Pulmonary (part 2) Flashcards

1
Q

___ ___ is the most common lethal genetic disorder of white people

A

Cystic Fibrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Cystic fibrosis affects ____ people worldwide

A

70,000

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

In the U.S, there are ____ people with CF

A

30,000

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Cystic fibrosis is an ___ ___ disorder

A

Autosomal recessive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

CF is caused by a gene defect where there is a lack or a malfunction of _____ gene

A

CFTR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

CFTR regulates the movement of ___ and ___ within cells in the airway

A

Cl- and HCO3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

A mutation in CFTR gene causes…

A

-Defective Cl- and HCO3 secretion
-Enhanced Na+ reabsorption

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

The defects caused by CFTR mutation cause…

A

-Dehydrated secretions (not mobilized)
-Promoties bacterial infection
-Airways become colonized

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Class I of CF (G542X) causes ____ ___ of CFTR

A

No synthesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Class II of CF (F508del) causes ___ ___ of the CFTR gene, leading to an absense of functional protein at the cell membrane

A

Reduced trafficking

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Class III of CF (G551D) causes ___ ___, so CFTR reaches the cell membrane, but becomes unstable

A

Reduced gating

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Class IV CF (R117H) causes ___ ___, so CFTR reaches the cell membrane, but abnormal conformation of the pore leads to disrupted ion flow

A

Decreased conductance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Class V CF (A455E) causes ___ ___ of CFTR

A

Reduced synthesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

There are over ____ mutations of the CFTR gene, all with varying severity of disease

A

2000

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

If someone had an increased sweat ____, check for genotype and categorize to guide treatment

A

Chloride

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

In class I, there is…

A

No functional CFTR created

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

In class II, CFTR is created but ____ so it does not reach the surface

A

Misfolded

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

In classes III and IV, CFTR is created, but does not move through the ____ properly

A

Channel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

In class V, there is inefficient ____, causing little or no CFTR production

A

Splicing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

With minimal/no CFTR function, someone might experience…

A

-Chronic sinusitis
-Severe chronic infection
-Hepatobiliary disease
-CF-related diabetes
-GI: poor absorption of nutrients
-Male infertility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

With partially effective CFTR function, someone might experience…

A

-Chronic sinusitis
-Chronic infection
-Normal hepatobiliary function
-Pancreatitis
-Normal or minimal problems
-Male infertility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

The medial survival age for a child born with CCF in 2019 is ____ years

A

48

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

No other lung disease has seen such a dramatic ___ over time than CF

A

Improvement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What are we doing right for CF?

A

-CF centers: nationwide care model
-Newborn screening
-Family-clinician partnerships
-CF foundation- education and research
-High % participate in clinical trials

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Since 2011, there have been ___ new drug targets for CFTR malfunction
3
26
____ is a potentiator drug that increases the time it takes for the CFTR channel to open
Ivacaftor (Kalydeco)
27
Ivacaftor (Kalydeco) has been shown to only be effective for CF class ___
III (G55ID)
28
Triple therapy includes ____ ____ and a ____; this has been effective for about 90% of patients for 6 or more years
2 correctors; potentiator
29
One example of a triple therapy is ____
Trikafta
30
Outcomes of Tricofta:
-Increased forced expiratory volume -Decreased sweat chloride -No dose-limiting side effects
31
The purpose of "vest" therapy is to ___ ___
Mobilize sputum
32
Vest therapy utilizes ___ ___ ___ ___ ___
High-frequency chest wall oscillation (HFCWO)
33
Vest therapy has shown to be highly effective in ____ ____
Secretion removal
34
We want to decrease ____ of the secretions in the lungs to reduce sputum-colonized bacteria
Viscosity
35
To control infection, ____ are recruited and release DNA filaments covered with neutrophil elastase (neutrophil extracellular traps)
Neutrophils
36
The goal is to kill bacteria over a ____ area
Wider
37
The problem is that ____ causes lung destruction and the process creates a low O2 environment
Elastase
38
The low O2 environment promotes growth of _____ _____ and biofilm; once this occurs, eradication is impossible
Pseudomonas. aeruginosa
39
Dornase (Pulmozyme) is a drug that can decrease sputum viscosity by...
-Breaking down neutrophil extracellular traps -Decreasing viscosity of purulent sputum -Making secretions easier to cough up
40
Dornase (Pulmozyme) is administered via ____ 1-2 times per day
Nebulizer
41
A ____ ____ trial was done to try and decrease viscosity
Hypertonic saline
42
The rationale for using hypertonic saline is that it may cause...
-Excessive sodium reabsorption would draw more moisture into the airways (water follows sodium)
43
Result of the hypertonic saline trial:
-Higher forced vital capacity, higher forced expiratory volume -56% fewer pulmonary exacerbations -Osmotic effect, H2O hydrates airways
44
It is also important to reduce ___ ___ for patients with CF
Bacterial load
45
How can we prevent between patient bacterial spread?
-Contact precautions -Physical separation of patients -Masks in health care settings -Good hand hygiene
46
We can use ____ to reduce airway inflammation
Azithromycin
47
We can also use ___ ___ ___ if pseudomonas is present
Cyclic inhaled antibiotics
48
In patients with CF, we should also try to prevent ___ ___ and maintain fitness
Weight loss
49
Those with CF lack ____ ___, which may cause fat malabsorption and failure to thrive
GI enzymes
50
The median survival age in the USA is ___ years while it is ____ in Canada
40.6; 50.9
51
The difference between survival rates is due to...
-Earlier adoption of high-fat, high-calorie diet -Difference in health care systems (private vs national health care)
52
The benefits of a lung transplant depend on...
-Lung function (clear advantage if forced expiratory volume < 40%) -Age at transplant (better survival over age 30)
53
Asthma is very common and affects ___ million people including 5.5 million children
24.7
54
____ is defined as variable airflow limitation and airway hyperresponsiveness due to exaggerated contractile response of airways
Asthma
55
Asthma causes...
-Bronchoconstriction -Airway inflammation -Mucus secretion
56
There can be both ___ and ____ triggers of asthma
Allergic and non-allergic
57
Allergic triggers of asthma might be due to limited ____ exposure as a child or exposure to an allergen
Biodiversity
58
Non-allergic triggers of asthma might be due to...
-Exposure to an irritant (gas, chemical, dust) -Exercise-induced -Obesity related
59
Pathophysiology of allergic asthma:
-Initial allergen exposure -Allergen-specific IgE antibodies synthesized and secreted -IgE antibodies bind to high-affinity receptors on mast cells -Allergen in inhaled, cross-links on mast cell surface -Followed by mediator release -Inflammatory cells (eosinophils) enter airway
60
Non-allergic asthma is caused by a _____ airway
Hyperreactive
61
With non-allergic asthma, a trigger can be...
-An irritant like gas, chemicals, or dush -Decreased airway surface liquid (exercise, cold air)
62
Non-allergic asthma responds with _____
Bronchoconstriction
63
Prevalence of asthma has been ____
Increasing
64
It is thought that asthma is becoming more common because of exposure to less ____ as a child (AKA "Hygiene Hypothesis")
Biodiversity
65
People who are predisposed to asthma favor ____ cytokines
Th2
66
What may predispose a child to asthma?
-No siblings -No daycare -No pets -"clean home" lifestyle -Antibiotic use
67
People who are not predisposed to asthma favor ___ cytokines
Th1
68
What would decrease risk of asthma for children?
-Older siblings -Early day care -Pets -Farm life
69
In a study done in Europe, compared to those who lived in the city, adults who lived on a farm had...
-Less atopic (allergic) asthma -Less bronchial hyper-responsiveness -Less allergic rhinitis
70
In an RCT, a daily patch with 250 ug of peanut protein was given to children with peanut allergy and this allowed children to tolerate food peanuts at ___ ___ (35% tolerated a higher dose)
12 months
71
Because of this peanut allergy study, the FDA approved the drug ____, which allows peanut-allergic children to tolerate 1-2 peanuts per day without a reaction
Palforzia
72
The goal for asthma is "___ ___'
Well controlled
73
What are the first steps in treating asthma?
-Confirm asthma diagnosis -Reduce trigger exposure -Monitor level control
74
The Assessment of Symptoms Control for asthma a questionnaire that asks "in the past 4 weeks, have you had...
-Daytime symptoms > 2 x per week? -Any night wakening due to asthma? -Symptoms reliever > 2 x per week? -Any activity limitations due to asthma? (DASA)
75
Well-controlled asthma will have ____ of the symptoms listed in the assessment of symptom control
0
76
Partially-controlled asthma will have __-__ of the symptoms listed in the assessment of symptom control
1-2
77
Uncontrolled asthma will have __-__ of the symptoms listed in the assessment of symptom control
3-4
78
A ____ ___ ____ provides objective measure of the extent of airflow compromise and can be used at home by patients (very inexpensive- $20)
Peak flow meter
79
The green zone of a peak flow meter would be ___-___% of the patient's personal best
80-100
80
The yellow zone of a peak flow meter would be ___-___% of the patient's personal best
50-80
81
The red zone of a peak flow meter would be <___% of the patient's personal best
50
82
What are two types of inhalers?
-Pressurized (MDI): propelled by gas -Dry powder (PDI): inhaled as powder
83
Steps for using a PDI (dry powder inhaler):
-Open so you can see the mouthpiece -Load medication (click, twist, etc.) -Gently breathe out -Do not exhale into the device -Seal lips around the mouthpiece -Inhale rapidly and deeply -Hold breath 10 seconds to deposit -Remove from mouth and exhale -If powder remains, repeat -Wait 1 minute between puffs
84
Steps for using a MDI (pressurized inhaler):
-Remove the cap and hold the inhaler upright -Shake the inhaler vigorously for 5 seconds -Tilt your head back slightly and breathe out -Place the inhaler in the mouth -Press down as you inhale -Breath in slowly -Hold breath for 10 seconds to deposit -Wait 1 minute between puffs -Once a week, remove, rinse, and dry
85
Standard therapy for asthma:
-Inhaled corticosteriod (ICS) -Long-acting beta agonist (LABA) -Leukotriene receptor antagonist (LTRA)
86
Inhaled corticosteroids decrease ____ ____ (chronic)
Airway inflammation
87
Long-acting beta agonists stimulate b2 adrenergic receptors in order to...
-Increase cAMP -Cause smooth muscles surrounding bronchi to relax
88
Leukotriene receptor antagonists block the action of ____, which are inflammatory chemicals that cause asthma on contact with allergen
Leukotrienes
89
What are three treatment options for well-controlled asthma?
1. SMART (single maintenance and reliever therapy): dual inhaler inhaled corticosteroid/formoterol (LABA) for symptom relief; (has to be formoterol-> 5-minute action) 2. Inhaled corticosteroid + short-acting beta agonist (2 inhalers) prn for symptom relief 3. Inhaled corticosteroid bid + short acting beta agonist prn
90
There is commonly poor adherence to treatment option #___ (inhaled corticosteroid bidaily plus short-acting beta agonist prn)
3
91
Overuse of ___ ___ ___ ____ can be deadly and is a major risk factor for increased emergency room visits and mortality
Short-acting beta agonists
92
Mean age for somone who dies from asthma is ___ years
32
93
What gender and race have higher incidence of deaths from asthma?
-Males -African Americans
94
___% of asthma deaths are due to using or overusing short-acting beta agonists
91
95
Standard therapy for treating poorly-controlled asthma:
1. Inhaled corticosteroids (ICS) 2. Add long-acting beta-agonist (LABA) 3. Add leukotriene receptor agonists (LTRA) 4. Increase inhaled corticosteroid dose 5. Check eosinophil level (may need biologic therapy)
96
Severe asthma is ___ ___
Therapy resistant
97
With severe asthma, there is increased levels of ___ and ___
IgE and eosinophils
98
Severe asthma is sometimes called "____ ___"
Eosinophilic asthma
99
What medication options can be used for severe asthma?
-IL-4 -IL-5 -IL-13
100
What are three treatment options for well-controlled severe asthma?
-Inhaled corticosteroid and formoterol (SMART) -Inhaled corticosteroid prn and short-acting beta agonist prn -Inhaled corticosteroid bid and short-acting beta agonist prn
101
What are treatment options for poorly controlled severe asthma?
-Inhaled corticosteroid -Long-acting beta-agonists -Leukotriene receptor antagonist -If eosinophil level is high: Anti IgE or Anti IL-5, Anti IL-4, Anti IL-13
102
What are some environmental risk factors for COPD?
-Cigarette smoke -Air pollution -Biomass fuels
103
What are some genetic risk factors for COPD?
-Low lung function in early adulthood (forced expiratory volume < 80%) -AAT deficiency
104
An AAT deficiency causes greater lung tissue ____
Breakdown
105
Treatment for AAT deficiency includes...
-Infusion -Lung transplant
106
Pathology of COPD:
-Irritants release free radicals -This inactivates anti-proteases which increases tissue breakdown -Neutrophils are then recruited (differs from asthma) and they release elastase which increases tissue breakdown
107
COPD also causes systemic ____
Inflammation
108
What are the symptoms of COPD?
-Lung hyperinflation -Accelerated loss of forced expiratory volume as well as FEV1/FVC -Systemic impact (skeletal muscle dysfunction)
109
With COPD, there is expiratory flow limitation which results in progressive increase in ___-___ ___ ___ above its resting value
End-expiratory lung volume
110
COPD is diganosed with an FEV1/FVC < ____%
70%
111
The severity of COPD is determined by decreases in ____
FEV1
112
What are possible impacts on lung function with COPD?
-Rapid decline of FEV1 -Slow decline of FEV1 -No decline of FEV1
113
What are possible areas of the lung involved with COPD?
-Upper lobe -Lower lobe -Upper and lower lobe
114
What are possible response to therapy with COPD?
-Frequent or few exacerbations -Variable symptom burden
115
Medication for COPD is based on what three things?
-Phenotype -Endotype -Precision medicine
116
The use of ____ ___ for treatment of COPD depends on the area of the lung involved
Bronchial valves
117
High-resolution computed tomography is used to determine if someone meets criteria for bronchial valves; what are the criteria?
- >40% destruction of target lobe - >90% intact fissure between target and ipsilateral lobes -No vessels cross adjacent lobe
118
Using a ____, a valve is inserted into the airway so allow air to flow out, but not in
Bronchoscope
119
The bronchoscope progressively ____ the lobe and allows for more functional lung expansion
Deflates
120
Bronchial valves can ____ forced expiratory volume and ____ dyspnea
Increase; decrease
121
COPD patients may have elevated levels of blood ____
Eosinophils
122
People with COPD also have inflammation driven by ____ and/or ____
Neutrophils; eosinophils
123
Standard therapy for COPD:
-Short-acting inhaler (rapid onset, 4-6 hours) -Long-acting bronchodilator (12-24 hours)
124
Examples of short-acting inhalers:
-Short-acting beta agonists (SABA): albuterol -Short-acting antimuscarinic (SAMA): Ipratropium
125
Short-acting beta agonists stimulate b2 adrenergic receptors and increase ____ and decrease ____
cAMP; BC (bronchiole constriction)
126
Short-acting antimuscarinic targets muscarinic receptor to decrease ___ ___
Bronchiole constriction
127
Long-acting beta-agonists and long-acting antimuscarinic operate on with the ___ ___ same short-acting
Same mechanism
128
The new recommendation for those with COPD is a 2 drug regimen made up of ____ and ____
LABA and LAMA
129
The two drug regimen for COPD has been shown to...
-Have better symptom control -Reduces hospitalizes 11% -Reduced exacerbation risk 17% -Less dyspnea, improves HRQoL -However, more costly
130
The IMPACT trial looked at the outcome of 3 drug therapy (LABA, LAMA, ICS); this study showed that three-drug therapy ____ exacerbations but ____ rates of pneumonia
Decreased; increased
131
Who does best on a 3 drug regimen?
- > 1 exacerbation/year -Eosinophils > 150 cells per uL (2-3%)
132
Primary risk reduction for COPD is ___ ___
Smoking cessation
133
All COPD patients benefit from regular ___ ___ and should repeatedly be encouraged to remain active
Physical activity
134
Why is exercise so difficult for someone with COPD?
-Air trapping (increased end-expiratory lung volume) -Dynamic hyperinflation (can't fully exhale) -Ventilatory limitation (exercise stop secondary to dyspnea) -Muscle deconditioning
135
The goal of pulmonary rehab is to promote ____ through self-management skills, exercise training, and reducing dyspnea
Activity
136
COPD is the most common indication for ___ ___
Lung transplant
137
Survival time with a lung transplant is about ___ years and it is difficult to judge the best time to do it
6
138
Average survival time of someone with CF who had a transplant is ____ years
9.9