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Martha Phase 2a > PTS SBA 2 corrections/notes > Flashcards

PTS SBA 2 corrections/notes Flashcards

1
Q

three cardinal signs of heart failure

A

shortness of breath, fatigue, ankle oedema

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2
Q

first line treatment for patients over 55 or of afrocaribbean descent

A

CCB- amlodipine

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3
Q

6ps of critical limb ischaemia

A

Pain
pallor
paralysis
paraesthesia
perishingly cold
pulselessness

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4
Q

four key features of tetralogy

A

ventricular septal defect
pulmonary stenosis
hypertrophy of right ventricle
overriding aorta

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5
Q

does autoimmune gastritis cause peptic ulcers

A

NO

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6
Q

what is the first line investigation for large bowel obstruction

A

abdominal xray

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7
Q

when do duodenal ulcers cause pain

A

cause pain several hours after eating as the acid from the stomach passes over it.
the pain is relieved by eating

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8
Q

what does blood present on wiping indicate

A

haemmorhoids

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9
Q

will hypervolaemia or hypovolaemia cause AKI?

A

hypovolaemia

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10
Q

why is trimethoprim avoided in pregnancy?

A

it is teratogenic in the first trimester as it inhibits folate synthesis

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11
Q

is nephrotic syndrome associated with polycystic kidney disease?

A

NO

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12
Q

list the risk factors for DVT?

A

recent surgery, immobilisation/leg fracture, oestrogens, malignancy, history of DVT or PE, long haul flights, inherited thrombophillia

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13
Q

what is the treatment for thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura? (TTP)

A

URGENT plasma exchange

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14
Q

which protein does rituximab target?

A

CD20! only found on B cells.

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15
Q

what does rituximab treat?

A

non hodgkins lymphoma, CLL

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16
Q

treatment for severe/complicated malaria?

A

IV artesunate

17
Q

what is oral chloroquine used to treat?

A

uncomplicated malaria

18
Q

what reactions are mast cells found in?

A

allergic reactions- they release histamine

19
Q

when do neutrophils dominate a reaction?

A

during acute inflammation

20
Q

which cells dominate chronic inflammation

A

B lymphocytes, macrophages, T lymphocytes

21
Q

is atrial fibrillation linked to liver failure?

A

NO

22
Q

which condition are kayser fleischer rings found in?

A

Wilsons disease- deposits of copper around the iris of the eye

23
Q

how is ascending cholangitis and biliary colic differentiated

A

ascending cholangitis presents with charcots triad: jaundice, RUQ and fever with rigors.

24
Q

what can alendronic acid cause?

A

a bisphosphonate: it can cause oesophagitis

25
Q

what is ‘pencil in a cup’ X ray indicative of?

A

arthritis mutilans (severe psoriatic arthritis)

26
Q

how does pseudogout present

A

acute onset monoarthritis, often in the knee.
fever
unlike gout there is not normally a trigger

27
Q

what are risk factors for pseudogout?

A

hyperparathyroidism, hypothyroidism, hemochromatosis, electrolyte imbalances such as hypomagnesemia and hypophosphatemia, osteoarthritis, old age and prior joint injury

28
Q

what is the first line treatment for generalised seixures

A

sodium valporate

29
Q

is an intention tremor (shaking when reaching for something) indicative of PD

A

NO- a resting tremor (pill rolling) is present in PD

30
Q

what is the differential between compression of spinal cord and cauda equina syndrome

A

there is sensory loss in compression, one dermatome below the compression.

31
Q

does lymphoedema cause peripheral neuropathy?

A

no- it is swelling of the arms or legs due removal of the lymph nodes

32
Q

how long can you wait to use ALTEPLASE on a patient with a suspected stroke

A

should be administered within 4.5 hours of symptoms onset.
EXCLUDE haemorrhagic cause first via head CT!

33
Q

what are the most common bacterial organisms which cause infective exacerbations of COPD?

A

-Haemophilus influenzae (most common cause)
- Streptococcus pneumonia
- Moraxella catarrhalis
Respiratory viruses account for 30% of COPD exacerbations with rhinovirus being the most common
viral cause.

34
Q

what is used to asses the support provided to patients with an exacerbation of COPD?

A

ABG sampling

35
Q

what type of drug is salbutamol

A

short acting beta agonist- works on beta 2 adrenergic receptors in lungs.

36
Q

what side effects can salbutamol have?

A

it is not completely selective so can cause tachycardia and a tremor. it can also cause hypokalaemia

37
Q

what is the most common form of lung cancer?

A

Adenocarcinoma- in both smokers and non smokers.

38
Q

Name the CURB65 criteria

A

Confusion (<8/10 on abbreviated mental test score)
UREA >7mmol/L
Resp rate >30/min
Blood pressure: systolic <90 mmHg and/or diastolic <60mmHg
Aged >65 yo

Martha Phase 2a (10 decks)

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