Pulmonary #9 (PE, ARDS, Sleep Apnea) Flashcards

1
Q

A pulmonary embolism is an obstruction of the pulmonary blood flow due to a blood clot. 70% arise from

A

the deep vein in the legs

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2
Q

Risk factors for a PE (Virchow’s Triad)

A

-Intimal damage: trauma, infection, inflammation
-Stasis: immobilization, surgery, sitting > 4 hours
-Hypercoagulability: OCP use, malignancy, pregnancy, smoking, Factor V Leiden, antithrombin III deficiency

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3
Q

Symptoms of a PE

A

-Triad of sudden onset dyspnea (MC), pleuritic chest pain, hemoptysis
-Tachypnea (MC)
-Fever, tachycardia
-Positive Homan Sign

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4
Q

Although CXR is usually done first to evaluate the chest pain, it is usually normal. A Normal CXR in the setting of ______ is highly suspicious of a PE

A

hypoxia

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5
Q

What are two classic but rare findings on CXR for a PE?

A

Westermark’s sign: avascular markings distal to the PE

Hampton’s Hump: wedge-shaped infiltrate due to infarction

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6
Q

What is seen on ECG for a PE?

A

Nonspecific ST/T changes and sinus tachycardia MC

S1Q3T3 (wide deep S in lead 1, isolated Q and T wave inversion in lead III)

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7
Q

ABG for PE shows

A

Respiratory alkalosis + hypoxemia

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8
Q

When should you do a d-dimer for a PE?

A

ONLY if negative and a low suspicion for a PE

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9
Q

What is the BEST initial test to confirm a PE

A

Helical (spiral) CT angiography

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10
Q

When should you perform a V/Q scan?

A

When CT can’t be performed (pregnancy, increased creatinine).

-If negative, proceed to angiography. If positive = PE

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11
Q

GOLD standard diagnostic for PE

A

Pulmonary angiography (not usually performed)

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12
Q

What is the first-line therapy in most patients with a PE?

A

Anticoagulation (Heparin bridge plus Warfarin or a novel anticoagulant such as Dabigatran, Rivaroxaban, Apixaban, or Edoxaban)

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13
Q

However, an IVC filter should be used in 3 patients

A

-If anticoagulation is contraindicated: recent bleed, bleeding disorder
-Anticoagulation is unsuccessful
-If RV dysfunction seen on echocardiogram (the next embolus can be fatal)

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14
Q

If the patient is hemodynamically unstable (SBP < 90, RV dysfunction, etc.), what should be done

A

Thombolysis with LMWH or Thombectomy/Embolectomy

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15
Q

MOA of LMWH

A

Potentiates antithrombin III

-Duration of action 12 hours
-DO NOT USE if renal failure present

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16
Q

What is the antidote for LMWH

A

Protamine Sulfate

17
Q

Unfractionated Heparin (UFH), also potentiates antithrombin III, but also inhibits ….

A

thrombin and other coagulation factors

18
Q

UFH has a duration of action of

A

1 hour after IV drip is discontinued

19
Q

True or False: With LMWH, you do not need to monitor INR. With UFH, PTT must be at 1.5 - 2.5x normal value.

20
Q

Antidote for UFH

A

Protamine Sulfate

21
Q

What criteria are used for PE probability?

A

Well’s Criteria

3 points each: Symptoms of DVT, #1 diagnosis

1.5 points each: HR > 100, Immobilization for 3 days or surgery within 4 weeks, previous DVT or PE

1 point each: hemoptysis, malignancy diagnosed

Low < 2 points –> d-dimer
Moderate 2-6 points –> CTA or d-dimer
High > 6 points –> CTA

22
Q

What are some examples of ways to prophylaxis against PE?

A

Early ambulation: low risk, minor procedures in patients < 40 years old

Elastic stockings/compression devices: moderate risk

LMWH: orthopedic or neurosurgery, trauma

23
Q

Acute respiratory distress syndrome MC develops in

A

critically ill patients (Gram-negative sepsis MC, severe trauma, pancreatitis, near drowning, etc)

24
Q

Symptoms of ARDS

A

-Acute dyspnea and hypoxemia
-Multi-organ failure if severe

25
What are the three main components to diagnose ARDS?
-Severe hypoxemia refractory to supplemental oxygen -CXR: bilateral diffuse pulmonary infiltrates (spares costophrenic angles) Absence of cardiogenic pulmonary edema: pulmonary capillary wedge pressure < 18 mm hG with right heart catheterization
26
Treatment for ARDS
-Noninvasive or mechanical ventilation + treat underlying cause (CPAP will full face mask, PEEP, and low tidal volume)
27
PEEP (positive end-expiration pressure) improves _______ by preventing alveolar collapse, which improves the V/Q mismatch and increases functional residual capacity
Hypoxemia
28
Risk factors for sleep apnea
Obesity (strongest risk factor) Males Age (in 60's and 70's)
29
Differentiate central sleep apnea and obstructive sleep apnea
-Central: reduced CNS respiratory drive leads to decreased respiratory effort -Obstructive: physical airway obstruction (due to increased tonsil size, deviated septum, external airway compression, decreased pharyngeal muscle tone)
30
Symptoms of sleep apnea
-Snoring -Unrestful sleep -Daytime sleepiness -Nocturnal choking -Large neck circumference -Crowded oropharynx -Micrognathia (lower jaw undersized)
31
First-line diagnostic test for sleep apnea
In-lab polysomnography (15 or more events/hr)
32
Labs for sleep apnea show________, due to chronic hypoxemia
Polycythemia (increased RBCs)
33
What scale is used to determine a patient's perception of fatigue and sleep?
Epworth sleepiness scale
34
Treatment for Sleep Apnea
-behavioral changes: weight loss, abstaining from alcohol, change sleep positioning -CPAP (mainstay of treatment) -Surgical correction of tracheostomy is the definitive treatment.
35
How to prevent meconium aspiration in an infant
Prevention of postterm delivery (>41 weeks) via labor induction and prevention of fetal hypoxia