PTN - Antimicrobials (Drake) Flashcards

1
Q

What is the difference between broad spectrum and narrow spectrum antibiotics?

A

Broad spectrum antibiotics work on a wide variety of different bacteria that are both gram positive and gram negative.

Narrow spectrum antibiotics target specific bacterial cell mechanisms, making them more effective against certain types of bacteria over others.

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2
Q

What is a porin and how does it contribute to antibiotic resistance?

A

A porin is a membrane transport protein that is used to excrete antibiotic drugs from the bacterial cell before they can induce their antimicrobial effect.

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3
Q

What are the major structural differences between Gram positive and Gram negative bacteria?

A
  • Gram positive bacteria have one cell-membrane and a thick peptidoglycan layer
    • They also contain teichoic and lipoteichoic acids, which act as exotoxins
  • Gram negative bacteria have 2 cell membranes (an inner and an outer) and a thin peptidoglycan layer
    • They have lipopolysaccharide (an endotoxin)
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4
Q

What are the 4 main targets of antibacterial drugs?

A
  1. Inhibition of bacterial cell wall synthesis
  2. Selective inhibition of prokaryotic DNA/mRNA/protein synthesis
  3. Inhibition of folate synthesis
  4. Cell membrane disruption
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5
Q

What is the minimum inhibitory concentration (MIC) and how is it calculated?

A

MIC is the concentration of antibacterial drug at which no visible growth of bacteria is evidenced.

This is calculated by doing a serial dilution of antibacterial concentrations in a nutrient broth. Bacteria cloud up the broth, so the tubes are examined for no cloudiness. The first dilution with no cloudiness is the MIC.

Simply reverse the dilution number to get the titer (ex: 1:20 dilution –> titer of 20)

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6
Q

You are working in a microbiology lab and are trying to determine the minimum inhibitory concetration (MIC) of penicillin on a strain of bacteria. You perform a serial dilution and your results are below. What is the dilution and titer of the MIC for this bacteria?

A

To determine the MIC, simply look for the first tube that appears clear.

In this case, the dilution is 1:8, so the titer is 8.

So the MIC is 8

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7
Q

What is the minimal bactericidal concentration (MBC) and his is it determined?

A

The MBC is the concentration of drug required to kill 99.9% of a certain type of bacteria (essentially a bacteriocide).

This is done by performing a serial dilution to determine the MIC. Next, culture broth with no visible growth in it is cultured on an agar plate. The dilution/titer that shows no growth on the agar is the MBC.

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8
Q

What does “time above MIC” mean in terms of an antibacterial drug?

A

The time that the drug is active

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9
Q

What are 3 pharmacokinetic factors to consider when deciding which antibacterial drug to prescribe?

A
  1. Location of infection - drug needs to be able to reach target
  2. Renal and hepatic function - alters drug clearance and metabolism
  3. Route of administration - how well the drug is absorbed via GI vs IV
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10
Q

What is time-dependent killing and what property is it commonly associated with?

A

Time dependent killing - bactericidal activity continues as long as the plasma concentration of drug is greater than MIC.

Commonly associated with cell wall synthesis inhibitors (penicillin, vancomycin, etc.)

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11
Q

What is concentration-dependent killing and what property is this associated with?

A

Concentration-dependent killing - rate and extent of killing increases as the peak drug concentration increases.

Associated with drugs that inhibit protein/DNA synthesis (aminoglycosides, fluoroquinolones, etc.)

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12
Q

What are some local host factors that should be considered when prescribing an antibacterial agent?

A
  • Physical barriers - cell debris, biofilms
  • Chemical factors - antimicrobial agents
    • Pus inactivates aminoglycosides
    • PABA inactivates sulfonamides
  • Blood flow to site of infection - impaired flow limits penetration of antibiotic
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13
Q

True or False: Patients with neutropenia, AIDS, or other immune system disorders are typically not treated with bacteriostatic drugs.

A

True

Some of these drugs tend to impair the immune system when used at high doses.

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14
Q

True or False: Very young and very old patients respond atypically to certain bacteriostatic drugs.

A

True

Need to consider the patient’s age when determining which antibacterial drug to use.

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15
Q

What are 4 considerations that should be taken into account when prescribing pregnant women with antibacterial drugs?

A
  1. Altered volume of distribution - increaed blood volume
  2. Toxicity to mother - tetracyclines, erythromycin
  3. Toxicity to fetus - tetracyclines, aminoglycosides
  4. Transmission of drugs from mother to baby via breast feeding
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16
Q

What class of antibiotics is the most common type to cause drug allergic reactions?

A

Penicillins

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17
Q

What are 3 bacterial mechanisms of inherent drug resistance?

A
  1. Microbe lacks target for drug
  2. Modification of drug by microbial enzymes
  3. Lack of accumulation of drug - efflux pumps
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18
Q

What are the 4 primary mechanisms that allow bacteria to acquire resistance to antibiotics?

A
  1. Mutation of drug target - most common
  2. Transduction - transfer of drug resistance genes from one bacteria to another via bacteriophage
  3. Transformation - uptake by sensitive bacteria of drug resistance plasmids in the immediate environment
  4. Conjugation - passage of resistance genes from direct cell-cell contact
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19
Q

What are the 3 bacterial pathogens that are considered to be of urgent threat level by the CDC?

A
  1. C. difficile
  2. Carbapenem-resistant enterobacteriaceae (CRE)
  3. Drug-resistant Neisseria gonorrhea
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20
Q

What are some examples of misuse of antimicrobial agents that can lead to resistant bacteria?

A
  1. Using antibacterials on a viral infection
  2. Treating a fever of undetermined origin (in absence of signs of infection)
  3. Improper dosage
  4. Treating with drugs without draining an abscess
  5. Failure to ID organism and drug sensitivity
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21
Q

What is the most common reason to use antimicrobial prophylaxis?

A

Prevention of wound infections during surgery

Prophylaxis is also used for organ transplant patients, chemotherapy patients, patients with lesions predisposing endocarditis, and to prevent infection when a person is exposed to a pathogen (ex: gonorrhea)

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22
Q

What is the goal of treatment with multiple antimicrobial agents in patients with bacterial infections?

A

To prevent the emergence of antibacterial resistant bacteria

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23
Q

What are some disadvantages to treatment of bacterial infections with multiple drugs?

A
  1. Drug antagonism - when one drug inactivates the function of another drug
    1. Ex: giving a bacteriostatic drug with a bactericidal drug (these only kill dividing cells) - stopping cells from dividing limits function of bactericidal drug
  2. Unnecessary patient exposure - toxic side effects and the possibility of patient developing an allergy to the medication
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24
Q

What is a superinfection and how is it caused?

A

A superinfection is the emergence of resistant organisms after reduction of normal flora by antimicrobial agents.

Elimination of normal gut flora makes it easier for pathogens to invade and cause disease.

Examples of superinfecting bacteria: Staph. aureus, Candida albicans, and Clostridium difficile

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25
Q

What is a bacteriocin and what does it do?

A

Bacteriocins are substances made by commensal bacteria that prevent the growth of pathological organisms.

Elimination of bacteriocin production makes it easier for superinfections to occur.

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26
Q

True or False: The likelihood of superinfection is directly related to the width of antibacterial spectrum of the drug.

A

True

The broader spectrum of bacteria that are killed by the drug, the more likely that superinfection will occur because more bacteria will be erradicated.

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27
Q

What are 2 characteristics of an ideal antimicrobial drug?

A
  1. Cannot lead to resistance
  2. Does not disrupt patient’s health
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28
Q

How to beta-lactam antibiotics work to inhibit bacterial infections?

A

Beta-lactams inhibit bacterial cell wall synthesis

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29
Q

What is the advantage of using Penicillin V over Penicillin G?

A

Penicillin V (PenVK) is designed to be more stable in acidic environments, making it more easily absorbed in the gut.

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30
Q

Describe the process of peptidoglycan synthesis.

A
  • Peptidoglycan are composed of monomeric subunits of amino acids within the cytoplasm
  • These monomeric units are transported out of the cytoplasm and into the periplasmic space (space between cell membrane and peptidoglycan layer/outer membrane.
  • These units are linked together via a process called transpeptidation
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31
Q

What is transpeptidation and which enzyme is responsible for this process?

A

Transpeptidation is the cross-linking of monomers of peptidoglycan to form the outer layer of gram positive and gram negative cells.

Enzyme: transpeptidase

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32
Q

What enzyme do penicillin drugs target and how do bacterial cells develop resistance to this class of drugs?

A

Transpeptidase

Penicillins inactivate transpeptidases, which prevents peptidoglycan from being cross-linked. This prevents cell wall formation.

Bacteria can develop penicillinases, which cleave penicillin and inactivate it.

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33
Q

What are the 5 penicillinase resistant penicillin drugs?

A
  1. Oxacillin
  2. Dicloxacillin
  3. Cloxacillin
  4. Nafcillin
  5. Methicillin
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34
Q

What are the 2 broad spectrum penicillins and what do they target?

A
  1. Amoxicillin
  2. Ampicillin

Target Gram negative bacteria

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35
Q

What is the primary mechanism of excretion of penicillin drugs?

A

Kidneys

Penicillins are excreted in the urine without chemical modification

36
Q

Why are penicillin drugs contraindicated in patients with end-stage renal disease?

A

Penicillin drugs are primarily excreted in the urine.

Kidney damage decreases excretion of penicillins, increasing the half-life and side effects.

37
Q

What are the most common side effects of Penicillins?

A
  1. Nausea
  2. Vomiting
  3. Diarrhea
  4. Black hairy tongue
  5. CNS (in large doses) - reduces inhibition of GABA, causing seizures
38
Q

How is the penicillin antigen formed?

A

Penicillin bonds to an L-lysine residue, producing a stable complex

Binding of the lysine with penicillin creates a foreign peptide, which is presented to immune cells to initiate production of antibodies.

39
Q

What are the primary symptoms caused by the formation of the penicillin antigen?

A
  1. Anaphylaxis - most common
  2. Skin eruptions - urticaria, rash
  3. Nephritis and hepatitis
  4. Hemolysis and leukopenia
40
Q

What two drugs make up augmentin and how does it combat penicillin resistance?

A

Augmentin = clavulanic acid + amoxicillin

Clavulanic acid directly inhibits beta-lactamases, which increases the half-life of amoxicillin.

41
Q

What is the mechanism of action of cephalosporins?

A

Same as penicillins

Inhibit transpeptidation of proteoglycan layer to inhibit bacterial cell wall production

42
Q

Describe cephalosporin toxicity and how it is related to penicillin toxicity.

A

Cephalosporins have the same mechanism of action as penicillins, meaning that those who are allergic to penicillins are more likely to be allergic to cephalosporins as well.

Typically causes: anaphylaxis, rash, and granulocytosis

43
Q

Describe the route of administration of cephalothin (a 1st generation cephalosporin) and its advantage over other first generation cephalosporins?

A

Cephalothin is a parenteral injection

Advantage: it is highly resistant to staphylococcal beta-lactamases

The other 1st gen cephalosporins are susceptible to beta-lactamases

44
Q

Which type of bacteria are 1st generation cephalosporins best at treating? What about 2nd generation?

A
  • 1st generation - treat gram positive bacteria
    • Staph
  • 2nd generation - treat gram negative bacteria
    • H. influenza, Enterobacter, E. coli, Klebsiella
45
Q

What are the 4 first generation cephalosporins?

A
  1. Cephalothin
  2. Cefazolin
  3. Cephalexin (Keflex)
  4. Cefadroxyl
46
Q

What are the 4 second generation cephalosporins?

A
  1. Cefamandole
  2. Cefuroxime
  3. Cefoxitin
  4. Cefaclor
47
Q

List the 3 types of 3rd generation cephalosporins. What are they good at treating?

A
  1. Cefotaxime
  2. Cefoperazone/Ceftazidime
  3. Ceftriaxone

Used to treat gonorrhea and Pseudomonas aeruginosa

48
Q

What is the name of the 4th generation cephalosporin and what is it used to treat?

A

Cefepime

Used to treat gram negative organisms in vitro.

Highly resistant to beta-lactamases

49
Q

True or False: 1st generation cephalosporins are used as prophylaxis during and after surgery.

A

True

50
Q

When should cephalosporins be considered to treat a patient?

A

For patients with penicillin allergies

This can be used to treat Staph and strep infections in patients that can’t tolerate penicillin

51
Q

What are 3 adverse reactions to cephalosporins?

A
  1. Hypersensitivity
  2. Nephrotoxicity
  3. Disulfuram reaction - cannot mix cephalosporins with alcohol
52
Q

What are carbapenems and what is their mechanism of action?

A

Carbapenems are non-penicillin, non-cephalosporin antibiotics.

They function by inhibiting beta-lactamases (same as penicillins and cephalosporins)

53
Q

What is cilistatin and why is it used in conjunction with carbapenem drugs?

A

Cilistatin is a dehydropeptidase inhibitor.

Carbapenem drugs are hydrolyzed by dehydropeptidases in the kidney, making them more easily excreted in the urine.

Cilistatin increases the half-life of carbapenems.

54
Q

True or False: There is an emerging resistant strain of Klebsiella pneumoniae tha has a beta-lactamase that can cleave carbapenems.

A

True

Normally, beta-lactamases cannot cleave carbapenems. This is what makes them good alternatives to penicillin.

55
Q

What is the route of administration of carbapenem drugs and which types of bacteria do they work best on?

A

Parenteral injection

Work best on both gram positive and gram negative bacteria

Staph, strep, listeria, enterobacter, pseudomonas, etc.

56
Q

What are the two unique features of Aztreonam?

A
  1. It preserves normal anaerobic and gram positive flora of the gut
    1. Kills aerobic gram negative
  2. Considered safe to use in penicillin-sensitive patients
57
Q

How is aztreonam administered and which types of bacteria does it work best on?

A

Intramuscular or IV

Almost exclusively kills gram negative rods

Pseudomonas aeruginosa, enterobacter, Haemophilus influenzae, and gonococcal infections

58
Q

What is bacitracin’s mechanism of action and how is it administered?

A

Bacitracin inhibits a phosphatase which is required for cell wall synthesis.

Bacitracin is administered topically as a cream

59
Q

How does fosfomycin work and what are some advantages to its use?

A

Fosfomycin inhibits MurA, an enzyme that catalyzes the first committed step in peptidoglycan synthesis. This prevents a cell wall from being formed.

Advantages:

  1. Safe in pregnant patients
  2. Single dose is sufficient to kill most UTI pathogens
60
Q

How does vancomycin work and what type of bacteria is it most effective against?

A

Vancomycin binds D-ala-D-ala of monomers of peptidoglycan to inhibit cell wall polymerization.

Most effective against gram positive bacteria and penicillin resistant Staph aureus and strep.

61
Q

What are the toxic side effects of a rapid IV dose of vancomycin?

A
  1. Red-man syndrome: macular rash, anaphylaxis, shock-like state
  2. Fever and chills
  3. Ototoxicity and nephrotoxicity
62
Q

What property of vancomycin is exploited in the treatment of C. difficile infections?

A

Vancomycin is not absorbed if taken orally

This increases the concentration of vancomycin in the intestines where C. diff lives.

63
Q

What is the main use of vancomycin?

A

Treatment of MRSA infections

64
Q

What are 2 disadvantages to giving vancomycin?

A
  1. It is very expensive
  2. There are strains of Enterococci that are developing resistance - can be transferred to other bacteria via plasmid
65
Q

Which bacterial gene confers Methicillin-Resistance to MRSA and how is it transferred?

A

MecA gene

Transferred via transduction or conjugation

66
Q

What does the mecA gene encode for and how is it involved in methicillin-resistance?

A

mecA gene encodes for a transpeptidase that binds beta-lactam drugs at a site other than the active site

This allows beta-lactam drugs to bind, but does not inhibit the transpeptidase from doing its job

67
Q

What are 2 mechanisms in addition to the mecA gene that cause methicillin-resistance?

A
  1. Decreased permeability to antibiotics
  2. Efflux pumps that pump drug out of the cell before it can take effect
68
Q

Which antibiotic is MRSA most resistant to?

A

Erythromycin

69
Q

Community acquired MRSA infections can be treated with which 3 drugs?

A
  1. Tetracyclines
  2. Clindamycin
  3. Co-trimoxazole (sulfamethoxazole + trimethoprim)
70
Q

What is the basis of selective toxicity of bacteriocidal drugs such as penicillin, aztreonam, and vancomycin?

A

Mammalian cells do not have cell walls.

These drugs target cell walls, which means that they will only affect bacterial cells and not host cells.

71
Q

Which drug inhibits peptidoglycan monomer formation?

A

Fosfomycin

72
Q

Which 2 drugs prevent polymerization of peptidoglycan monomers?

A
  1. Vancomycin
  2. Bacitracin
73
Q

Which 4 drugs inhibit cross-linking (transpeptidation) of peptidoglycan, the last step in forming the cell wall?

A
  1. Penicillins
  2. Cephalosporins
  3. Imepenem
  4. Aztreonam
74
Q

All sulfonamides are structural analogs of which molecule?

A

para-Aminobenzoic acid (PABA)

PABA is needed to synthesize folic acid, which is required for DNA synthesis.

75
Q

How to sulfonamides treat bacterial infections?

A

It inhibits folate synthesis, which decreases tetrahydrofolate, preventing bacteria from replicating DNA

76
Q

True or False: Mammals have PABA biosynthetic enzymes.

A

False

Mammals lack PABA biosynthetic enzymes, so they get folate from diet.

77
Q

What are the 4 reactions in which tetrahydrofolate participate?

A
  1. Conversion of glycine to serine
  2. Conversion of homocysteine to methionine
  3. De novo purine synthesis
  4. Conversion of dUMP to TMP
78
Q

Is sulfamethoxazole more effective against bacteriostatic bacteria or actively dividing bacteria?

A

Actively dividing bacteria

Sulfamethoxazole is a bacteriocidal drug.

79
Q

What is a clinical manifestation of sulfamethoxazole toxicity and why is it caused?

A

Nephrotoxicity due to formation of crystals in kidney

Caused because sulfamethoxazole is concentrated in the kidneys. It is rapidly absorbed, but slowly excreted. Slow excretion plus concentration makes the drug prone to crystallize out of solution in the renal tubules.

80
Q

How does sulfamethoxazole resistance typically occur?

A

Gram negative bacteria have plasmids with mutated dihydropteroate synthase genes.

This altered enzyme has low affinity for sulfonamides.

Other possible mutations can cause: overproduction of PABA or decreased permeability of the drug

81
Q

What is co-trimoxazole and why is it more beneficial than treating with a regular sulfonamide?

A

Co-trimoxazole = sulfamethoxazole + trimethoprim

Sulfamethoxazole inhibits dihydropteroate synthase, an enzyme that converts PABA into dihydropteroic acid (DHPA).

Trimethoprim inhibits the enzyme dihydrofolate reductase, an enzyme further down in the tetrahydrofolate synthesis pathway.

Using both prevents the possibility of a bacteria being resistant to one or the other.

82
Q

How is trimethoprim selectively toxic to only bacterial cells?

A

Low doses of trimethoprim only inhibit bacterial dihydrofolate reductase (DHFR) enzymes.

Concentrations 10,000-100,000x the normal dose are required to inhibit mammalian DHF

83
Q

What is cotrimoxazole used to treat?

A
  1. Lower UTIs, prostatitis, and vaginitis
  2. Bacterial respiratory tract infections
  3. Gram negative bacterial sepsis
  4. GI infections
84
Q

In which patient populations is cotrimoxazole toxicity most likely to be observed?

A

Folate-deficient patients (pregnant women, alcoholics, malnourished individuals, and those with blood disorders

85
Q

How do AIDS patients typically present with cotrimoxazole toxicity?

A

Fever, rash, malaise, hyperkalemia, and pancytopenia

86
Q

What are the primary manifestations of cotrimoxazole toxicity in immune competent patients?

A
  1. Skin - exfoliative dermatitis, Stevens-Johnson syndrome, skin necrosis
  2. CNS - headache, depression, hallucination