psychopharmacology Flashcards
1
Q
James Lange’s theory of emotion explains?
A
- a stimulus causes a physiological reaction.
- the reaction is perceived as an emotion.
2
Q
What is the facial feedback hypothesis?
A
Facial expressions associated with specific emotions initiate physiological changes that are consistent with those emotions.
e.g. smiling makes you happy
3
Q
Cannon-Bard theory of emotion explain?
A
- emotion and physiological arousal occur together, when a stimulus causes the thalmus to send signals to
a. cerebral cortex
b. sympathetic nervous system.
4
Q
Schachter and Singer’s Two-Factor Theory of Emotion?
A
cognitive arousal theory
you get physiological arousal (you put a cognitive label or attribution to it), and you get an emotion.
-dependent on external cues.
-epinephrine studies where a confederate affected the emotion or attribution of an experience.
5
Q
Explain Zillman’s excitation transfer theory?
A
Basically it means the arousal of one event can be transferred to another event.
based on three principles.
1. when aroused it decays slowly
2. residual from one event can intensify another event.
3. people have limited insight in this area.
6
Q
Lazarus congitive appraisal theory explain?
A
emotional experiences are due to different appraisal of events.
*****physiological arousal follows cognitive appraisal
7
Q
Lazarus congitive appraisal theory has three types of appraisal what are they, explain?
A
primary-evaluating the event e.g. harm, etc.
seonday-o.k. you determine it’s stressful and you evaluate your coping mechanisms.
reappraisal-monitor and maybe change your primary or secondary.
8
Q
Ledoux’s two-system theory?
A
fear theory.
-fear is caused by two separate interacting systems that respond to stimuli
-1. subcortical system, quick, survival system. (amygdala)
- cortical system, (conscious emotion) uses the senses, memory, and cognition and generates feeling of fear.
also known as the low road and high road
9
Q
what are the main brain mechanisms of emotion, what do they do?
A
cerebral cortex
left-happiness, positive emotions
right-sadness and negative
amygdala-fear and attaching emotions to memories
hypothalamus-regulates the physical signs of emotion through its communication with the autonomic nervous system and pituitary gland
10
Q
what does damage to cerebral cortex cause in terms of emotion?
A
damage to left- causes catastrophic depression, fear, anxiety, paranio.
damage to right-causes indifference, inappropriate indifference or euphoria.
11
Q
Selye’s
(1976) general adaptation syndrome of stress explain?
A
3 stages
- alarm reaction stage, increased activity of the sympathetic nervous system
- resistance stage, some parts go back to normal, cortison continues to keep body at a high level to cope.
- exhaustion stage, body breaks down.
12
Q
McEwen’s allostatic load model, thinks about stress differently explain?
A
mediated by the cerebral cortex, hypothalamus, and amygdala.
brain is the mediator
similar to general adaptation model
Allostasis-stressed
allostatic state-resistance stage
allostatic overload-exhaustion, negative effects.
13
Q
A psychology undergraduate tells his roommate who’s depressed that, if he smiles more often, he’ll feel a lot better. The student’s suggestion is consistent with the predictions of which of the following?
A. Cannon-Bard theory
B. two-factor theory
C. James-Lange theory
D. cognitive appraisal theory
A
C. James-Lange theory
14
Q
Allostasis refers to:
A. the interpretation of an event as personally important and stressful.
B. the beneficial effects of moderate (normal) levels of stress.
C. adaptive processes that maintain the body’s stability during times of stress.
D. long-term “wear-and-tear” on the body that’s caused by chronic stress.
A
C. adaptive processes that maintain the body’s stability during times of stress.
15
Q
According to Lazarus’s (1991) cognitive appraisal theory, secondary appraisal involves:
A. determining if an event is irrelevant, benign-positive, or stressful.
B. re-evaluating a primary appraisal when additional information is obtained.
C. considering what coping options are available for dealing with a stressful event.
D. determining if an emotional response to an event is appropriate.
A
C. considering what coping options are available for dealing with a stressful event.
16
Q
The __________ is responsible for attaching emotions to memories.
A. amygdala
B. hippocampus
C. thalamus
D. cingulate gyrus
A
A. amygdala
17
Q
Damage to certain areas of the left (dominant) hemisphere are most likely to cause:
A. inappropriate rage and aggression.
B. inappropriate euphoria.
C. an indifference reaction.
D. a catastrophic reaction.
A
D. a catastrophic reaction.
18
Q
Which of the following attributes the experience of emotion to physiological arousal followed by assigning a cognitive label to that arousal?
A. Schachter and Singer’s two-factor theory
B. Cannon-Bard theory
C. Lazarus’s cognitive appraisal theory
D. Hering’s opponent process theory
A
A. Schachter and Singer’s two-factor theory
19
Q
what does the hippocampus do for memory?
A
consolidation
-transfer of declarative memories from (short term working memory) to long term memory.
20
Q
What does basal ganglia, cerebellum, supplementary motor are do for memory?
A
- procedural memory
-implicit memory
damage makes it hard to learn new skills and perform previously learned skills.
21
Q
what is procedural memory?
A
the memory of how to do something
22
Q
What is prospective memory?
A
remembering to do something
23
Q
what is episodic memory?
A
remembering a specific episode or event.
24
Q
what is declarative memory?
A
conscious recall two catagories
also known as explicit memory,
semantic memory for facts and general knowledge,
episodic memory for personal experiences and specific events.
25
what does amygdala do for memory?
attaching emotions to memories
26
what does prefrontal cortex do for memory?
working memory
also important for prospective memory in particular event based.
-damage effects event based prospective memory
27
What is working memory?
the part of short-term memory which is concerned with immediate conscious perceptual and linguistic processing.
28
What does damage to the thalamus and mammary glands do?
can cause anterograde and retrograde amnesia
29
What is anterograde and retrograde amnesia?
ant means can't form new memories
retro means can't recall old memories
30
long-term potentiation (LTP) plays what role in memory
Stimulation of neurons helps in learning and memory formation.
A. formation of new memories.
31
what does RNA protein synthesis do for memory?
formation of long term memories.
32
what are the 5 stages of sleep explain
1. from wake lessness to sleep.
-alpha is replaced by theta waves
2. theta waves continue some k complexes
3. asleep for 20 delta
4. high amplitude delta, slow wave, deep sleep
5. REM after 80-90. dreams,
33
what lifespan changes occur in sleep
infants sleep allot, more REM, being with active state.
after 4-6 months and 4 stages of non rem are evident.
older adults, less time in deep sleep, more event Rem sleep, more advanced sleep phase
34
Sleep spindles and K complexes are markers of Stage ___ sleep.
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
B. 2
35
Long-term potentiation has been linked to the:
A. formation of new memories.
B. recall of emotional memories.
C. maintenance of memories in short-term memory.
D. maintenance of memories in remote long-term memory.
A. formation of new memories.
36
what is remote long term memory?
a memory that is remote meaning it can take some time to recall it.
37
Which of the following areas of the brain are most responsible for implicit memories?
A. hippocampus and prefrontal cortex
B. mammillary bodies and cerebellum
C. basal ganglia and cerebellum
D. thalamus and mammillary bodies
C. basal ganglia and cerebellum
38
What is implicit memory?
unconscious recall of a memory.
39
The primary difficulty experienced by the patient known as “H.M.” was related to which of the following?
A. maintaining information in short-term memory
B. forming new long-term declarative memories
C. recalling procedural memories
D. recalling remote long-term declarative memories
B. forming new long-term declarative memories
40
Which of the following is true about REM sleep and dreaming?
A. All dreams occur during REM sleep.
B. Most dreams occur during REM sleep and are more vivid than those that occur during non-REM sleep.
C. Most dreams occur during REM sleep but are similar in content to those that occur during non-REM sleep.
D. Dreams are equally common during REM and slow-wave sleep but are more likely to be recalled when they occur during REM sleep.
B. Most dreams occur during REM sleep and are more vivid than those that occur during non-REM sleep.
41
Damage to which of the following is likely to have the greatest adverse impact on event-based prospective memory?
A. amygdala
B. mammillary bodies
C. cerebellum
D. prefrontal cortex
D. prefrontal cortex
42
Which of the following is true about the sleep patterns of older (versus younger) adults?
A. Older adults spend more time in Stage 3 and Stage 4 sleep.
B. Older adults experience more REM sleep in the second half of the sleep period.
C. Older adults often experience an advanced sleep phase.
D. Older adults often begin a sleep period with REM sleep.
C. Older adults often experience an advanced sleep phase.
43
The cerebral cortex is divided into what parts?
left-right hemisphere
each hemisphere has four lobes.
1. frontal-front
2. occipital-back
3. temporal-top
4. parietal-bottom
44
frontal lobe is divided into what parts?
1. brocas area
2. prefrontal cortex.
3. supplementary motor cortex
4. premotor cortex
5. primary motor cortex
45
tell me about brocas' area function and what damage does.
left broca's frontal lobe
-language
damage-broca's aphasias slow laboured speech
-impaired repetition anomia, inability to recall names.
46
Pre-frontal cortex role?
-executive functioning
working memory, prospective memory
47
let's break the pre-frontal cortex into three domains. tell me about them and what damage can cause.
-dorsolateral pre-frontal cortex(dlpfc)
-orbitofrontal cortex(ofc)
-ventromedial prefrontal cortex(vmpfc)
(dlpfc)-executive functioning, damage causes concrete thinking, impaired judgement, poor planning, poor insight, working memory, and apathy.
(ofc)-emotion regulation, inhibition, social behaviours.
damage caused, impulsivity, aggression, and poor social skills.
(vmpfc) decision making, planning, memory, emotion regulation,
damage causes poor decision making, moral judgement, lack of insight.
48
what does supplementary motor cortex due?
planning and coordinating self-initiated complex movements and is active not only when people actually perform movements but also when they imagine performing them and when watching another person perform them.
49
What does premotor cortex do?
planning and coordinating complex movements that are triggered by external (sensory) stimuli.
50
What does primary motor cortex do?
executes movements by sending signals to the muscles.
51
Temporal lobe contains what key areas
auditory cortex and Wernicke’s area
Wernicke’s area is a major language area and is located in the dominant (usually left) hemisphere
52
what is Wernicke’s aphasia
receptive aphasia and fluent aphasia. People with this disorder have impaired comprehension of written and spoken language, impaired repetition, and anomia. Although their speech is fluent, it contains many word substitutions and other errors and is devoid of meaning.
53
What is conduction aphasia?
similar to warrick except opposite comprehention ok but words make no sense
54
What does parietal lobe due?
somatosensory cortex, which processes sensory information related to touch, pressure, temperature, pain, and body position
55
these disorders are in where
-somatosensory agnosias, which include tactile agnosia (an inability to recognize objects by touch),
-asomatognosia (a lack of interest in or recognition of one or more parts of one’s own body),
-anosognosia (denial of one’s illness). hemispatial neglect,
- ideomotor apraxia,
- ideational apraxia,
-Gerstmann’s syndrome
-Hemispatial neglect
parietal lobe
56
what does the occipital lobe do?
visual cortex, which processes visual information.
57
What is blindsight in the occipital lobe?
blindsight, which occurs when they do not consciously see a visual stimulus but have appropriate physiological and behavioral responses to it
58
What is prosopagnosia in occipital lobe?
prosopagnosia, which is characterized by an inability to recognize the faces of familiar people and, in some cases, one’s own face and/or the faces of pets and other familiar animals.
59
What is each hemisphere left and right responsible for?
written and spoken language, logical and analytical thinking, and positive emotions are left hemisphere functions,
while holistic thinking, intuition, understanding spatial relationships, creativity, and negative emotions are right hemisphere functions.
60
What does the corpus callosum do?
shares information between the hemispheres.
61
Wernicke’s aphasia and Broca’s aphasia share which of the following symptoms?
A. impaired repetition
B. anomia
C. impaired repetition and anomia
D. neither impaired repetition nor anomia
C. impaired repetition and anomia
62
As the result of a traumatic brain injury, a middle-aged man exhibits ________, which means he cannot recognize family members by their faces.
A. anosognosia
B. asomatognosia
C. prosopagnosia
D. Gerstmann’s syndrome
C. prosopagnosia
63
What is apraxia and where is it located?
Apraxia is an effect of neurological conditions, such as dementia, stroke, and head trauma. It causes people to be unable to carry out various movements and gestures.
parietal lobe
64
What is the difference between perception and sensation?
sensation the process by which we perceive the environment
Perception the process by which our brain makes sense of such sensation
65
explain bottom up and top down processing.
bottom up is you sense and perceive and the brain makes sense of
top down is the brain uses it's pre-existing info to make sense of the sesation perception.
its a question of whether the brain or the body is driving the bus.
66
vision tell me about cones and rods
conses bright light, visual acuity
rods light light, peripheral vision
67
theories of vision trichromatic theory
the eye see's three colours red, blue green.
68
theories of vision opponent process theory
behind the retina their are basically colour opponents to vision
red/green
blue/yellow
white/black
it explain colour blindness.
69
what is the most common type of colour blindness
males/ or females/ why
males due due recessive gene on x chromosone.
yellow/blue equal
70
depth perception
binocular cues
monocular cues
whats up with that
binocular cues are for close, and have convgence, and disparity
monocular cues are for far away
71
explain gate theory of pain
in spinal cord there is a gate small nerves send pain, and large one's don't
if its pain it close the gate
72
What is Synesthesia?
think sense
synth think sense
when one sense cause another sense to be activated
e.g listening to music and you see colours.
73
what the hell is psychophysics?
it's the relationship with how much stimuli will cause how much effect.
74
Weber's law of psychophysics?
2 percent rule of noticable difference to have an effect
its a propotionate law
e.g. 2 4 is the same 100 to 200 400 to 800
74
Signal detection theory psychodynamics?
ahhh this is not only intestity perception but also decision making.
but decision making is subject to erroy e.g. noise, fatigue, I had a bad day.
dependent of willingness, decision making
sensitity of observer
74
fechners' law of psychophysics?
same law as webers but as intensity increases it is disproportion to perception.
75
Stevens' law of pyschodynamics?
exponential relationsip between intensity and perception and it is different for different stimuli
76
Whenever Corky looks at numbers, each number elicits a different color (1 elicits red, 2 elicits blue, etc.). This is referred to as:
A. anosognosia
B. prosopagnosia
C. achromatopsia
D. synesthesia
D. synesthesia
77
In the context of signal detection theory, d’ (d-prime) is a measure of:
A. the just noticeable difference.
B. the base rate.
C. background noise.
D. sensitivity.
D. sensitivity.
78
A psychologist interested in the relationship between the magnitude of physical stimuli and psychological sensations finds that doubling the weight of an object doubles the sensation of heaviness but that doubling the brightness of a light more than doubles the sensation of brightness. This finding is most consistent with which of the following?
A. Stevens’s power law
B. Fechner’s law
C. Weber’s law
D. Gerstmann’s law
A. Stevens’s power law
79
Afterimages and red/green and blue/yellow colorblindness are explained by which of the following?
A. opponent-process theory
B. trichromatic theory
C. Weber’s law
D. Fechner’s law
A. opponent-process theory
80
Theo is not color blind but his wife, Tillie, is red-green color blind. Which of the following describes the likelihood that the biological children of Theo and Tillie will be red-green color blind?
A. Their male and female children will be red-green color blind.
B. Their male children will be red-green color blind, but their female children will not be red-green color blind.
C. Their female children will be red-green color blind, but their male children will not be red-green color blind.
D. Their male and female children may or may not be red-green color blind.
B. Their male children will be red-green color blind, but their female children will not be red-green color blind.
81
Of the following, which is most responsible for depth perception of objects that are at a close distance?
A. motion parallax
B. interposition of objects
C. retinal disparity
D. linear perspective
C. retinal disparity
82
Gate control theory is most useful for:
A. identifying ways to relieve pain.
B. identifying ways to relieve chronic stress.
C. understanding the cause of colorblindness.
D. understanding the cause of synesthesia.
A. identifying ways to relieve pain.
83
disorder tell me what it is
aphasia
anomia
agnosia
apraxia
gerstmann's syndrome
cortical blindness
prosopagnosia
aphasia -laboured speech
anomia-can't recall names and objects
agnosia-can't recognize objects
apraxia-motor disorder
gerstmann's syndrome-left right disorientation
cortical blindness-When the visual cortex in only the left hemisphere is damaged, blindness affects the right visual field, and vice versa
blindsight-don't see a object but act like we do
prosopagnosia-can't recognize familiar faces
84
What rules can be used for remembering first-generation antipsychotics
* chlorpromazine
* haloperidol
* thioridazine
* fluphenazine
zine
dol
85
What rules can be used for remembering second-generation antipsychotics
* clozapine
* risperidone
* olanzapine
* aripiprazole
pine done zole
86
What are the first-generation antipsychotics best at treating?
positve symptoms schizophrenia
87
How do first-generation antipsychotics work?
blocking dompamine d2 receptors
88
What are the three categories of side effects for FGA
Anticholinergic
Extrapyramidal
Neuroleptic malignant syndrome
89
tell me about anticholinergic side effect for FGA
dry mouth
blurred vision
urinary retention
constipation
tachycardia.
90
tell me about extrapyramidal side effect for FGA
parkinsonism (resting tremor, muscle rigidity, slowed movement),
dystonia (uncontrollable muscle contractions), akathisia (a sense of inner restlessness),
-tardive dyskinesia. Tardive dyskinesia is potentially life threatening,
-begins after long-term drug use,
-more common in women and older adults. -involuntary, rhythmic movements of the tongue, face, and jaw and, over time, may also affect the limbs and trunk.
-Tardive dyskinesia is irreversible for some patients -treated by gradually withdrawing the drug, administering a benzodiazepine, or switching to a second-generation antipsychotic.
91
Tell me about the side effects of neuroleptic malignant syndrome for FGA?
muscle rigidity, a high fever, autonomic dysfunction
sweating, overheating,
stop taking drug.
92
Are SGA effective?
yes just as good for positive symptoms and better for negative.
93
how do SGA work?
block dopamine d3 and d4 receptors, and serotonin receptors.
94
What is a SSRI
anti depressent
selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor
95
What is a SNRI
selective norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor
anti depressant
96
What is a NDRI
norepinephrine dopamine reputake inhibitor
anti-depressent
97
What is a TCA
tricylic antidepressents.
98
What is a MAOI
monamine oxidase inhibitor
99
what are the drugs for SSRI
fluoxetine
fluvoxamine
paroxetine
sertraline
citalopram
mine ines but no zines
100
SSRI can be use for what else other than depresion
ocd, panic disorder, gad, ptsd, bullimia, premature ejaculation.
101
what is an agonists
an agonist increse or produce a response
102
what is an antagonist
an antagonist inhibts a response
103
Are SSRIs safe in general?
The SSRIs are comparable to the TCAs in terms of efficacy and have several advantages: The SSRIs have fewer side effects, are safer in overdose (e.g., are less cardiotoxic), and are safer for older adults.
104
What is serotonin syndrome, like why would you not combine an SSRI with a MAOI or other serotonin drug.
Found in SSRI, potentially fatal and involves extreme agitation, confusion, autonomic instability, hyperthermia, tremor, seizures, and delirium.
stop taking it get help.
105
What is tachyphylaxis,
poop out drug intolerance after taking the drug for a while.
106
Are SNRI effective
yes as effective and better for severe depression
107
what are the SNRI drugs.
venlafaxine
duloxetine
desvenlafaxine
108
NDRI are the good (bupropion)
few anticholinergic effects, does not cause sexual dysfunction, and is not cardiotoxic
109
tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs) drugs
tertiary amines
-amitriptyline
-imipramine
-clomipramine
-doxepin (Sinequan) inhibiting the reuptake of both serotonin and norepinephrine,
Secondary amines
-nortriptyline
-desipramine
more potent at inhibiting the reuptake of norepinephrine than serotonin.
110
TCA primary side effects
cardiovascular effects
cardiotoxic
secondary is better than tertiary
111
MAOI monoamine oxidase inhibitors
drugs
phenelzine
isocarboxazid
tranylcypromine
112
Are MAOI safe
anticholinergic effects
hypertensive crisis when taken in conjunction with certain drugs (e.g., amphetamines, antihistamines) or food containing tyramine
113
A person who takes an SSRI concomitantly with an MAOI may develop serotonin syndrome, which is characterized by:
A. agitation, hyperthermia, and autonomic instability.
B. substantial weight gain, hypertension, and hyperglycemia.
C. throbbing headache, stiff neck, and light sensitivity.
D. parkinsonism, akathisia, and dystonia.
A. agitation, hyperthermia, and autonomic instability.
114
A patient with major depressive disorder is most likely to develop antidepressant poop-out during maintenance treatment when she is taking which of the following antidepressants?
A. sertraline
B. venlafaxine
C. clomipramine
D. chlorpromazine
A. sertraline
115
Clozapine and other second-generation antipsychotics are:
A. dopamine and serotonin agonists.
B. dopamine and serotonin antagonists.
C. dopamine agonists and serotonin antagonists.
D. dopamine antagonists and serotonin agonists.
B. dopamine and serotonin antagonists.
116
__________ may develop after long-term use of a first-generation antipsychotic and begins with involuntary movements of the tongue, face, and jaw.
A. Metabolic syndrome
B. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome
C. Dystonia
D. Tardive dyskinesia
D. Tardive dyskinesia
117
Compared to first-generation antipsychotics, second-generation antipsychotics are:
A. less effective for reducing the positive symptoms of schizophrenia but more effective for reducing the negative symptoms.
B. more effective for reducing the positive symptoms of schizophrenia but less effective for reducing the negative symptoms.
C. as effective or more effective for reducing the positive symptoms of schizophrenia and more effective for reducing the negative symptoms.
D. more effective for reducing the positive symptoms of schizophrenia and equally effective for reducing the negative symptoms.
C. as effective or more effective for reducing the positive symptoms of schizophrenia and more effective for reducing the negative symptoms.
118
Which of the following antidepressants is least likely to have an adverse impact on sexual functioning?
A. fluoxetine
B. phenelzine
C. paroxetine
D. bupropion
D. bupropion
119
Which of the following is true about the SSRIs and TCAs?
A. The SSRIs are more cardiotoxic than the TCAs.
B. The SSRIs are less cardiotoxic than the TCAs.
C. The SSRIs and the TCAs are similar in terms of cardiotoxicity.
D. The SSRIs and the TCAs are not cardiotoxic.
B. The SSRIs are less cardiotoxic than the TCAs
120
Which of the following best describes the differences between secondary and tertiary amines?
A. Compared to tertiary amines, secondary amines cause greater blockage of serotonin reuptake and have more side effects.
B. Compared to tertiary amines, secondary amines cause greater blockage of norepinephrine reuptake and have fewer side effects.
C. Compared to secondary amines, tertiary amines cause greater blockage of serotonin reuptake and have fewer side effects.
D. Compared to secondary amines, tertiary amines cause greater blockage of norepinephrine reuptake and have more side effects.
B. Compared to tertiary amines, secondary amines cause greater blockage of norepinephrine reuptake and have fewer side effects.
121
Bupropion (Wellbutrin) and other antidepressants that __________ have an energizing (stimulating) effect.
A. increase norepinephrine and dopamine levels
B. decrease norepinephrine and increase dopamine levels
C. increase norepinephrine and decrease dopamine levels
D. decrease norepinephrine and dopamine levels
A. increase norepinephrine and dopamine levels
122
the nervous system is split into what parts.
central nervous system
peripheral nervous systems
somatic nervous system-consciouslly controlled
autonomic nervous system
parasympathetic
sympathetic
123
what are the main parts of a neuron
axon, dendrites, cell body axon terminal
124
what is an action potential
on or off neuron potential not graded
125
what are the four types of neuroplasticity?
homologous shift- to area in other hemisphere, but other area can become overwhelmed
cross model reassignment-function of the area changes
map expansion, the area expands and recruits new neurons
compensatory masquerade-the use other compensatory skill to compensate, e.g. lose sense of direction, start memorizing landmarks.
126
dopamine neurotransmitter what do you know.
excitatory and inhibitory
movment, personality, mood, sleep, motivation
mesolimbic reward circuit
subtantial niagra parkinson's
adhd
schizophrenia
tourettes.
127
Aceycholine tell me about it
excitatory and inhibitory
movmenent, arousal, attention, memory
causes contractions
low ach in memory linked to alzeihemers
128
129
glutomate tell me about it
excitatory
movement, learning, emotions, memory
130
norepinehprine tell me
excitatory
arousal, attention, learning, stress, memory, mood
depression low norep
manin to much
131
serotonin tell me about it?
inhibitory
low levels linked to depression, suicide, ocd,
high levels found, anorexia, autism
132
gamma-aminobutyric GABA tell me about it
inhibitory
motor control, memory, mood, sleep
high levels hits memory, attention
low levels, anxiety, insomnia
133
neurotransmitter and drug effects
explain the following terms
agonists
partial agonists
inverse agonists
antagonists
agonists-increase effects
partial agonists-produce similar but weaker effect than neurotransmitter
inverse agonists-opposite effect
antagonists-no effect but block neurotransmitter.
134
The somatic nervous system conveys information from the sense organs to the central nervous system and from the central nervous system to:
A. the skeletal muscles.
B. the smooth muscles.
C. the skeletal and smooth muscles.
D. neither the skeletal nor the smooth muscles.
A. the skeletal muscles.
135
Stimulus intensity is encoded by:
A. the intensity of action potentials.
B. the frequency of action potentials.
C. the intensity and frequency of action potentials.
D. neither the intensity nor the frequency of action potentials.
B. the frequency of action potentials.
136
A drug that increases which of the following is likely to be most effective as a treatment for obsessive-compulsive disorder?
A. serotonin
B. acetylcholine
C. norepinephrine
D. GABA
137
Memory loss during the initial stage of Alzheimer’s disease has been most consistently linked to low levels of __________ in the entorhinal cortex and hippocampus.
A. dopamine
B. norepinephrine
C. acetylcholine
D. GABA
C. acetylcholine
138
________ is a major inhibitory neurotransmitter in the brain, and low levels have been linked to chronic insomnia and anxiety disorders.
A. Dopamine
B. Acetylcholine
C. GABA
D. Glutamate
C. GABA
139
A drug that has the same effects as a neurotransmitter or that increases the effects of a neurotransmitter is referred to as a(n):
A. antagonist.
B. inverse agonist.
C. partial agonist.
D. agonist.
D. agonist.
140
The primary function of the myelin sheath is to:
A. increase the speed of nerve impulses.
B. increase the size of the action potential.
C. facilitate synaptic transmission.
D. facilitate neurogenesis.
A. increase the speed of nerve impulses.
141
the brain is divided into three regions explain?
Hindbrain back
midbrain middle
forebrain front
142
in terms of evloution what do the regions of the brain do?
well the forebrain is cognitive(hyothalamus, thalamus, basal ganglia, amygdala, cingulate cortex, hippocampus, cerebral cortex.
hindbrain -involountary, respiratory, swallowing, speeck, balance, coordination, confusion.
143
Hindbrain contains what parts?
medulla
-swallowing, coughing, and sneezing, and it regulates a number of functions that are essential for survival including respiration, heart rate, and blood pressure.
pons
-regulates between halves of the cerebellum, regulates messages between cerebellum and cerebral cortex, and help in REM&respiration
cerebellum
-procedural memories, voluntary movements, ataxia(like being drunk)
144
what are the structures of the midbrain
reticular formation and substantia nigra
145
what does reticular formation do?
extends from medualla into midbrain.
reglation of muscle tone, eye movements
RAS reticular activating system-mediates consciousness and arousal
-sleep person wake, wake more arounsed
146
what does substantia nigra do?
-reward seeking, drug addiction
degeneration of dopamine producing cells, causes slowed movments, tremors, rigidity-parkinsons
147
what are the sturcutres of the forebrain
hypothalamus
thalmus
basal ganglia
amygdala
hippocampus
148
What does the hypothalamus do?
1. homeostasis
2. regulates functions through the pituitary gland, nervous system
149
What are the functions of the hypothalamus?
-regulation of sympathetic functions body temperature, blood pressure, respiration, thirst, hunger, growth, sex, stress.
-contributes to emotions, memory, circadian rhythms.
memory(mamillary glands)
suprachiasmatic nucleus (SCN)-circadian rhythms.
150
How does the hypothalamus influence the pituitary gland?
1. stimulate or inhibit release of hormones-anterior pituatary---(GNRH) gonadotropin (testes, ovaries)
2. sends oxycotin (posterior pituatary) -child birth, lactation
151
What does oxycotin/vasopressin do?
1. social memory, social bonding, social recognition, sex behaviour, psychosocial stress.
152
How does oxycotin influece stress?
high oxycotin influence pituatory gland and sns in terms of reducing heart rate and blood pressure.
153
how does oxycotin influence recognition of faces
asd, schizophrenia makes it better
normal adults, statiscially insignifigant.
-or increased intestisty such that they become overly sensitive and impairs the result.
154
oxycotin and vasopressin are commonly referred to as?
peptide hormones
neuropeptides
155
what does the thalmus do?
relay sensory info to the cortex expect smell
-language, speech, declarative memory.
156
whats korsakoff syndrome?
thiamine deficency
-chronic alcoholism
-damage to thalmus and mammilary bodies
-anterograde, retrograde, confabulation-filling in gaps.
157
basal ganglia tell me about it?
receives input from cortex and transmits to thlamus.
-volutary movements, procedural and habit making. cognitive functioning, and emotions.
158
what is basal ganglia damage attached to?
adhd, schizophrenia, mood disorders, torettes, ocd, parkinsons.
159
what does the limbic system consist of?
amgydala, cingulate cortex, emotion.
160
what does amygdala do?
-processes emotions
-encodes emotions into memory.
-pain encoding
-risk taking
161
what is kluver-bucy syndrome?
amygdala lesions severing of temperol lobes results is hyperaggresion, sexuality, visual agnosia
161
what psychiatric issues are linked to amygdala?
social anxiety
anxiety
depression
ptsd
asd
substance use disorders
161
what does cingulate cortex do?
role in motivation, memory, emotions, including emotional reactions to pain.
-linked to major depressive disorder
-reduction linked to depression.
162
what does hippocampus do?
tranfers short term to long term declarative memories
-spatial memory
-assoicated with alzheimer's
-chronic level of cortisol effects affects retrieval of declarative memory.
163
how does the hippocampus fit in with ptsd.
hippocampus volume in terms of being small makes you a risk for developing ptsd after exposure to traumatic stress.
164
Severe damage to the ________ is often fatal because of its role in the regulation of respiration and cardiovascular functioning.
A. suprachiasmatic nucleus
B. medulla oblongata
C. caudate nucleus
D. mammillary bodies
B. medulla oblongata
165
Three months after a car accident that damaged his hippocampus, a 24-year-old man is most likely to be unable to:
A. remember the names of his parents and other family members.
B. recall what he did on his 21st birthday.
C. remember how to shave and comb his hair.
D. recall events that happened after the accident.
D. recall events that happened after the accident.
166
The __________ allows you to remember how to ride a bicycle, swim, and play a musical instrument.
A. cerebellum
B. medulla oblongata
C. suprachiasmatic nucleus
D. hypothalamus
A. cerebellum
167
The __________ is responsible for attaching emotions to memories for surprising and shocking events.
A. thalamus
B. amygdala
C. substantia nigra
D. suprachiasmatic nucleus
B. amygdala
168
Although the exact cause of Tourette’s disorder is unknown, its symptoms have been linked to abnormalities in which of the following?
A. basal ganglia
B. suprachiasmatic nucleus
C. thalamus
D. cingulate cortex
A. basal ganglia
169
Research has found that, for patients with major depressive disorder, the extent of improvement in depressive symptoms following participation in cognitive-behavior therapy are positively correlated with increases in the volume of the:
A. substantia nigra.
B. globus pallidus.
C. entorhinal cortex.
D. anterior cingulate cortex.
D. anterior cingulate cortex.
170
There is evidence that increasing oxytocin levels in healthy adults using intranasal administration:
A. causes oversensitivity to emotions in the faces of other people which increases accuracy in identifying the intensity of those emotions.
B. causes oversensitivity to emotions in the faces of other people which decreases accuracy in identifying the intensity of those emotions.
C. decreases sensitivity to emotions in the faces of other people and thereby decreases accuracy in identifying the intensity of those emotions.
D. has no effect on sensitivity to emotions in the faces of other people and, therefore, no effect on the accuracy of emotion perception.
B. causes oversensitivity to emotions in the faces of other people which decreases accuracy in identifying the intensity of those emotions.
171
One of the functions of the __________ is to maintain a constant body temperature.
A. thalamus
B. mammillary bodies
C. hippocampus
D. hypothalamus
D. hypothalamus
172
What are the major benzodiazepines
diazepam
alprazolam
avitan
173
what are the benzodizapenes uses for
and how do they work ?
anxiety
insomnia
seizures
alcohol withdrawl
increase GABA activity
174
175
what are the side effects of benzo's
drownsiness, unsteadiness, impaired memory & concentration.
impaired memory and concentration.
can caused reverse effect excitability
176
How do you discontinue a benzo
gradual tapering depends of half-life, e.g short half life long taper such as alprzalom, lorazepam
177
what if you mix alchohol and a bezno?
potentially lethal
178
what if you mix benzo and a agonist blocker?
potential dangerous drop in blood pressure
179
what are the major drugs of barbiturates?
thiopental
amobarbital
secobarbital
enhance gaba activity
180
what are barbituates use for
general anisthetic
anxiety
insomnia
seizures
181
side effects of barbituates
drowsiness
dizziness
confusion
ataxia
cognitive impairment
paradoxial excitement
182
what if you just stop taking a barbituates
possible seizure, delirium, death.
183
what is the dug for azapirones
buspirone
184
what is the advantage of azapirones
does not cause sedation, dependency, or tolerance
185
what are the main nacotics (opiods)
methadone, oxycodone, hydrcodone, fentanyl
186
what is methadone used for?
heroin detox
187
side effects of narcotics?
dry mouth, nausea, pupil constriction, drowziness, dissiness,nausea
chronic dependence looks like the flu
leading cause of accidental death.
188
how does a beta blocker work?
inhibits sympathetic nervous system
189
what do beta blockers treat?
hypertension, migraine, essential tremor
best for somatic symptoms
190
what are the beta blocker drugs
inderal
191
side effects of beta blockers
hypotension, decreased sex drive, insomnia, dry eyes, dizziness, depression.
192
what is the side effects of abrupt discontinuation of beta blockers?
hypertension, tremors, headaches, consfusion, cardiac arythmia.
193
what are mood stabalizers used for
bipolar and include lithium, anticonvulsants
194
side effects of lithium
nausea, vomitting, diarrhea, metalice taste, increased thirst, weight gain, hand tremor, fatigue, impaired tremor, concentration.
195
why do we have to to check lithium levels
lithium toxicity which can cause death.
196
what are anticonvulsants used for
similar as lithium but also mixed episodes
197
why must we monitor anticonvulsants?
liver failure and low blood cell count.
198
what are the main drugs for treating alzeimers
tacrine
donepezil
rivastigmine
galantamine
199
how do alzemers drugs work?
nmda receptor agaonist
delays breakdown of acetocholyne
200
how does alzeimers drug work memantine work
regulating activity of glutamate
201
what are the second line drugs for ADHD, how do they work, norepeneprine reuptake inhibitor
atomoxetine
guanfacine
clonidine
202
how are 2nd line adhd drugs better
better for tic, sleep, anxiety, depression
203
what are 3rd line adhd drugs
trycilic despramine
ndri bupropion
204
how does the alchohol drug disulifram work?
nausea vomiting, makes you feel like shit
205
how does naltrexone work?
reduces pleaserable effects, topiramate not approved works the same.
206
drugs used for tobacco disorder?
bupropion-origianlly for major depressive disorder
varenicline
reduce cravings
207
whats the rule of half-life and why
low and slow
usually 24 hours
in older adults it can take 72 hours
208
what is tolerance and cross tolerance
tolerance is tolerance for the drug
cross tolerance is tolerance to one creates tolerance in another.
209
what is the therapeutic index?
used to measure a drugs safety
210
how do you calculate therapeutic index?
lethal dose/effective dose
211
a drugs bad dose is what
dose lower than 1
212
All of the following drugs are used to slow down the progression of Alzheimer’s disease by delaying the breakdown of acetylcholine except:
A. donepezil.
B. galantamine.
C. rivastigmine.
D. memantine.
D. memantine.
213
A person will experience nausea, shortness of breath, and other unpleasant symptoms when he drinks alcohol after taking which of the following?
A. acamprosate
B. disulfiram
C. valproic acid
D. naltrexone
B. disulfiram
214
As a treatment for anxiety, propranolol (Inderal) is:
A. effective only for psychological symptoms.
B. more effective for psychological symptoms than somatic symptoms.
C. more effective for somatic symptoms than psychological symptoms.
D. equally effective for somatic and psychological symptoms.
C. more effective for somatic symptoms than psychological symptoms.
215
Benzodiazepines and barbiturates enhance the effects of which of the following neurotransmitters?
A. GABA
B. serotonin
C. ACh
D. norepinephrine
A. GABA
216
A potential side effect of carbamazepine is agranulocytosis, which is a(n) __________ disorder.
A. endocrine
B. immune system
C. blood
D. kidney
C. blood
217
Benzodiazepines have a __________ half-life for older adults than for younger adults and, therefore, are often prescribed for older adults at a __________ dose than they are for younger adults.
A. shorter; lower
B. shorter; higher
C. longer; lower
D. longer; higher
C. longer; lower
218
cardiovascular events is usally a _____
and what is it caused by?
stroke
hypertension
219
what are the two main causes of a stroke?
ischemic stroke-block of artery blood clot
can be brain based-thrombotic
can be body based embolic
hemorghapic stroke bleeding
220
what are the symptoms of a stroke?
middle cerebral artery
1. controlateral sensory loss
controlateral hemipharesis (weakness)
hemiplegia (paralysis)
homonymous hemianopsia visual field loss
posterior cerebral artery much the same but you add dystharia, nausea, vomiting.
anterior cerebral artery-includes mutism, impaired sight judegement, uniranty incontinunence
221
what are the two types of traumatic brain injury?
open and closed, closed is worse
222
what is aprosodia?
can be result of TBI, stroke or progressive neruological diesase
inability to express or understand the rhythm, pitch, timing and loudness of speech to convey emotion.
223
tell me about post traumatic seizures?
within one week of injury treat with anit-seizure meds
after a week its pte post traumatic epilepsy
treat with vagus nerve stimulation
-nerustimulation or surgery
224
prognosis for traumatic brain injury
best results in first three month, and then a year.
225
what parts are tbi in the brain linked to
temperol lobe and hippocampal atrophy
226
what are huntingtons and parkinosons linked to
degeneration of cells in motor areas of the brain.
227
what causes huntington's dicease
mutatated version on huntingin gene on chromosone 4
228
for huntington's when do symptoms usually occur and what is prognosis?
30-50
10-30 years
228
what is the progression for huntingtons
depression and mood swings
precede cognitive and motor symptoms
latter stages sever rigidity and bradykinesia
walking talking etc.
229
what causes parkinson's
neruodegenrative disorder, combination of genetic and environmental factors
-degeneration of dopamine producing cells in substantia nigra, which reduces dopmaine levels
low act linked to gait balance, balance, congition
low norepinephrine linked to depression, cognitive deficits, sleep distruabances.
230
symptoms of parkinson's
tremor at rest
balance and coordination
rigidity in limbs and trunk
slowed voluntary movement
231
treatment for parkinsons
no cure but
-levodopa to increase dompamine
-dopamine agonists
-deep brain stimulation (DBS)
232
what are the two main types of seizures
focal onset-seizure
generalized onset-seizure
233
what is a focal onset seizure
start in one localized area and affect that side of the body though it may spread
-does not effect consciousness
234
focal onset seizure (temperal lobe)
tell me about it.
aura, deja vu, unfamilarity, sweating, dilated pupils, tachycardia, trouble speaking, comprehension
235
focal onset seizure (frontal lobe)
tell me about it.
often during sleep
duration 30 seconds
kicking, punching, laughing, etc.
236
focal onset seizure (parietal lobe)
tell me about it.
tingling, numbness, floating, distortions.
237
focal onset seizure (occipital lobe)
tell me about it.
rapid eye movement, eyelid flutter, visual hallucinations, partial blindness.
238
what are generalized onset seizures and their types
a seizure that affects both hemispheres include
-generalized onset motor seizure
-generalized onset non-motor seizure
239
tell me about generalized onset motor vs non-motor seizures.
motor is grand mal
-changes in consciousness
non motor is brief loss of consciousness, blank stare, also rapid blinking
240
what is status epilepticus
prolonged seizure that last for five minutes or more.
241
what are the types of status epilepticus
generalized convulsive like grand mal
non convulsive is no motor
242
line of treatment for status epilpticus
benzo's
then anti-seizure medication
243
migraine headaches are classified as
with aura and no aura
244
what are migraines linked to
low levels of serotonin
245
hypertension high blood pressure is classified as what?
primary without cause
secondary with cause
246
treatment for hypertension
lifestyle, diuretic, beta blocker,
247
the pituatary gland is link to what
thyroid issues hypo and hyper thyroidism.
248
what hormone is linked to pituatary gland
antidiuretic hormone
249
what is hypoglycemia
low blood sugar
250
what are the two types of diabetes?
type 1
type 2 most common
251
test EEG whats it for
brain stuff, seizures, sleep, brain injuries, tumours
252
Parkinson’s disease has been linked to a degeneration of dopamine-producing cells in the:
A. amygdala.
B. suprachiasmatic nucleus.
C. pons.
D. substantia nigra.
D. substantia nigra.
253
Migraine headaches have been linked to abnormal levels of:
A. norepinephrine.
B. serotonin.
C. glutamate.
D. acetylcholine.
B. serotonin.
254
As a treatment for Parkinson’s disease, levodopa is most effective for which of the following symptoms?
A. bradykinesia
B. dyskinesia
C. chorea
D. tremor
A. bradykinesia
255
Which of the following symptoms is least characteristic of hypothyroidism?
A. decreased libido
B. confusion
C. heat intolerance
D. unexplained weight gain
C. heat intolerance
256
Idris is in a serious car accident that causes a traumatic brain injury. After regaining consciousness in the hospital, Idris has anterograde amnesia and retrograde amnesia that affects memories for the ten months prior to the accident. When Idris’s long-term memories begin to return, he’s most likely to recall which of the following first?
A. his sister’s graduation from college nine months ago
B. the fight he had with his parents about his financial situation six months ago
C. the birthday dinner he had with a close friend one week before the accident
D. where he was going when he was in the accident
A. his sister’s graduation from college nine months ago
257
A client with __________ tells her therapist that, since her traumatic brain injury, she has had trouble disciplining her children because, when she tells them she’s angry about what they’ve done, she doesn’t sound angry and, as a result, they don’t listen to her. As the client describes the problems she has with her children, she speaks in a monotone.
A. athetosis
B. aprosodia
C. dysarthria
D. dystonia
B. aprosodia
258
Which of the following is an MRI-based technique that is used to detect abnormalities in the brain’s white matter?
A. electroencephalography
B. computerized axial tomography
C. positron emission tomography
D. diffusion tensor imaging
D. diffusion tensor imaging
259
A(n) ________ is caused by a blood clot that developed in an artery in the brain:
A. embolic stroke
B. thrombotic stroke
C. intracerebral hemorrhage
D. subarachnoid hemorrhage
B. thrombotic stroke
260
Which of the following types of seizures involves a very brief loss of consciousness with a blank stare?
A. focal onset impaired awareness
B. generalized onset non-motor
C. tonic
D. clonic
B. generalized onset non-motor
261
scanning tools remember
CT general
MRI better
DTI while blood cells
PET alzeheimers
262
