psychopharmacology Flashcards
James Lange’s theory of emotion explains?
- a stimulus causes a physiological reaction.
- the reaction is perceived as an emotion.
What is the facial feedback hypothesis?
Facial expressions associated with specific emotions initiate physiological changes that are consistent with those emotions.
e.g. smiling makes you happy
Cannon-Bard theory of emotion explain?
- emotion and physiological arousal occur together, when a stimulus causes the thalmus to send signals to
a. cerebral cortex
b. sympathetic nervous system.
Schachter and Singer’s Two-Factor Theory of Emotion?
cognitive arousal theory
you get physiological arousal (you put a cognitive label or attribution to it), and you get an emotion.
-dependent on external cues.
-epinephrine studies where a confederate affected the emotion or attribution of an experience.
Explain Zillman’s excitation transfer theory?
Basically it means the arousal of one event can be transferred to another event.
based on three principles.
1. when aroused it decays slowly
2. residual from one event can intensify another event.
3. people have limited insight in this area.
Lazarus congitive appraisal theory explain?
emotional experiences are due to different appraisal of events.
*****physiological arousal follows cognitive appraisal
Lazarus congitive appraisal theory has three types of appraisal what are they, explain?
primary-evaluating the event e.g. harm, etc.
seonday-o.k. you determine it’s stressful and you evaluate your coping mechanisms.
reappraisal-monitor and maybe change your primary or secondary.
Ledoux’s two-system theory?
fear theory.
-fear is caused by two separate interacting systems that respond to stimuli
-1. subcortical system, quick, survival system. (amygdala)
- cortical system, (conscious emotion) uses the senses, memory, and cognition and generates feeling of fear.
also known as the low road and high road
what are the main brain mechanisms of emotion, what do they do?
cerebral cortex
left-happiness, positive emotions
right-sadness and negative
amygdala-fear and attaching emotions to memories
hypothalamus-regulates the physical signs of emotion through its communication with the autonomic nervous system and pituitary gland
what does damage to cerebral cortex cause in terms of emotion?
damage to left- causes catastrophic depression, fear, anxiety, paranio.
damage to right-causes indifference, inappropriate indifference or euphoria.
Selye’s
(1976) general adaptation syndrome of stress explain?
3 stages
- alarm reaction stage, increased activity of the sympathetic nervous system
- resistance stage, some parts go back to normal, cortison continues to keep body at a high level to cope.
- exhaustion stage, body breaks down.
McEwen’s allostatic load model, thinks about stress differently explain?
mediated by the cerebral cortex, hypothalamus, and amygdala.
brain is the mediator
similar to general adaptation model
Allostasis-stressed
allostatic state-resistance stage
allostatic overload-exhaustion, negative effects.
A psychology undergraduate tells his roommate who’s depressed that, if he smiles more often, he’ll feel a lot better. The student’s suggestion is consistent with the predictions of which of the following?
A. Cannon-Bard theory
B. two-factor theory
C. James-Lange theory
D. cognitive appraisal theory
C. James-Lange theory
Allostasis refers to:
A. the interpretation of an event as personally important and stressful.
B. the beneficial effects of moderate (normal) levels of stress.
C. adaptive processes that maintain the body’s stability during times of stress.
D. long-term “wear-and-tear” on the body that’s caused by chronic stress.
C. adaptive processes that maintain the body’s stability during times of stress.
According to Lazarus’s (1991) cognitive appraisal theory, secondary appraisal involves:
A. determining if an event is irrelevant, benign-positive, or stressful.
B. re-evaluating a primary appraisal when additional information is obtained.
C. considering what coping options are available for dealing with a stressful event.
D. determining if an emotional response to an event is appropriate.
C. considering what coping options are available for dealing with a stressful event.
The __________ is responsible for attaching emotions to memories.
A. amygdala
B. hippocampus
C. thalamus
D. cingulate gyrus
A. amygdala
Damage to certain areas of the left (dominant) hemisphere are most likely to cause:
A. inappropriate rage and aggression.
B. inappropriate euphoria.
C. an indifference reaction.
D. a catastrophic reaction.
D. a catastrophic reaction.
Which of the following attributes the experience of emotion to physiological arousal followed by assigning a cognitive label to that arousal?
A. Schachter and Singer’s two-factor theory
B. Cannon-Bard theory
C. Lazarus’s cognitive appraisal theory
D. Hering’s opponent process theory
A. Schachter and Singer’s two-factor theory
what does the hippocampus do for memory?
consolidation
-transfer of declarative memories from (short term working memory) to long term memory.
What does basal ganglia, cerebellum, supplementary motor are do for memory?
- procedural memory
-implicit memory
damage makes it hard to learn new skills and perform previously learned skills.
what is procedural memory?
the memory of how to do something
What is prospective memory?
remembering to do something
what is episodic memory?
remembering a specific episode or event.
what is declarative memory?
conscious recall two catagories
also known as explicit memory,
semantic memory for facts and general knowledge,
episodic memory for personal experiences and specific events.
what does amygdala do for memory?
attaching emotions to memories
what does prefrontal cortex do for memory?
working memory
also important for prospective memory in particular event based.
-damage effects event based prospective memory
What is working memory?
the part of short-term memory which is concerned with immediate conscious perceptual and linguistic processing.
What does damage to the thalamus and mammary glands do?
can cause anterograde and retrograde amnesia
What is anterograde and retrograde amnesia?
ant means can’t form new memories
retro means can’t recall old memories
long-term potentiation (LTP) plays what role in memory
Stimulation of neurons helps in learning and memory formation.
A. formation of new memories.
what does RNA protein synthesis do for memory?
formation of long term memories.
what are the 5 stages of sleep explain
- from wake lessness to sleep.
-alpha is replaced by theta waves - theta waves continue some k complexes
- asleep for 20 delta
- high amplitude delta, slow wave, deep sleep
- REM after 80-90. dreams,
what lifespan changes occur in sleep
infants sleep allot, more REM, being with active state.
after 4-6 months and 4 stages of non rem are evident.
older adults, less time in deep sleep, more event Rem sleep, more advanced sleep phase
Sleep spindles and K complexes are markers of Stage ___ sleep.
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
B. 2
Long-term potentiation has been linked to the:
A. formation of new memories.
B. recall of emotional memories.
C. maintenance of memories in short-term memory.
D. maintenance of memories in remote long-term memory.
A. formation of new memories.
what is remote long term memory?
a memory that is remote meaning it can take some time to recall it.
Which of the following areas of the brain are most responsible for implicit memories?
A. hippocampus and prefrontal cortex
B. mammillary bodies and cerebellum
C. basal ganglia and cerebellum
D. thalamus and mammillary bodies
C. basal ganglia and cerebellum
What is implicit memory?
unconscious recall of a memory.
The primary difficulty experienced by the patient known as “H.M.” was related to which of the following?
A. maintaining information in short-term memory
B. forming new long-term declarative memories
C. recalling procedural memories
D. recalling remote long-term declarative memories
B. forming new long-term declarative memories
Which of the following is true about REM sleep and dreaming?
A. All dreams occur during REM sleep.
B. Most dreams occur during REM sleep and are more vivid than those that occur during non-REM sleep.
C. Most dreams occur during REM sleep but are similar in content to those that occur during non-REM sleep.
D. Dreams are equally common during REM and slow-wave sleep but are more likely to be recalled when they occur during REM sleep.
B. Most dreams occur during REM sleep and are more vivid than those that occur during non-REM sleep.
Damage to which of the following is likely to have the greatest adverse impact on event-based prospective memory?
A. amygdala
B. mammillary bodies
C. cerebellum
D. prefrontal cortex
D. prefrontal cortex
Which of the following is true about the sleep patterns of older (versus younger) adults?
A. Older adults spend more time in Stage 3 and Stage 4 sleep.
B. Older adults experience more REM sleep in the second half of the sleep period.
C. Older adults often experience an advanced sleep phase.
D. Older adults often begin a sleep period with REM sleep.
C. Older adults often experience an advanced sleep phase.
The cerebral cortex is divided into what parts?
left-right hemisphere
each hemisphere has four lobes.
- frontal-front
- occipital-back
- temporal-top
- parietal-bottom
frontal lobe is divided into what parts?
- brocas area
- prefrontal cortex.
- supplementary motor cortex
- premotor cortex
- primary motor cortex
tell me about brocas’ area function and what damage does.
left broca’s frontal lobe
-language
damage-broca’s aphasias slow laboured speech
-impaired repetition anomia, inability to recall names.
Pre-frontal cortex role?
-executive functioning
working memory, prospective memory
let’s break the pre-frontal cortex into three domains. tell me about them and what damage can cause.
-dorsolateral pre-frontal cortex(dlpfc)
-orbitofrontal cortex(ofc)
-ventromedial prefrontal cortex(vmpfc)
(dlpfc)-executive functioning, damage causes concrete thinking, impaired judgement, poor planning, poor insight, working memory, and apathy.
(ofc)-emotion regulation, inhibition, social behaviours.
damage caused, impulsivity, aggression, and poor social skills.
(vmpfc) decision making, planning, memory, emotion regulation,
damage causes poor decision making, moral judgement, lack of insight.
what does supplementary motor cortex due?
planning and coordinating self-initiated complex movements and is active not only when people actually perform movements but also when they imagine performing them and when watching another person perform them.
What does premotor cortex do?
planning and coordinating complex movements that are triggered by external (sensory) stimuli.
What does primary motor cortex do?
executes movements by sending signals to the muscles.
Temporal lobe contains what key areas
auditory cortex and Wernicke’s area
Wernicke’s area is a major language area and is located in the dominant (usually left) hemisphere
what is Wernicke’s aphasia
receptive aphasia and fluent aphasia. People with this disorder have impaired comprehension of written and spoken language, impaired repetition, and anomia. Although their speech is fluent, it contains many word substitutions and other errors and is devoid of meaning.
What is conduction aphasia?
similar to warrick except opposite comprehention ok but words make no sense
What does parietal lobe due?
somatosensory cortex, which processes sensory information related to touch, pressure, temperature, pain, and body position
these disorders are in where
-somatosensory agnosias, which include tactile agnosia (an inability to recognize objects by touch),
-asomatognosia (a lack of interest in or recognition of one or more parts of one’s own body),
-anosognosia (denial of one’s illness). hemispatial neglect,
- ideomotor apraxia,
- ideational apraxia,
-Gerstmann’s syndrome
-Hemispatial neglect
parietal lobe
what does the occipital lobe do?
visual cortex, which processes visual information.
What is blindsight in the occipital lobe?
blindsight, which occurs when they do not consciously see a visual stimulus but have appropriate physiological and behavioral responses to it
What is prosopagnosia in occipital lobe?
prosopagnosia, which is characterized by an inability to recognize the faces of familiar people and, in some cases, one’s own face and/or the faces of pets and other familiar animals.
What is each hemisphere left and right responsible for?
written and spoken language, logical and analytical thinking, and positive emotions are left hemisphere functions,
while holistic thinking, intuition, understanding spatial relationships, creativity, and negative emotions are right hemisphere functions.
What does the corpus callosum do?
shares information between the hemispheres.
Wernicke’s aphasia and Broca’s aphasia share which of the following symptoms?
A. impaired repetition
B. anomia
C. impaired repetition and anomia
D. neither impaired repetition nor anomia
C. impaired repetition and anomia
As the result of a traumatic brain injury, a middle-aged man exhibits ________, which means he cannot recognize family members by their faces.
A. anosognosia
B. asomatognosia
C. prosopagnosia
D. Gerstmann’s syndrome
C. prosopagnosia
What is apraxia and where is it located?
Apraxia is an effect of neurological conditions, such as dementia, stroke, and head trauma. It causes people to be unable to carry out various movements and gestures.
parietal lobe
What is the difference between perception and sensation?
sensation the process by which we perceive the environment
Perception the process by which our brain makes sense of such sensation
explain bottom up and top down processing.
bottom up is you sense and perceive and the brain makes sense of
top down is the brain uses it’s pre-existing info to make sense of the sesation perception.
its a question of whether the brain or the body is driving the bus.
vision tell me about cones and rods
conses bright light, visual acuity
rods light light, peripheral vision
theories of vision trichromatic theory
the eye see’s three colours red, blue green.
theories of vision opponent process theory
behind the retina their are basically colour opponents to vision
red/green
blue/yellow
white/black
it explain colour blindness.
what is the most common type of colour blindness
males/ or females/ why
males due due recessive gene on x chromosone.
yellow/blue equal
depth perception
binocular cues
monocular cues
whats up with that
binocular cues are for close, and have convgence, and disparity
monocular cues are for far away
explain gate theory of pain
in spinal cord there is a gate small nerves send pain, and large one’s don’t
if its pain it close the gate
What is Synesthesia?
think sense
synth think sense
when one sense cause another sense to be activated
e.g listening to music and you see colours.
what the hell is psychophysics?
it’s the relationship with how much stimuli will cause how much effect.
Weber’s law of psychophysics?
2 percent rule of noticable difference to have an effect
its a propotionate law
e.g. 2 4 is the same 100 to 200 400 to 800
Signal detection theory psychodynamics?
ahhh this is not only intestity perception but also decision making.
but decision making is subject to erroy e.g. noise, fatigue, I had a bad day.
dependent of willingness, decision making
sensitity of observer
fechners’ law of psychophysics?
same law as webers but as intensity increases it is disproportion to perception.
Stevens’ law of pyschodynamics?
exponential relationsip between intensity and perception and it is different for different stimuli
Whenever Corky looks at numbers, each number elicits a different color (1 elicits red, 2 elicits blue, etc.). This is referred to as:
A. anosognosia
B. prosopagnosia
C. achromatopsia
D. synesthesia
D. synesthesia
In the context of signal detection theory, d’ (d-prime) is a measure of:
A. the just noticeable difference.
B. the base rate.
C. background noise.
D. sensitivity.
D. sensitivity.
A psychologist interested in the relationship between the magnitude of physical stimuli and psychological sensations finds that doubling the weight of an object doubles the sensation of heaviness but that doubling the brightness of a light more than doubles the sensation of brightness. This finding is most consistent with which of the following?
A. Stevens’s power law
B. Fechner’s law
C. Weber’s law
D. Gerstmann’s law
A. Stevens’s power law
Afterimages and red/green and blue/yellow colorblindness are explained by which of the following?
A. opponent-process theory
B. trichromatic theory
C. Weber’s law
D. Fechner’s law
A. opponent-process theory
Theo is not color blind but his wife, Tillie, is red-green color blind. Which of the following describes the likelihood that the biological children of Theo and Tillie will be red-green color blind?
A. Their male and female children will be red-green color blind.
B. Their male children will be red-green color blind, but their female children will not be red-green color blind.
C. Their female children will be red-green color blind, but their male children will not be red-green color blind.
D. Their male and female children may or may not be red-green color blind.
B. Their male children will be red-green color blind, but their female children will not be red-green color blind.
Of the following, which is most responsible for depth perception of objects that are at a close distance?
A. motion parallax
B. interposition of objects
C. retinal disparity
D. linear perspective
C. retinal disparity
Gate control theory is most useful for:
A. identifying ways to relieve pain.
B. identifying ways to relieve chronic stress.
C. understanding the cause of colorblindness.
D. understanding the cause of synesthesia.
A. identifying ways to relieve pain.
disorder tell me what it is
aphasia
anomia
agnosia
apraxia
gerstmann’s syndrome
cortical blindness
prosopagnosia
aphasia -laboured speech
anomia-can’t recall names and objects
agnosia-can’t recognize objects
apraxia-motor disorder
gerstmann’s syndrome-left right disorientation
cortical blindness-When the visual cortex in only the left hemisphere is damaged, blindness affects the right visual field, and vice versa
blindsight-don’t see a object but act like we do
prosopagnosia-can’t recognize familiar faces
What rules can be used for remembering first-generation antipsychotics
- chlorpromazine
- haloperidol
- thioridazine
- fluphenazine
zine
dol
What rules can be used for remembering second-generation antipsychotics
- clozapine
- risperidone
- olanzapine
- aripiprazole
pine done zole
What are the first-generation antipsychotics best at treating?
positve symptoms schizophrenia
How do first-generation antipsychotics work?
blocking dompamine d2 receptors
What are the three categories of side effects for FGA
Anticholinergic
Extrapyramidal
Neuroleptic malignant syndrome
tell me about anticholinergic side effect for FGA
dry mouth
blurred vision
urinary retention
constipation
tachycardia.
tell me about extrapyramidal side effect for FGA
parkinsonism (resting tremor, muscle rigidity, slowed movement),
dystonia (uncontrollable muscle contractions), akathisia (a sense of inner restlessness),
-tardive dyskinesia. Tardive dyskinesia is potentially life threatening,
-begins after long-term drug use,
-more common in women and older adults. -involuntary, rhythmic movements of the tongue, face, and jaw and, over time, may also affect the limbs and trunk.
-Tardive dyskinesia is irreversible for some patients -treated by gradually withdrawing the drug, administering a benzodiazepine, or switching to a second-generation antipsychotic.
Tell me about the side effects of neuroleptic malignant syndrome for FGA?
muscle rigidity, a high fever, autonomic dysfunction
sweating, overheating,
stop taking drug.
Are SGA effective?
yes just as good for positive symptoms and better for negative.
how do SGA work?
block dopamine d3 and d4 receptors, and serotonin receptors.
What is a SSRI
anti depressent
selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor
What is a SNRI
selective norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor
anti depressant
What is a NDRI
norepinephrine dopamine reputake inhibitor
anti-depressent
What is a TCA
tricylic antidepressents.
What is a MAOI
monamine oxidase inhibitor
what are the drugs for SSRI
fluoxetine
fluvoxamine
paroxetine
sertraline
citalopram
mine ines but no zines
SSRI can be use for what else other than depresion
ocd, panic disorder, gad, ptsd, bullimia, premature ejaculation.
what is an agonists
an agonist increse or produce a response
what is an antagonist
an antagonist inhibts a response
Are SSRIs safe in general?
The SSRIs are comparable to the TCAs in terms of efficacy and have several advantages: The SSRIs have fewer side effects, are safer in overdose (e.g., are less cardiotoxic), and are safer for older adults.
What is serotonin syndrome, like why would you not combine an SSRI with a MAOI or other serotonin drug.
Found in SSRI, potentially fatal and involves extreme agitation, confusion, autonomic instability, hyperthermia, tremor, seizures, and delirium.
stop taking it get help.