of…

A

-Myocardial infarction
-Stroke

168
Q

The location of ___ on the tongue and lateral fat pads may narrow the airway during sleep-related breathing disorders

A

Fat

169
Q

If someone has a more narrow ____, they are at higher anatomical risk for sleep-related breathing disorders

A

Pharynx

170
Q

Critical factors in the development of sleep-related breathing disorders:

A

-Fat distribution
-Pharyngeal anatomy
-Arousal threshold
-Response to apnea

171
Q

With sleep-related breathing disorders, there is a problem with the response to increased ___; a very large level is required to stimulate respiration

A

CO2

172
Q

With ____, there is no airflow for 10 or more seconds

A

Apnea

173
Q

____ is a decrease in airflow of 50% or more accompanied by 3 or more % drop in SaO2

A

Hypopnea

174
Q

Apnea Hypopnea Index is calculated by…

A

(# apneas + # hypopneas) / hour sleep

175
Q

AHI of 5-15 per hour would indicate ___ ___ ___ ___

A

Mild Obstructive Sleep Apnea

176
Q

AHI of 15-30 would indicate ___ ___ ___ ___

A

Moderate obstructive sleep apnea

177
Q

AHI over 30 would indicate ___ ___ ___ ___

A

Severe Obstructive Sleep Apnea

178
Q

____, also known as a sleep study, is a comprehensive test used to diagnose sleep disorders

A

Polysonmography

179
Q

It is now easier for sleep disorders to be diagnosed because of ____

A

Telehealth (home sleep test, wireless data transfer, determine pulmonary artery pressure for therapy)

180
Q

What are non-invasive options to improve sleep apnea?

A

-Weight loss
-Positioning (off back)
-Pneumatic air splinting (GOLD STANDARD)
-Oral appliance to thrust jaw forward
-Medications

181
Q

What are some examples of pneumatic air splinting?

A

-CPAP
-VPAP
-APAP

182
Q

What are two examples of invasive options for sleep apnea treatment?

A

-Surgical alteration of tongue/airway
-Hypoglossal nerve stimulation

183
Q

Pneumatic air splinting helps by adding ___ ____ delivered by mask to keep the airway open

A

Positive pressure

184
Q

Pneumatic air splinting is noninvasive and highly ____

A

Effective

185
Q

What does CPAP stand for?

A

Continuous positive airway pressure

186
Q

With CPAP, there is the ____ pressure on inspiration and expiration

A

Same

187
Q

What does VPAPP stand for?

A

Variable positive airway pressure

188
Q

With VPAP, pressure ____ and can be less with expiration

A

Varies

189
Q

What does APAP stand for?

A

Adaptive positive airway pressure

190
Q

APAP adjusts volume to patient’s ___ ___

A

Tidal volume

191
Q

APAP avoids ___ ___ to set pressure

A

Titration study

192
Q

What are some examples of mask types?

A

-Full face mask
-Nose mask
-Nasal pillow

193
Q

___-___% of people abandon pneumatic air splinting within the 1st weeks

A

10-15

194
Q

Only ___-___% of people are adherent long term

A

20-40

195
Q

There has been no clear improvements past ___ years despite technical advances, behavioral interventions, and telemonitoring systems

A

20

196
Q

What does a mandibular jaw advancement do for a patient?

A

-Pulls lower jaw forward
-Repositions tongue
-Opens airway

197
Q

A mandibular jaw advancement has been shown to work with an apnea hypopnea index of ___ ___, but there is limited data to show improvement with apnea hypopnea index of severe

A

Mild moderate

198
Q

In a randomized crossover study, it was shown that the CPAP is more ____ while the mandibular jaw advancement was used more ____

A

Effective; frequently

199
Q

If symptoms of sleep apnea persist, recommend a medication called ____-___

A

Solriamfetol (Sunosi)

200
Q

Medication doesn’t improve the apnea, but helps patients ____ better

A

Sleep

201
Q

In sleep, the muscles of the ___ relax, which obstructs the airway

A

Pharynx

202
Q

____ position is a major factor in sleep apnea and the base can fall back and block the airway

A

Tongue

203
Q

What are the three parts of the new technique to stimulate the hypoglossal nerve during sleep?

A

-Impulse generator
-Sensor of intercostal muscle
-Stimulator attached to hypoglossal nerve

204
Q

What is the name of one hypoglossal nerve stimulator?

A

INSPIRE

205
Q

If symptoms of sleep apnea persist, a ____ alteration of the airway/tongue can be done

A

Surgical

206
Q

What are three consequences of sleep apnea?

A

-Cardiovascular disease risk
-Impaired glucose metabolism (high T2D risk)
-Behavioral issues (memory, attention, sleepiness, fatigue, learning difficulties)

207
Q

With obstructive sleep apnea, there is attempt to breathe, but with ____ ____ ____, there is no respiratory drive

A

Central sleep apnea

208
Q

Central sleep apnea may cause _____ ____ ____ that may be adaptive due to increased CO

A

Severe heart failure

209
Q

Management of central sleep apnea includes…

A

-Heart failure therapies
-CPAP (to prevent apnea)

210
Q

A recent trial showed that there is increased mortality in someone with central sleep apnea if they have an ejection fraction less than ___%

A

40%

211
Q

Respiratory ____ begins with respiratory insufficiency/arrest/failure (RIAF)

A

Decomposition

212
Q

Respiratory compromise is a ____ disorder

A

Progressive

213
Q

Respiratory compromise type I is…

A

Hyperventilation Compensated Respiratory Distress

214
Q

Respiratory compromise type I can be caused by…

A

-Sepsis
-CHF
-PE

215
Q

Respiratory compromise type II is…

A

Progressive Unidirectional Hypoventilation (CO2 Narcosis)

216
Q

Respiratory compromise type III is…

A

Sentinel Rapid AIrflow/SpO2 Reduction to Precipitous Fall

217
Q

Oxygenation and ventilation are two ____ processes

A

Distinct

218
Q

____ is the process of getting oxygen to the tissues and get be measured with oximetry

A

Oxygenation

219
Q

____ is the process of eliminating CO2 from the body and can be measured using capnography

A

Ventilation

220
Q

Partial pressure of arterial CO2 (PaCO2) measures CO2 dissolved in the ___ ___

A

Arterial plasma

221
Q

Partial pressure of the end-tidal COs (PetCo2) measures CO2 at ___-___

A

End-exhalation

222
Q

The PaCO2-PetCo2 ____ is established by comparing the two values (ABG to end-tidal volume)

A

Gradient

223
Q

Usually, the PaCO2-PetCo2 gradient is less than ____ mmHg since PetCo2 is usually 2-5 mmHg lower than PaCO2

A

6

224
Q

Capnometry gives a ____/____ measurement

A

Percent/numeric

225
Q

Capnography gives a ___ and ___

A

Measurement and waveform

226
Q

____ ____ gives a numerical value for end-tidal CO2 (EtCO2)

A

Wave capnography

227
Q

With wave capnography, ___ ___ is sampled directly from the airway

A

Respiratory rate

228
Q

With wave capnography, there is a ___ ___ for each breath

A

CO2 waveform

229
Q

It is sometimes said that waveform capnography is the ___ of respiration

A

EKG

230
Q

The ___ ___ test is a test for risk factors of sleep apnea; a score of 3 or more indicates high risk

A

STOP BANG

Pathophysiology (18 decks)

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