Pulmonary (part 2) Flashcards

1
Q

___ ___ is the most common lethal genetic disorder of white people

A

Cystic Fibrosis

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2
Q

Cystic fibrosis affects ____ people worldwide

A

70,000

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3
Q

In the U.S, there are ____ people with CF

A

30,000

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4
Q

Cystic fibrosis is an ___ ___ disorder

A

Autosomal recessive

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5
Q

CF is caused by a gene defect where there is a lack or a malfunction of _____ gene

A

CFTR

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6
Q

CFTR regulates the movement of ___ and ___ within cells in the airway

A

Cl- and HCO3

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7
Q

A mutation in CFTR gene causes…

A

-Defective Cl- and HCO3 secretion
-Enhanced Na+ reabsorption

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8
Q

The defects caused by CFTR mutation cause…

A

-Dehydrated secretions (not mobilized)
-Promoties bacterial infection
-Airways become colonized

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9
Q

Class I of CF (G542X) causes ____ ___ of CFTR

A

No synthesis

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10
Q

Class II of CF (F508del) causes ___ ___ of the CFTR gene, leading to an absense of functional protein at the cell membrane

A

Reduced trafficking

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11
Q

Class III of CF (G551D) causes ___ ___, so CFTR reaches the cell membrane, but becomes unstable

A

Reduced gating

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12
Q

Class IV CF (R117H) causes ___ ___, so CFTR reaches the cell membrane, but abnormal conformation of the pore leads to disrupted ion flow

A

Decreased conductance

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13
Q

Class V CF (A455E) causes ___ ___ of CFTR

A

Reduced synthesis

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14
Q

There are over ____ mutations of the CFTR gene, all with varying severity of disease

A

2000

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15
Q

If someone had an increased sweat ____, check for genotype and categorize to guide treatment

A

Chloride

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16
Q

In class I, there is…

A

No functional CFTR created

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17
Q

In class II, CFTR is created but ____ so it does not reach the surface

A

Misfolded

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18
Q

In classes III and IV, CFTR is created, but does not move through the ____ properly

A

Channel

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19
Q

In class V, there is inefficient ____, causing little or no CFTR production

A

Splicing

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20
Q

With minimal/no CFTR function, someone might experience…

A

-Chronic sinusitis
-Severe chronic infection
-Hepatobiliary disease
-CF-related diabetes
-GI: poor absorption of nutrients
-Male infertility

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21
Q

With partially effective CFTR function, someone might experience…

A

-Chronic sinusitis
-Chronic infection
-Normal hepatobiliary function
-Pancreatitis
-Normal or minimal problems
-Male infertility

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22
Q

The medial survival age for a child born with CCF in 2019 is ____ years

A

48

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23
Q

No other lung disease has seen such a dramatic ___ over time than CF

A

Improvement

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24
Q

What are we doing right for CF?

A

-CF centers: nationwide care model
-Newborn screening
-Family-clinician partnerships
-CF foundation- education and research
-High % participate in clinical trials

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25
Q

Since 2011, there have been ___ new drug targets for CFTR malfunction

A

3

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26
Q

____ is a potentiator drug that increases the time it takes for the CFTR channel to open

A

Ivacaftor (Kalydeco)

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27
Q

Ivacaftor (Kalydeco) has been shown to only be effective for CF class ___

A

III (G55ID)

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28
Q

Triple therapy includes ____ ____ and a ____; this has been effective for about 90% of patients for 6 or more years

A

2 correctors; potentiator

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29
Q

One example of a triple therapy is ____

A

Trikafta

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30
Q

Outcomes of Tricofta:

A

-Increased forced expiratory volume
-Decreased sweat chloride
-No dose-limiting side effects

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31
Q

The purpose of “vest” therapy is to ___ ___

A

Mobilize sputum

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32
Q

Vest therapy utilizes ___ ___ ___ ___ ___

A

High-frequency chest wall oscillation (HFCWO)

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33
Q

Vest therapy has shown to be highly effective in ____ ____

A

Secretion removal

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34
Q

We want to decrease ____ of the secretions in the lungs to reduce sputum-colonized bacteria

A

Viscosity

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35
Q

To control infection, ____ are recruited and release DNA filaments covered with neutrophil elastase (neutrophil extracellular traps)

A

Neutrophils

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36
Q

The goal is to kill bacteria over a ____ area

A

Wider

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37
Q

The problem is that ____ causes lung destruction and the process creates a low O2 environment

A

Elastase

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38
Q

The low O2 environment promotes growth of _____ _____ and biofilm; once this occurs, eradication is impossible

A

Pseudomonas. aeruginosa

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39
Q

Dornase (Pulmozyme) is a drug that can decrease sputum viscosity by…

A

-Breaking down neutrophil extracellular traps
-Decreasing viscosity of purulent sputum
-Making secretions easier to cough up

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40
Q

Dornase (Pulmozyme) is administered via ____ 1-2 times per day

A

Nebulizer

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41
Q

A ____ ____ trial was done to try and decrease viscosity

A

Hypertonic saline

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42
Q

The rationale for using hypertonic saline is that it may cause…

A

-Excessive sodium reabsorption would draw more moisture into the airways (water follows sodium)

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43
Q

Result of the hypertonic saline trial:

A

-Higher forced vital capacity, higher forced expiratory volume
-56% fewer pulmonary exacerbations
-Osmotic effect, H2O hydrates airways

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44
Q

It is also important to reduce ___ ___ for patients with CF

A

Bacterial load

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45
Q

How can we prevent between patient bacterial spread?

A

-Contact precautions
-Physical separation of patients
-Masks in health care settings
-Good hand hygiene

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46
Q

We can use ____ to reduce airway inflammation

A

Azithromycin

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47
Q

We can also use ___ ___ ___ if pseudomonas is present

A

Cyclic inhaled antibiotics

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48
Q

In patients with CF, we should also try to prevent ___ ___ and maintain fitness

A

Weight loss

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49
Q

Those with CF lack ____ ___, which may cause fat malabsorption and failure to thrive

A

GI enzymes

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50
Q

The median survival age in the USA is ___ years while it is ____ in Canada

A

40.6; 50.9

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51
Q

The difference between survival rates is due to…

A

-Earlier adoption of high-fat, high-calorie diet
-Difference in health care systems (private vs national health care)

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52
Q

The benefits of a lung transplant depend on…

A

-Lung function (clear advantage if forced expiratory volume < 40%)
-Age at transplant (better survival over age 30)

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53
Q

Asthma is very common and affects ___ million people including 5.5 million children

A

24.7

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54
Q

____ is defined as variable airflow limitation and airway hyperresponsiveness due to exaggerated contractile response of airways

A

Asthma

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55
Q

Asthma causes…

A

-Bronchoconstriction
-Airway inflammation
-Mucus secretion

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56
Q

There can be both ___ and ____ triggers of asthma

A

Allergic and non-allergic

57
Q

Allergic triggers of asthma might be due to limited ____ exposure as a child or exposure to an allergen

A

Biodiversity

58
Q

Non-allergic triggers of asthma might be due to…

A

-Exposure to an irritant (gas, chemical, dust)
-Exercise-induced
-Obesity related

59
Q

Pathophysiology of allergic asthma:

A

-Initial allergen exposure
-Allergen-specific IgE antibodies synthesized and secreted
-IgE antibodies bind to high-affinity receptors on mast cells
-Allergen in inhaled, cross-links on mast cell surface
-Followed by mediator release
-Inflammatory cells (eosinophils) enter airway

60
Q

Non-allergic asthma is caused by a _____ airway

A

Hyperreactive

61
Q

With non-allergic asthma, a trigger can be…

A

-An irritant like gas, chemicals, or dush
-Decreased airway surface liquid (exercise, cold air)

62
Q

Non-allergic asthma responds with _____

A

Bronchoconstriction

63
Q

Prevalence of asthma has been ____

A

Increasing

64
Q

It is thought that asthma is becoming more common because of exposure to less ____ as a child (AKA “Hygiene Hypothesis”)

A

Biodiversity

65
Q

People who are predisposed to asthma favor ____ cytokines

A

Th2

66
Q

What may predispose a child to asthma?

A

-No siblings
-No daycare
-No pets
-“clean home” lifestyle
-Antibiotic use

67
Q

People who are not predisposed to asthma favor ___ cytokines

A

Th1

68
Q

What would decrease risk of asthma for children?

A

-Older siblings
-Early day care
-Pets
-Farm life

69
Q

In a study done in Europe, compared to those who lived in the city, adults who lived on a farm had…

A

-Less atopic (allergic) asthma
-Less bronchial hyper-responsiveness
-Less allergic rhinitis

70
Q

In an RCT, a daily patch with 250 ug of peanut protein was given to children with peanut allergy and this allowed children to tolerate food peanuts at ___ ___ (35% tolerated a higher dose)

A

12 months

71
Q

Because of this peanut allergy study, the FDA approved the drug ____, which allows peanut-allergic children to tolerate 1-2 peanuts per day without a reaction

A

Palforzia

72
Q

The goal for asthma is “___ ___’

A

Well controlled

73
Q

What are the first steps in treating asthma?

A

-Confirm asthma diagnosis
-Reduce trigger exposure
-Monitor level control

74
Q

The Assessment of Symptoms Control for asthma a questionnaire that asks “in the past 4 weeks, have you had…

A

-Daytime symptoms > 2 x per week?
-Any night wakening due to asthma?
-Symptoms reliever > 2 x per week?
-Any activity limitations due to asthma?
(DASA)

75
Q

Well-controlled asthma will have ____ of the symptoms listed in the assessment of symptom control

A

0

76
Q

Partially-controlled asthma will have __-__ of the symptoms listed in the assessment of symptom control

A

1-2

77
Q

Uncontrolled asthma will have __-__ of the symptoms listed in the assessment of symptom control

A

3-4

78
Q

A ____ ___ ____ provides objective measure of the extent of airflow compromise and can be used at home by patients (very inexpensive- $20)

A

Peak flow meter

79
Q

The green zone of a peak flow meter would be ___-___% of the patient’s personal best

A

80-100

80
Q

The yellow zone of a peak flow meter would be ___-___% of the patient’s personal best

A

50-80

81
Q

The red zone of a peak flow meter would be <___% of the patient’s personal best

A

50

82
Q

What are two types of inhalers?

A

-Pressurized (MDI): propelled by gas
-Dry powder (PDI): inhaled as powder

83
Q

Steps for using a PDI (dry powder inhaler):

A

-Open so you can see the mouthpiece
-Load medication (click, twist, etc.)
-Gently breathe out
-Do not exhale into the device
-Seal lips around the mouthpiece
-Inhale rapidly and deeply
-Hold breath 10 seconds to deposit
-Remove from mouth and exhale
-If powder remains, repeat
-Wait 1 minute between puffs

84
Q

Steps for using a MDI (pressurized inhaler):

A

-Remove the cap and hold the inhaler upright
-Shake the inhaler vigorously for 5 seconds
-Tilt your head back slightly and breathe out
-Place the inhaler in the mouth
-Press down as you inhale
-Breath in slowly
-Hold breath for 10 seconds to deposit
-Wait 1 minute between puffs
-Once a week, remove, rinse, and dry

85
Q

Standard therapy for asthma:

A

-Inhaled corticosteriod (ICS)
-Long-acting beta agonist (LABA)
-Leukotriene receptor antagonist (LTRA)

86
Q

Inhaled corticosteroids decrease ____ ____ (chronic)

A

Airway inflammation

87
Q

Long-acting beta agonists stimulate b2 adrenergic receptors in order to…

A

-Increase cAMP
-Cause smooth muscles surrounding bronchi to relax

88
Q

Leukotriene receptor antagonists block the action of ____, which are inflammatory chemicals that cause asthma on contact with allergen

A

Leukotrienes

89
Q

What are three treatment options for well-controlled asthma?

A
  1. SMART (single maintenance and reliever therapy): dual inhaler inhaled corticosteroid/formoterol (LABA) for symptom relief; (has to be formoterol-> 5-minute action)
  2. Inhaled corticosteroid + short-acting beta agonist (2 inhalers) prn for symptom relief
  3. Inhaled corticosteroid bid + short acting beta agonist prn
90
Q

There is commonly poor adherence to treatment option #___ (inhaled corticosteroid bidaily plus short-acting beta agonist prn)

A

3

91
Q

Overuse of ___ ___ ___ ____ can be deadly and is a major risk factor for increased emergency room visits and mortality

A

Short-acting beta agonists

92
Q

Mean age for somone who dies from asthma is ___ years

A

32

93
Q

What gender and race have higher incidence of deaths from asthma?

A

-Males
-African Americans

94
Q

___% of asthma deaths are due to using or overusing short-acting beta agonists

A

91

95
Q

Standard therapy for treating poorly-controlled asthma:

A
  1. Inhaled corticosteroids (ICS)
  2. Add long-acting beta-agonist (LABA)
  3. Add leukotriene receptor agonists (LTRA)
  4. Increase inhaled corticosteroid dose
  5. Check eosinophil level (may need biologic therapy)
96
Q

Severe asthma is ___ ___

A

Therapy resistant

97
Q

With severe asthma, there is increased levels of ___ and ___

A

IgE and eosinophils

98
Q

Severe asthma is sometimes called “____ ___”

A

Eosinophilic asthma

99
Q

What medication options can be used for severe asthma?

A

-IL-4
-IL-5
-IL-13

100
Q

What are three treatment options for well-controlled severe asthma?

A

-Inhaled corticosteroid and formoterol (SMART)
-Inhaled corticosteroid prn and short-acting beta agonist prn
-Inhaled corticosteroid bid and short-acting beta agonist prn

101
Q

What are treatment options for poorly controlled severe asthma?

A

-Inhaled corticosteroid
-Long-acting beta-agonists
-Leukotriene receptor antagonist
-If eosinophil level is high: Anti IgE or Anti IL-5, Anti IL-4, Anti IL-13

102
Q

What are some environmental risk factors for COPD?

A

-Cigarette smoke
-Air pollution
-Biomass fuels

103
Q

What are some genetic risk factors for COPD?

A

-Low lung function in early adulthood (forced expiratory volume < 80%)
-AAT deficiency

104
Q

An AAT deficiency causes greater lung tissue ____

A

Breakdown

105
Q

Treatment for AAT deficiency includes…

A

-Infusion
-Lung transplant

106
Q

Pathology of COPD:

A

-Irritants release free radicals
-This inactivates anti-proteases which increases tissue breakdown
-Neutrophils are then recruited (differs from asthma) and they release elastase which increases tissue breakdown

107
Q

COPD also causes systemic ____

A

Inflammation

108
Q

What are the symptoms of COPD?

A

-Lung hyperinflation
-Accelerated loss of forced expiratory volume as well as FEV1/FVC
-Systemic impact (skeletal muscle dysfunction)

109
Q

With COPD, there is expiratory flow limitation which results in progressive increase in ___-___ ___ ___ above its resting value

A

End-expiratory lung volume

110
Q

COPD is diganosed with an FEV1/FVC < ____%

A

70%

111
Q

The severity of COPD is determined by decreases in ____

A

FEV1

112
Q

What are possible impacts on lung function with COPD?

A

-Rapid decline of FEV1
-Slow decline of FEV1
-No decline of FEV1

113
Q

What are possible areas of the lung involved with COPD?

A

-Upper lobe
-Lower lobe
-Upper and lower lobe

114
Q

What are possible response to therapy with COPD?

A

-Frequent or few exacerbations
-Variable symptom burden

115
Q

Medication for COPD is based on what three things?

A

-Phenotype
-Endotype
-Precision medicine

116
Q

The use of ____ ___ for treatment of COPD depends on the area of the lung involved

A

Bronchial valves

117
Q

High-resolution computed tomography is used to determine if someone meets criteria for bronchial valves; what are the criteria?

A
  • > 40% destruction of target lobe
  • > 90% intact fissure between target and ipsilateral lobes
    -No vessels cross adjacent lobe
118
Q

Using a ____, a valve is inserted into the airway so allow air to flow out, but not in

A

Bronchoscope

119
Q

The bronchoscope progressively ____ the lobe and allows for more functional lung expansion

A

Deflates

120
Q

Bronchial valves can ____ forced expiratory volume and ____ dyspnea

A

Increase; decrease

121
Q

COPD patients may have elevated levels of blood ____

A

Eosinophils

122
Q

People with COPD also have inflammation driven by ____ and/or ____

A

Neutrophils; eosinophils

123
Q

Standard therapy for COPD:

A

-Short-acting inhaler (rapid onset, 4-6 hours)
-Long-acting bronchodilator (12-24 hours)

124
Q

Examples of short-acting inhalers:

A

-Short-acting beta agonists (SABA): albuterol
-Short-acting antimuscarinic (SAMA): Ipratropium

125
Q

Short-acting beta agonists stimulate b2 adrenergic receptors and increase ____ and decrease ____

A

cAMP; BC (bronchiole constriction)

126
Q

Short-acting antimuscarinic targets muscarinic receptor to decrease ___ ___

A

Bronchiole constriction

127
Q

Long-acting beta-agonists and long-acting antimuscarinic operate on with the ___ ___ same short-acting

A

Same mechanism

128
Q

The new recommendation for those with COPD is a 2 drug regimen made up of ____ and ____

A

LABA and LAMA

129
Q

The two drug regimen for COPD has been shown to…

A

-Have better symptom control
-Reduces hospitalizes 11%
-Reduced exacerbation risk 17%
-Less dyspnea, improves HRQoL
-However, more costly

130
Q

The IMPACT trial looked at the outcome of 3 drug therapy (LABA, LAMA, ICS); this study showed that three-drug therapy ____ exacerbations but ____ rates of pneumonia

A

Decreased; increased

131
Q

Who does best on a 3 drug regimen?

A
  • > 1 exacerbation/year
    -Eosinophils > 150 cells per uL (2-3%)
132
Q

Primary risk reduction for COPD is ___ ___

A

Smoking cessation

133
Q

All COPD patients benefit from regular ___ ___ and should repeatedly be encouraged to remain active

A

Physical activity

134
Q

Why is exercise so difficult for someone with COPD?

A

-Air trapping (increased end-expiratory lung volume)
-Dynamic hyperinflation (can’t fully exhale)
-Ventilatory limitation (exercise stop secondary to dyspnea)
-Muscle deconditioning

135
Q

The goal of pulmonary rehab is to promote ____ through self-management skills, exercise training, and reducing dyspnea

A

Activity

136
Q

COPD is the most common indication for ___ ___

A

Lung transplant

137
Q

Survival time with a lung transplant is about ___ years and it is difficult to judge the best time to do it

A

6

138
Q

Average survival time of someone with CF who had a transplant is ____ years

A

9.9