Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

STEP Flash Cards > PT2 > Flashcards

PT2 Flashcards

1
Q

MOA for INH

A

Inhibits mycolic acid synthesis - requires mycobacterial catalase-peroxidase for the drug to be activated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

MOA for Streptomycin & how does resistance occur

A

Streptomycin = aminoglycoside that inhibits mycobacterial protein synthesis by disabling bacterial ribosomal 30S subunit; resistance via modification of 30S protein structure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Pyrazinamide MOA, indications, resistance

A

Used for TB; lowers pH in susceptible strains of tuberculosis; must be converted into an active form by bacterial pyrazinamidase - resistance via modification of that enzyme to make it structurally ineffective

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Polyarteritis nodosa (PAN) presentation

A

fever, abdominal pain, peripheral neuropathy, weight loss; associated with hepatitis B infection - you see transmural inflammation with fibrinoid necrosis - see little aneurysms within the vessels looks like ROSARY BEADS ON STRING (classic sign)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

How to measure potency of an inhaled anesthetic

A

MAC (minimum alveolar concentration) - refers to the concentration of inhalation anesthetic in the gas mixture that renders 50% of patients unresponsive to painful stimuli - corresponds to Ed50

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Krukenberg tumor

A

Malignancy in ovary (usually bilateral) that has metastisized - classically from GI Tract (gastric adenocarcinoma) - characterized by mucin-producing signet cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Minimal change disease is a highly or poorly selective disease?

A

HIGHLY selective - mostly low-molecular weight proteins (albumin & transferrin) are excreted

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Global cerebral ischemia

A

aka ischemic-hypoxic encephalopathy; long lasting hypoperfusion can lead to this - see it in the watershed areas and they appear as bilateral, wedge-shaped bands of necrosis over the cerebral convexity, just lateral to the interhemispheric fissure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Purpose of cholinergic agonists

A

stim. peristalsis in postoperative ileus; treat NON-obstructive urinary retention (aka atonic bladder); lower intraocular pressure in glaucoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Classes of dopamine agonists

A
  1. ergot compounds (bromocriptine and pergolide) 2. non-ergot compounds (pramipexole and ropinerole) - work by stim. dopamine receptors
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

MOA for selegiline

A

MAO-B inhib; prevents degradation of dopamine in the brain (central dopamine degradation)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

COMT inhib & DDI MOA

A

decrease breakdown of levodopa in peripheral tissues - thus increasing amt of levodopa available to cross BBB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Where do ACE-I’s work?

A

Dilate efferent arteriole of kidney

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Complication of neonatal respiratory distress syndrome (relating to eyes)

A

to treat respiratory distress, give oxygen supplementation - at high concentrations, this can cause retinal damage - inc. factors VEGF and cause neovascularization & possible retinal detachment!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Churg-Strauss

A

see anti-neutrophil myeloperoxidase antibodies (aka p-ANCA) - suggest polyangiitis; see mononeuropathy, asthma, eosinophilia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Trigeminal neuralgia treatment

A

Carbamazepine - pain reduction; inhib neuronal high-frequency firing (reduces ability of sodium channels to recover from inactivation)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Side effect of carbamazepine

A

aplastic anemia & agranulocytosis (order CBC frequently)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Indications for Haloperidol

A

neuroleptic; chizophrenia, acute psychoses, Tourettes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Phenobarbital indications

A

generalized tonic-clonic seizures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Histo for lactase-deficient patients

A

Normal…

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Histo for celiac disease

A

Marked atrophy of intestinal villi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Histo for Whipple’s disease

A

Distended macrophages in intestinal lamina propria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Histo for UC

A

collections of neutrophils within crypt lumina

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Histo for GI lymphoma

A

massive infiltration of intestinal lamina propria with atypical lymphocytes

25
Drugs that classically inhibit warfarin metabolism
Cimetidine, amiodarone, TMP=SMX, metronidazole
26
Drugs classically enhance warfarin metabolism - thus decreasing its efficacy
Rifampin, phenobarbital, phenytoin (universal P-450 enhancers)
27
S-100 marker
neuroendocrine origin - ex: schwannoma
28
Sarcoidosis associated with...
high serum calcitriol (active form of vitamin D) - leading to increased serum calcium levels
29
AFP associated with
hepatocellular carcinoma
30
CA-125 marker for
ovarian cancer
31
CEA marker for
CRC
32
Acid phosphatase marker for
prostate tumor; also in patients undergoing active osteoclast-initiated bone resorption
33
Treatment for mucormycosis
Amphotericin B
34
Side effects from drug used to treat mucormycosis
Renal toxicity (causes renal vasoconstriction & reduction in GFR) - hypokalemia & hypomagnesemia are 2 most serious disturbances
35
Abetalipoproteinemia is...
autosomal recessive; malabsorption, neuro deficiencies (ataxia), retinitis pigmentosa - impaired apoB synthesis (a lipid transport protein that coats chylomicrons) = inability to transport lipids from intestine - foamy cytoplasm of intestinal epi cells - serum lipid levels LOW - see acanthocytes in periph blood (def. of lipids in RBC membranes)
36
Blunting of villi indicates...
Celiac!
37
PAS+ distended macrophages w/ rod-shaped bacteria equals...
Whipple disease
38
Chron's characteristics
inflammation of ALL layers of intestinal walls, non-caseating granulomas, crypt abscesses
39
Impetigo
honey-colored crust; strep and staph generally responsible
40
Kawasaki
swollen lymph nodes, red eyes, high fevers, strawberry tongue, perioral erythema, fissuring, periungual desquamation
41
Henoch-Schonlein purpura (HSP)
most common small vessel vasculitis in children; often preceded by viral or strep URI; characterized by: abd pain, bloody diarrhea, hematemesis, bloody urine, palpable purpura on butt, joint pain
42
Progesterone & bile acid relationship
reduces gallbladder motility/emptying
43
Alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency
Primarily produced in liver - many develop panacinar emphysema (hyperlucency of lung fields) & also liver disease (jaundice) - suspect this if you have premature onset of lung problems in non-smokers; hx of neonatal hepatitis also suspicious
44
Dubin Johnson & Rotor syndrome
fairly mild course; both cause inc. CONJUGATED bilirubin levels; asymp. for most
45
Pathogenesis for alcohol-induced hepatic steatosis
triglyceride accum. in liver with DECREASED FFA oxidation & excess NADH production & impaired lipoprotein assembly
46
Amlodipine mechanism and side fx
calcium-channel blocker & can cause peripheral edema & cutaneous flushing - used to treat HTN
47
G6PD def. periph smear results
"bite cells"
48
Opiod withdrawal Sx and treatment
pupillary dilatation, rhinorrhea, sneezing, nasal stuffiness, vomiting, chills, myoclonic jerks, seizure - treat neonates with opium solution (tincture of opium)
49
Phenytoin side fx
gingival hyperplasia (increased PDGF expression), inducer of P-450, megaloblastic anemia (interferes with folic acid metab), ataxia, nystagmus
50
MOA and indications for phenytoin
anticonvulsant - treat tonic-clonic seizures, and status epilepticus; blocks voltage-gated Na channels in neurons; narrow TI
51
Glomangioma
benign glomus tumor (under nail bed) - tender, red/blue lesion - originates from modified smooth muscle that controls thermoregulatory functions
52
What produces Sx of cachexia
TNF-alpha - suppresses appetite in humans
53
Where is aq. humor produced?
epithelial cells of the cliiary body - then excreted into posterior eye chamber and through pupil into anterior chamber then trabecular meshwork through schlemm's canal and into veins
54
timolol & glaucoma mechanism
works to decrease secretion via ciliary epithelium
55
Meniere disease
inc volume of endolymph due to defective resorption; triad of 1. tinnitus 2. vertigo 3. sensorineural hearing loss (rinne test shows AC > BC - normal but weber will lateralize to healthy side)
56
Repeated sickle cell crises manifestations in spleen
fibrosis & atrophy - causes autosplenectomy in many
57
consequence of splenectomy
predisposed to infections with encapsulated bacteria (h. influ, s. pneumo, n. meningitidis, s. typhi)
58
folic acid relationship with sickle cell
pts with sickle cell more likely to have folic acid deficiency due to high RBC turnover - which can cause megaloblastic anemia (high MCV and high reticulocyte count)

STEP Flash Cards (14 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions