lifespan

Question 1

In terms of heredity what are the three gene combinations?

Answer 1

-Single gene-pair inheritance characteristic. A single pair of genes (two recessive genes or one recessive and one dominant gene).

-Sex-linked inheritance occurs when a characteristic is influenced by a gene on one of the sex chromosomes, most often the X chromosome.

-polygenic inheritance occurs when a characteristic is influenced by multiple genes. Most characteristics – e.g., height, weight, hair color, intelligence, and susceptibility to cancer – are polygenic.

Question 1

What is a phenotype?

Answer 1

Observed characteristics which is a combination of nurture and nature, e.g. height.

Question 2

What is a genotype?

Answer 2

Genetic inheritance?

Question 3

Explain how height are a combination of genotype and phenotype.

Answer 3

well, heritability is the variability in phenotype(observed height, e.g. 6 feet), but say about 80 percent is due to genetics, and 20 percent is due to environment, e.g. good eats.

Question 4

What is heritability?

Answer 4

which variability in phenotype in a given population is attributable to differences in genotype:

Question 5

Explain heritability in intelligence

Answer 5

.7 for high economic families
but .1 for low economic families

Question 6

explain critical and sensitive period in terms of environmental influence?

Answer 6

Critical period is a limited period of time when exposure to certain environmental events is necessary for development to occur.

sensitive period is usually longer than a critical period and is a period of time when it’s optimal (but not necessary) for certain environmental events to occur.

Question 7

Explain by Bronfenbrenner’s ecological theory in terms of
-micro
-meso
-macro
-exo
chronosystem

Answer 7

-Microsystem is the child’s immediate environment and includes the child’s relationships with parents, siblings, friends, and others at home, school, and church.
-The mesosystem involves interactions between different microsystems in the child’s life. For example, open communication between a child’s parents and teachers provides consistency across both environments.
-exosystem It incorporates other formal and informal social structures. While not directly interacting with the child, the exosystem still influences the microsystems. e.g politics, finances, world events.
-macrosystem established society and culture in which the child is developing.
-Chronosystem is The chronosystem relates to shifts and transitions over the child’s lifetime.
e.g. environmental shifts.

Question 8

What is fetal programming?

Answer 8

environmental events in utero during sensitive windows of development can have permanent and long-lasting effects.
e.g. undernutrition during prenatal development is predictive of an increased risk for coronary heart disease and type 2 diabetes in adulthood

Question 9

What is the average genetic heritability for intelligence?
How does it change as we age?

Answer 9

-overall .5
.2 to start moves to .8 in adulthood and back to .6 as seniors

Question 10

What is behaviour genetics?

Answer 10

it is the study of how genetics effects behavioral psychological traits.

Question 11

What’s the deal with twin studies and equal environment assumption?

Answer 11

well monozygotic twins have a higher correlation for intelligence than fraternal. however, mono also have a more homogenous environment which kinda makes the twin studies invalid

Question 12

What are the findings of adoption studies?

Answer 12

Higher correlation due to genetic than environmental influence.

Question 13

What are twin adoption studies and why are they the best?

Answer 13

Well you can basically have the same genetic template raised in a separate environment to show the difference between nature vs. nurture.

Question 14

What is the Genotype-Environment Correlation?

Answer 14

that a person’s genetic make-up not only affects a person’s characteristics directly but also indirectly by influencing the environments the person is exposed to.

Question 15

What is Passive genotype-environment correlation?

Answer 15

children inherit genes from their parents that predispose them to have certain characteristics and are exposed to environments by their parents that support the development of those characteristics.

For example, the children of sociable parents are likely to be genetically predisposed to being sociable, and their parents will provide them with many opportunities to participate in social activities.

Question 16

What is Evocative genotype-environment correlation?

Answer 16

-child’s genetic make-up evokes certain kinds of reactions from parents and other people that reinforce the child’s genetic make-up.
-A sociable child will react to others in ways that encourage them to respond to the child in socially reinforcing ways.

Question 17

What is Active genotype-environment correlation?

Answer 17

niche-picking and occurs when children actively seek experiences that “fit” their genetic predispositions?

Question 18

How do the three genotype-environment correlations changes over time?

Answer 18

When you are little you are passive then you get noticed then evocative then niche

Question 19

Explain Gottesman reaction range and canalization?

Answer 19

Reaction range for certain traits that determine how people respond to environmental influences.
-canalization means that the range is limited regardless of environmental influences. eg. IQ

Question 20

What is Dynamic Systems Theory (DST)?

Answer 20

In other words it’s complex

nature and nurture to be essential for development. It’s based on the assumption that development is not simply the result of physical maturation but, instead, “is a complex process that involves the interaction of biology, environment, how we control ourselves and interact with others, and how we think about, or represent, our experiences in our minds

Question 21

What is epigenetics?

Answer 21

-the study of changes in organisms brought about by modification of gene expression rather than by alteration of the genetic code in the form of DNA.
-for example diet, environmental pollutants, and child abuse can all influence genetic expression.

Question 22

As described by Scarr (1992), niche-picking refers to which of the following genotype-environment correlations?

A. evocative

B. passive

C. active

D. reciprocal

Answer 22

C. active

Question 24

A person’s phenotype is determined by:

A. his/her genetic inheritance.

B. environmental factors.

C. his/her genetic inheritance and environmental factors.

D. neither his/her genetic inheritance nor environmental factors.

Answer 24

C. his/her genetic inheritance and environmental factors.

Question 25

The tendency of genetic make-up to restrict the amount of influence the environment has on a particular characteristic is referred to as:

A. canalization.

B. maturation.

C. individuation.

D. adaptation.

Answer 25

A. canalization.

Question 26

Research has confirmed that undernutrition during prenatal development alters the function and structure of organ systems, which predisposes offspring to cardiovascular disease and type 2 diabetes in adulthood. This finding illustrates which of the following?

A. fetal programming

B. reaction range

C. dynamic systems theory

D. ecological theory

Answer 26

A. fetal programming

Question 27

Data collected by Bouchard and McGue (1981) indicate that the correlation coefficient for IQ is largest for which of the following?

A. biological parent and child living apart

B. biological siblings reared together

C. identical twins reared apart

D. half-siblings reared together

Answer 27

C. identical twins reared apart

Question 28

Which of the following is true about the contribution of shared and non-shared environmental factors to personality?

A. Non-shared and shared factors have about the same degree of influence on personality.

B. Non-shared factors have a stronger influence than shared factors on personality.

C. Shared factors have a stronger influence than non-shared factors on personality.

D. Non-shared factors have a stronger influence than shared factors during childhood and adolescence, while the opposite is true for adulthood.

Answer 28

B. Non-shared factors have a stronger influence than shared factors on personality.

Question 29

Epigenetics is concerned with factors that modify the:

A. genetic code by altering the underlying DNA sequence.

B. genetic code without altering the underlying DNA sequence.

C. pattern of gene expression without altering the genetic code.

D. pattern of gene expression by altering the genetic code.

Answer 29

C. pattern of gene expression without altering the genetic code.

Question 30

Research on the heritability of intelligence has found that:

A. shared environmental factors have a greater influence than genetics on intelligence throughout the lifespan.

B. non-shared environmental factors have a greater influence than genetics on intelligence throughout the lifespan.

C. the influence of genetics increases over the lifespan and, in adulthood, exceeds the influence of shared and non-shared environmental factors.

D. the influence of genetics decreases over the lifespan and, in adulthood, is exceeded by the influence of shared and non-shared environmental factors.

Answer 30

C. the influence of genetics increases over the lifespan and, in adulthood, exceeds the influence of shared and non-shared environmental factors.

Question 31

Thelen and Smith (1994) found which of the following to be useful for understanding why the stepping reflex disappears when infants are about two months of age and then reappears around the time infants begin to walk?

A. evolutionary theory

B. ecological systems theory

C. epigenetic theory

D. dynamic systems theory

Answer 31

D. dynamic systems theory

Question 32

What are shared and non-shared features?

Question 33

A graduate student who is conducting research on Bronfenbrenner’s mesosystem is most interested in:

A. factors in children’s immediate environments that influence their development.

B. interactions between factors in children’s immediate environments that influence their development.

C. sociocultural factors that indirectly influence children’s development.

D. biological factors that directly influence children’s development.

Answer 33

B. interactions between factors in children’s immediate environments that influence their development.

Question 34

What are the five personality traits?

Answer 34

o openness to experience
c conscientious
e extraversion
a agreeableness
n neuroticism

Question 35

What are the stages and periods of pre-natal development?

Answer 35

-The germinal, embryonic, and fetal period.
-first, second, and third trimester?

Question 36

Tell me about the germinal stage of pre-natal development.?

Answer 36

-conception to the end of the second week the
-zygote (fertilized egg) implants on the uterine wall.
- Exposure to toxic chemicals, drugs, or other teratogens during this period ordinarily has an “all-or-none” effect:

Question 37

Tell me about the embryonic period of development.

Answer 37

-third through the eighth weeks
- major organs and structures are forming
Exposure to teratogens is most likely to cause major defects

Question 38

Tell me about the fetal period?

Answer 38

-Major organs and structures have formed, and it -weeks 9 through birth
-exposure to teratogens is most likely to cause minor defects or abnormalities.

-Exception is the central nervous system, which is susceptible to major damage from teratogens during the embryonic and fetal periods.

-age of viability and occurs between 22 and 26 weeks.

Question 39

What are the time periods for the tri-mesters?

Answer 39

1 through 13
14 though 27
28-birth

Question 40

What are the three types of chromosomal abnormalities?

Answer 40

1. deletions, extra, missing

Question 41

What causes prader willy syndrome?

Answer 41

deletion of paternal chromosone 15

Question 42

What causes Angelman syndrome?

Answer 42

Deletion of maternal 15 chromosome.

Question 43

What causes cri-du-chat syndrome?

Answer 43

Deletion of 5 chromosone

Question 44

Klinefelter syndrome what causes it?

Answer 44

-Two or more X chromosomes in addition to a single Y chromosome.

-Males with this disorder develop a normal male identity but have incomplete development of secondary sex characteristics

Question 45

What is Turner syndrome, and what causes it?

Answer 45

-Affects females and is due to the partial or complete deletion of one of the X chromosomes.

-Females with this disorder don’t develop secondary sex characteristics and are infertile,

Question 46

What is Rett syndome disorder?

Answer 46

-X-linked dominant disorder

-caused by mutations in the MECP2 gene and almost exclusively affects females.

-Infants with this disorder appear to develop normally during the first 6 to 18 months of life but then develop characteristic symptoms that include slowed head and brain growth, loss of speech and motor skills, abnormal hand movements, sleep disturbances, breathing abnormalities, and seizures.

-Children with Rett syndrome may also have autistic-like symptoms (e.g., deficits in social interactions) during the early stages of the disorder.

Question 47

What is down syndrome?

Answer 47

autosomal disorder, which means it’s caused by an abnormality on a chromosome that’s not a sex chromosome.

type 1—trisomy 21, which is also referred to as regular and standard trisomy 21 and accounts for about 95% of all cases of Down syndrome.
- It’s due to the presence of an extra 21 chromosome in all cells of the body so that each cell contains 47 (instead of the usual 46) chromosomes.

-Mosaic trisomy 21 accounts for about 1% of all cases. It occurs when only some cells in the body contain an extra 21 chromosome.

-Translocation trisomy 21 accounts for about 4% of all cases. It is characterized by 46 chromosomes in all cells of the body with some cells having a full or partial chromosome 21 attached (translocated) to another chromosome, most often chromosome 14.

Question 48

What are the causes of down syndrome?

Answer 48

1. genetic heritability
2. age-over 30
3. error due in cell division

Question 49

Tell me about Huntington’s disease?

Answer 49

-Autosomal dominant disorder, which means it is caused by a single autosomal dominant gene.

Question 50

What is Phenylketonuria (PKU) caused by?

Answer 50

-Caused by two autosomal recessive genes
-when a biological child inherits the PKU gene from both parents and, consequently, is homozygous with regard to that gene. When both parents are carriers of the recessive gene (i.e., they each have only one recessive gene for PKU), each of their biological children has a 25% chance of having the disease.

-A person with PKU is unable to adequately metabolize the amino acid phenylalanine.

-Consequently, treatment is a diet low in phenylalanine that begins soon after birth and is maintained through the lifespan (e.g., no milk, cheese, meat, fish, or eggs).
-Without treatment, the build-up of phenylalanine causes intellectual disability, hyperactivity, seizures, eczema, a musty body odor, hypopigmentation, and stunted growth.

Question 51

What are Teratogens?

Answer 51

drugs, diseases, and environmental hazards that cause developmental defects in the embryo or fetus.

-in general 3rd to 8 week.

Question 52

pre-natal exposure to alcohol is called?

Answer 52

fetal alcohol spectrum disorder (fasd)

Question 53

What are the four categories of FASD?

Answer 53

1. Fetal alcohol syndrome (FAS) is the most severe disorder, and its symptoms include small eye openings, thin upper lip, and other facial anomalies; retarded physical growth; central nervous system dysfunction (e.g., intellectual deficits, slowed processing speed, hyperactivity); problems with the heart, kidneys, liver, and other organs; and hearing and vision impairments.
2. Partial fetal alcohol syndrome (pFAS) has the same central nervous system dysfunction as FAS, but facial anomalies are less severe and retarded physical growth may or may not be present.
3. Alcohol-related neurodevelopmental disorder (ARND) involves central nervous system dysfunction without prominent facial anomalies, retarded physical growth, or physical defects.
4. Alcohol-related birth defects (ARBD) is characterized by heart, kidney, vision, and other physical defects without other prominent symptoms.

(weeks 3 through 8) the worse

Question 54

prenatal exposure to cocaine can cause what problems?

Answer 54

-Spontaneous abortion during the first trimester,

-premature birth, and low birth weight.

• Cocaine-exposed infants tend to be irritable and overly reactive to environmental stimuli, often have a shrill piercing cry, and are difficult to calm and feed.

-In school, these children may have motor, attention, memory, and behavior problems

-adolescence, they may have difficulty with problem-solving and abstract reasoning tasks and are at increased risk for delinquency.

Question 55

Prader-Willi and Angelman syndromes are both caused by:

A. two recessive genes.

B. a chromosomal deletion.

C. a missing sex chromosome.

D. an extra sex chromosome.

Answer 55

B. a chromosomal deletion.

Question 56

Recent data collected by the National Center for Health Statistics indicate that the preterm birthrate is highest for __________ mothers.

A. non-Hispanic Black

B. non-Hispanic White

C. non-Hispanic Asian

D. Hispanic

Answer 56

A. non-Hispanic Black

Question 57

The symptoms of fetal alcohol spectrum disorder are:

A. largely reversible with early behavioral interventions.

B. largely reversible with early nutritional and behavioral interventions.

C. largely reversible if exposure to alcohol was limited to the third trimester.

D. largely irreversible.

Answer 57

D. largely irreversible.

Question 58

Phenylketonuria (PKU) is an:

A. autosomal dominant disorder.

B. autosomal recessive disorder.

C. X-linked dominant disorder.

D. X-linked recessive disorder.

Answer 58

B. autosomal recessive disorder.

Question 59

Which of the following types of Down Syndrome can be caused by an error during cell division and by heredity?

A. translocation trisomy 21

B. mosaic trisomy 21

C. standard trisomy 21

D. all of the above

Answer 59

A. translocation trisomy 21

Question 60

Exposure to a teratogen during which period of prenatal development is most likely to cause major birth defects:

A. zygote

B. embryonic

C. germinal

D. fetal

Answer 60

B. embryonic

Question 62

Rett syndrome (which is also referred to as RTT) is usually caused by:

A. the absence of an entire or partial X chromosome.

B. a mutated gene on an X chromosome.

C. a deletion on a maternal chromosome.

D. a deletion on a paternal chromosome.

Answer 62

B. a mutated gene on an X chromosome.

Question 63

A fetus typically achieves the age of viability between ________ weeks after conception.

A. 16 and 20

B. 18 and 20

C. 20 and 22

D. 22 and 26

Answer 63

D. 22 and 26

Question 65

Klinefelter syndrome is caused by which of the following?

A. the presence of an extra Y chromosome

B. the absence of a Y chromosome

C. the presence of an extra X chromosome

D. the absence of an X chromosome

Answer 65

C. the presence of an extra X chromosome

Question 66

Prader-Willi Syndrome, Angelman Syndrome, and Cri-Du-Chat Syndrome are due to what?

Answer 66

chromosomal deletion

Question 67

Klinefelter Syndrome, Turner Syndrome, and Rett Syndrome: are due to what?

Answer 67

sex chromosome abnormalities, with Klinefelter and Turner syndromes being due to an abnormal number of X chromosomes?

Question 68

What is temperament?

Answer 68

genetically based but also environmentally influenced tendencies to respond in predictable ways to events that serve as the building blocks of personality.

Question 69

Thomas and chess see temperament in children as three types.

Answer 69

Easy children
Slow-to-warm-up children
Difficult children

Question 70

What is Thomas and Chess’s goodness-of-fit model?

Answer 70

Match temperament to the environment to get the best fit.

Question 70

What are freuds stages of development with ages?

Answer 70

oral 0-1
anal 1-3
phallic 3-6
latent 6-12
genital 13-up

Question 70

What are Erickson’s stages with ages

Answer 70

b-1 trust vs mistrust
1-3 autonomy vs shame
3-6 initiative vs guilt
6-12 industry vs inferiority
13 up identity vs confusion
intamacy vs love
gentrification vs stagnation
integrity vs despair

Question 70

Explain Rothbart model of temperament

Answer 70

reactivity and self-regulation
surgency/extraversion and negative affectivity:

Question 70

explain the four parenting styles

Answer 70

authoriative high demands high reponsive
authoritarian high demans low response
permissive love demands low response
uninvolved low in demand and low in response

Question 70

Explain Kagan behavioral inhibition?

Answer 70

well, the more inhibited one is, the more withdrawn socially they are, the higher the level of subsequent anxiety.

Question 70

Whats up with the The mirror self-recognition test?

Answer 70

18-24 months
downs, and, and other developmental delays are a no-go.

3 or 4 years old for downs
-prerequisite for the emergence of secondary (self-conscious) emotions, which include embarrassment, envy, and empathy.

Question 71

Self-understanding stages of development?

Answer 71

a) early childhood (ages 2 through 6), gender and age

(b) In middle childhood (ages 7 through 11), children’s self-descriptions become more general, refer to personality traits, and involve social comparisons (e.g., I’m good at sports, I’m a truthful person, I’m better at math than most of my friends).

(c) Finally, adolescents (ages 12 through 18) describe themselves in terms of abstract qualities including their beliefs and values and psychological qualities

Question 72

So kholberg’s cognitive developmental theory applies to gender how?

Answer 72

Well at different age we develop a stronger understanding of gender
2-3, 4-6, 7 gender indentity, stabliity, constancy

Question 73

Explain bandura social learning theory in accordance with gender?

Answer 73

well gender as a construct is influenced and developed within the the social context in which it exists.

Question 74

Explain gender Schema theory?

Answer 74

Children organize gender-typed experiences and information into gender schemas(plan, theory, understanding) that they use to perceive, encode, and interpret information about themselves and others.

Question 75

What are gender-schematic people and gender-aschematic people?

Answer 75

the first rely on schema to organize themselves, others are more flexible.

Question 76

What is the Bem Sex Role Inventory (BSRI),

Answer 76

4 categories, those with high scores in feminine and masculine are the best.

Question 77

What is Egan and Perry’s multidimensional model in regard to gender?

Answer 77

made of five components
1. membership knowledge
2. membership typicality
3. contentedness
4. pressure
5. bias

Question 78

Marcia has four stages of development that extend beyond Erikson’s identity confusion. Explain.

Answer 78

1. Identity diffusion occurs when individuals have not undergone an identity crisis and are not committed to an identity.
2. Identity foreclosure occurs when individuals have not experienced an identity crisis but have a strong commitment to a particular identity as the result of accepting the values, goals, and preferences of their parents or other authority figure.
3. Identity moratorium occurs when individuals have experienced or are experiencing an identity crisis but have not yet committed themselves to an identity. (
4. Identity achievement occurs when individuals have experienced an identity crisis and, as a result, have a strong commitment to a specific identity

Question 79

As described by Erikson, the virtue of will is the positive outcome of which stage of psychosocial development?

A. initiative vs. guilt

B. autonomy vs. shame and doubt

C. generativity vs. stagnation

D. industry vs. inferiority

Answer 79

B. autonomy vs. shame and doubt

Question 80

According to Diana Baumrind, parents who are ___________ are most likely to have children who are self-confident and cooperative and have high levels of academic achievement.

A. high in demandingness and low in responsiveness

B. low in demandingness and high in responsiveness

C. high in demandingness and high in responsiveness

D. low in demandingness and low in responsiveness

Answer 80

C. high in demandingness and high in responsiveness

Question 81

Kohlberg’s cognitive developmental theory identifies which of the following as the first stage in gender identity development?

A. gender constancy

B. gender identity

C. gender stability

D. gender consistency

Answer 81

B. gender identity

Question 82

Older adults are most likely to obtain the highest score on which of the following Big Five personality traits?

A. neuroticism

B. extraversion

C. openness to experience

D. agreeableness

Answer 82

D. agreeableness

Question 83

Egan and Perry (2001) view gender identity as a multidimensional construct that consists of five components. Which of the following is not one of these components?

A. felt similarity with one’s gender group

B. felt pressure for gender conformity

C. knowledge of gender stability

D. knowledge of one’s own gender category

Answer 83

C. knowledge of gender stability

Question 84

According to Marcia (1966), in response to a question about her career goals, a 16-year-old experiencing identity foreclosure is most likely to say which of the following?

A. I’m going to be a lawyer because that’s what my parents want me to do.

B. It took me a while to make a choice, but I’ve finally decided to be a lawyer.

C. I’m not really interested in thinking about what I’m going to do after high school.

D. I’ve spent some time considering different occupations, but I haven’t made a choice yet.

Answer 84

A. I’m going to be a lawyer because that’s what my parents want me to do.

Question 85

Which of the following is not one of the aspects of temperament identified by Mary Rothbart?

A. effortful control

B. surgency/extraversion

C. regularity/predictability

D. negative affectivity

Answer 85

C. regularity/predictability

Question 86

What are Piaget’s 3 stages of moral development? Give as much info as you can.

Answer 86

(a) Premoral Stage:
0-5

(b) Heteronomous Stage: 5-6
rules can’t be changed they judge life by consequences. e.g. accident or purpose it don’t matter its what is the effect.

(c) Autonomous Stage: starts at 10 or 11. believe rules can be changed. Intent is important.

Question 87

Criticism of Piaget theory

Answer 87

1. ignores cognitive abilities
2. assumes moral development ends in adolescence.

Question 88

Tell me about Kohlberg’s Theory of moral development?

Answer 88

1. it’s universal
2. everyone goes through the stages in the same sequential order
3. based upon cognitive development and perspective taking.

Question 89

What are kholberg’s stages of moral development?

Answer 89

Level 1: Preconventional Morality:
(a) the punishment and obedience stage
(b) the instrumental hedonism stage, behavior depends on rewards or satisfies the person’s needs.

Level 2: Conventional Morality: The two stages of this level are (a) the “good boy/good girl” stage, during which the acceptability of a behavior depends on socially approved of or liked
(b) the law and order orientation stage, during which behavior depends on laws and rules that have been established by legitimate authorities.

Level 3: Postconventional Morality: The two stages of this level are (a) the morality of contract, individual rights, and democratically accepted laws, during which the acceptability of a behavior is whether or not it’s consistent with democratically chosen laws, and (b) the morality of individual principles of conscience, during which the acceptability of a behavior is whether or not it’s consistent with broad, universally applicable general principles (e.g., justice, fairness).

Question 90

criticisms of Kohlberg’s theory

Answer 90

1. does not take into kids’ cognitive development.
2. not culturally universal
3. studies only done on men
4. don’t accurately reflect reality.

Question 91

What’s the deal with how moral development is developed with Piaget and Kohlberg in response to peers and parents.?

Answer 91

-They say peers are more important as they allow you to learn higher level of moral development as it’s not tied to obedience and reward.

-Critics say no way Jack it’s about parenting styles.

Question 92

With regard to moral development:

A. Piaget and Kohlberg both concluded that peers have a greater influence than parents do.

B. Piaget and Kohlberg both concluded that parents have a greater influence than peers do.

C. Piaget concluded that parents have a greater influence, but Kohlberg concluded that peers have a greater influence.

D. Piaget concluded that peers have a greater influence, but Kohlberg concluded that parents have a greater influence.

Answer 92

A. Piaget and Kohlberg both concluded that peers have a greater influence than parents do.

Question 92

A child says that a person who breaks eight dishes by accident should receive more punishment than a person who breaks two dishes on purpose. As described by Piaget, this child is in which stage of moral development?

A. premoral

B. preconventional

C. heteronomous

D. autonomous

Answer 92

C. heteronomous

Question 93

As described by Kohlberg, the conventional level of moral development consists of which of the following stages?

A. selfishness and individual survival

B. “good boy/good girl” and law and order orientation

C. punishment/obedience and instrumental hedonism

D. morality of law and morality of social contract

Answer 93

B. “good boy/good girl” and law and order orientation

Question 94

Kohlberg concluded that:

A. there’s no relationship between stage of moral development and behavior because behavior is affected by so many factors.

B. there’s a strong relationship between stage of moral development and behavior at all stages.

C. the strength of the relationship between stage of moral development and behavior is greatest at the higher stages of development.

D. there’s a relationship between stage of moral development and behavior only when the situation is personally meaningful to the individual.

Answer 94

C. the strength of the relationship between stage of moral development and behavior is greatest at the higher stages of development.

Question 95

A child in the second stage of Kohlberg’s first level of moral development will base his moral judgments of behavior on which of the following?

A. rewards that follow the behavior

B. social approval or disapproval for behavior

C. laws set by an authority that apply to the behavior

D. democratically-chosen laws that apply to the behavior

Answer 95

A. rewards that follow the behavior

Question 96

Kohlberg described moral development as depending on which of the following?

A. level of cognitive development

B. level of social perspective-taking

C. level of cognitive development and level of social perspective-taking

D. neither level of cognitive development nor level of social perspective-taking

Answer 96

C. level of cognitive development and level of social perspective-taking

Question 96

What is the social learning theory of language development?

Answer 96

language is done through imitation and reinforcement?

Question 97

What is the nativist theory of language development?

Answer 97

humans are biologically programmed to acquire language.

According to Chomsky’s humans have a language acquisition device (LAD)
-an inborn linguistic processor that enables children to understand language and speak in rule-governed ways.

-Evidence for Chomsky’s theory all languages have the same basic underlying grammatical structure and all children pass through the same stages of language acquisition at similar ages.

Question 98

What is social interactionist theory of language development?

Answer 98

Biological and social factors.
-native capacity, a strong desire to understand others and to be understood by them, and a rich language environment combine to help children discover the functions and regularities of language
-evidence is parentese child-directed speech.

Question 99

What are the 5 parts of speech?

Answer 99

1. phonology–sounds, t, c, f, z
2. morphology–smallest words, or prefixes with meaning.
3. syntax–rules
4. semantics–literal meaning
5. pragmatics–use of language in verbal and
   non-verbal settings.

Question 100

Language cooing?

Answer 100

sounds 6-8 weeks

Question 101

3 types of crying?

Answer 101

1. a low-pitched rhythmic cry that signals hunger or discomfort
2. a shrill, less regular cry that signals anger or frustration
3. a loud high-pitched cry followed by silence (which is due to breath-holding) that signals pain.

Question 102

language babbling?

Answer 102

3-6 months weeks

Question 103

Language echolalia?

Answer 103

about 9 months

Question 104

words with meaning?

Answer 104

around 15 months e.g. up or cup

Question 105

language holophrastic speech?

Answer 105

holophrastic speech between 12 and 15 months of age. It involves using a single word to express an entire thought, with the meaning of the word depending on the context and the child’s tone of voice. For example, when a child says “juice,” she may mean “I want juice,” “I finished my juice,” or “I spilled the juice.”

Question 106

language telegraphic speech?

Answer 106

18 and 24 months of age. It consists of two content words “Want juice,”

Question 107

What do we know about periods for language acquisition?

Answer 107

1. strong negative relationship between age of exposure to spoken or signed language and language proficiency.
2. the critical period for the acquisition of syntax in a first language is the first year of life.
3. Full proficiency with grammar, syntax, and phonetics requires early exposure to language, while semantics and vocabulary size are less affected by age of exposure

Question 108

What are the language errors of
overregulation
overextension
underextension

Answer 108

overrregulation using it for a plural or past tense
overextension to broadly car means all cars
underextension cat means my cat

Question 109

What is Language Brokering?

Answer 109

kids acting as translaters for family
-good confidence, academics.
-bad, anxiety, role reversal, more conflict

Question 110

What is code switching?

Answer 110

My mom speaking french and english and switching.

Question 111

What is paralanguage?

Answer 111

Paralanguage refers to how something is said rather than to what is said and is often used to modify the meaning of what is said or to express emotion.

Question 112

A baby’s use of a single word to express an entire thought or idea is referred to as:

A. telegraphic speech.

B. holophrastic speech.

C. babbling.

D. echolalia.

Answer 112

B. holophrastic speech.

Question 113

A parent can expect that his or her baby will begin to use two-word sentences (telegraphic speech) when the baby is between ________ months of age.

A. 24 and 30

B. 18 and 24

C. 12 and 15

D. 10 and 14

Answer 113

B. 18 and 24

Question 114

Which of the following is an example of a morpheme?

A. sh

B. ba-ba

C. oo

D. mis

Answer 114

D. mis

Question 115

Instead of “I went there,” 30-month-old Mandy says, “I goed there.” This is an example of which of the following?

A. overregularization

B. underregularization

C. overextention

D. underextension

Answer 115

A. overregularization

Question 116

As the result of a traumatic brain injury, a 35-year-old woman has trouble comprehending humor and sarcasm. This suggests that the woman lacks which kind of linguistic competence?

A. semantic

B. pragmatic

C. phonemic

D. syntactic

Answer 116

B. pragmatic

Question 117

Support for Chomsky’s theory of language development is provided by studies showing that:

A. children acquire language faster when reinforcement is used to encourage them to use new words and more complex phrases and sentences.

B. parents and other caregivers automatically use child-directed speech when talking to young children.

C. all languages have the same underlying grammatical structure and rules.

D. language development is linked to cultural communicative practices.

Answer 117

C. all languages have the same underlying grammatical structure and rules.

Question 118

Paralanguage is best described as:

A. contradictory nonverbal messages.

B. spoken language that is misunderstood.

C. how a person says something.

D. what a person intended to say.

Answer 118

C. how a person says something.

Question 119

By about ____ months of age, children’s babbling narrows to include only sounds and sound combinations that belong to the language they hear every day.

A. 5

B. 7

C. 9

D. 14

Answer 119

C. 9

Question 120

Explain Piaget constructivist theory of cognitive development

Answer 120

-cognitive development relies on a combination of biological maturation and experience.
-it consists of assimilation and accommodation

Question 121

what can you tell me about sensorimotor stage piaget

Answer 121

-learning about the environment through sensory input and motor actions
-reactions and schemas
-Object permanence
-Representational thought emerges in the sixth substage and allows children to use mental images, gestures, and words to represent people,

Question 121

What are Piaget’s 4 stages and the ages requirement

Answer 121

sensorimotor 0-2
pre-operational 2-7
concrete-operational7-12
formal operational 12 up

Question 122

What can you tell me about the piaget preoperational stage?

Answer 122

-Representational thought increases and allows children to think about the past and future and about things that aren’t in the immediate environment.
- Preoperational children also engage in more sophisticated forms of make-believe play and use one object to represent another (e.g., pretend that a cardboard box is a race car),
-invent imaginary playmates, and participate in role-playing with other children.
Preoperational thought is limited, , by several factors including transductive (precausal) reasoning and egocentrism.
-Transductive reasoning leads preoperational children to think that unrelated events that occur at the same time are causally related,
-egocentrism limits their ability to understand that other people don’t experience things the same way they do.
- centration, which is the tendency to focus on one aspect of an object or situation to the exclusion of all other aspects
-irreversibility, which is the inability to understand that an action or process can be reversed.

Question 123

Tell me about concrete operational stage Piaget?

Answer 123

Children use logical operations, which are mental activities that allow them to think logically about concrete situations. As a result, they’re able to classify objects according to their physical characteristics; order items in terms of length or other quantitative dimension; perform number operations such as adding, subtracting, multiplying, and dividing; and conserve. Conservation depends on the operations of decentration and reversibility

Question 124

Tell me about formal operational Piaget?

Answer 124

. Individuals in this stage can think abstractly, which allows them to think about abstract principles (such as democracy and equality) and engage in hypothetical-deductive reasoning and propositional thought
-imaginary audiance
-personal fable

Question 125

Criticisms of Piaget theory

Answer 125

1. children often exhibit stage criteria in earlier stages.
2. does not fully acknowledge the power of peer interactions.

Question 126

Tell me about Vygotsky’s Sociocultural Theory?

Answer 126

-cognitive development is influenced by social and cultural factors.
-interpersonal to intrapersonal
-private speech(out loud to inner speech)

Question 127

Tell me about zone of proximal development?

Answer 127

child’s zone of proximal development, which is the gap between what a child can currently do independently and what he or she can do with assistance from an adult or more competent peer. The assistance provided to a child by another person is referred to as scaffolding and is more effective when it involves the use of prompts, questions, and feedback rather than providing correct answers and solutions.

Question 128

Tell me about theory of mind?

Answer 128

• Ability to explain and predict other people’s behaviour by attributing independent mental states, such as beliefs and desires, to them.
  -think of the hiding person.

Question 129

Why is eyewitness testimony flawed?

Answer 129

Eyewitness testimony is not always accurate, and research has identified several factors that contribute to its inaccuracy. For example, Loftus (2005) found that inaccuracy is often due to the -

-misinformation effect, which occurs when memories of an event are altered by subsequent exposure to misleading information about the event.
-greater knowledge increases the likelihood of generating spontaneous false memories from suggestive information
-Finally, there is some consensus that children as young as 3 years of age can provide reasonably accurate eyewitness testimony as long as they are interviewed in a nonsuggestive way and are not exposed to misinformation

Question 130

Tell me about childhood amnesia?

Answer 130

Another explanation is that a sense of self is necessary for developing personal memories and very young children have not yet developed a stable, coherent sense of self.

Question 131

Tell me about Reminiscence Bump?

Answer 131

-When older adults are asked to recall important events from their lives, the largest number of recalled events occurred during the ten-year period prior to being tested

-The second largest number of recalled events occurred when they were between the ages of about 15 and 25. The increased memory for events that occurred from mid-adolescence to the mid-20s is referred to as the reminiscence bump

Question 132

What are the effects on memory in old age?

Answer 132

Older adults experience the greatest age-related decline in recent long-term (secondary) memory, followed by the working memory aspect of short-term memory.
-In contrast, the storage aspect of short-term memory (also known as primary memory) and remote long-term memory (also known as tertiary memory) are relatively unaffected by increasing age.
-older adults use fewer encoding strategies.

Question 133

What are the effects of aging on declarative vs non-declarative memory?

Answer 133

The research has consistently found that episodic memory declines with increasing age in adulthood, while semantic memory shows little or no age-related decline. However, the research has provided inconsistent results for nondeclarative memory

Question 134

What is declarative memory?

Answer 134

Declarative memory is also sometimes referred to as explicit memory and consists of memories that are retrieved consciously and intentionally. It includes episodic and semantic.

Question 135

What is non-declarative memory?

Answer 135

Nondeclarative memory is also sometimes referred to as implicit memory and consists of memories that are retrieved automatically or with little effort. It includes procedural memories (memories for learned skills and actions), memories created by classical conditioning (conditioned associations between two stimuli), and memories affected by priming (in which prior exposure to a certain stimulus affects how a person responds to a subsequent stimulus).

Question 136

Sex differences verbal?

Answer 136

Girls obtain higher scores on many measures of verbal ability throughout childhood and adolescence, including speech fluency and reading and writing achievement. However, boys outperform girls on measures of verbal analogies. (word problem that tests reasoning and vocabulary skills) e.g. apple is fruit, not all fruit are apples

Question 137

Sex differences math?

Answer 137

girls outperform boys on measures of computational skills,
while boys outperform girls on measures of mathematical reasoning and have acquired more mathematical problem-solving strategies.

Question 138

Tell me about Synchrony Effect in terms of cognitive performance?

Answer 138

in the morning for older adults and in the late afternoon and evening for younger adults

Question 139

Sex differences self-esteem?

Answer 139

-self-esteem being higher among males than females beginning in late childhood and persisting until late adulthood.

-In contrast, the studies have found that the lifespan trajectory of self-esteem is similar for males and females: For both genders, self-esteem is relatively high in childhood, drops in adolescence, increases from late adolescence through middle adulthood, and then declines in late adulthood

-Note that, while the gender gap in self-esteem and its lifetime trajectory are similar worldwide, there is evidence that the size of the gender gap varies across cultures The gap tends to be larger in countries that are individualistic, developed, and wealthy (e.g., United States, Canada, Netherlands) and smaller in countries that are collectivistic, less developed, and poorer (e.g., India, Indonesia, Malaysia).

Question 140

sex differences Visual/Spatial Abilities?

Answer 140

Boys obtain higher scores on measures of visual/spatial abilities, especially on tasks requiring mental rotation.

Question 141

Sex differences aggresion?

Answer 141

confusing
boys more physical aggressive
but they could be the same in terms of relational aggression.

Question 142

developmental vulnerability sex difference?

Answer 142

boys are more vulnerable than girls to pre- and perinatal hazards and diseases and are more likely to have developmental problems such as autism spectrum disorder, attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder, intellectual disability, and speech defects.

Question 143

As described by Piaget, __________ involves using current schemas to interpret new information.

A. equilibration

B. adaptation

C. assimilation

D. accommodation

Answer 143

C. assimilation

Question 144

A 14-year-old gets a “bad” haircut and doesn’t want to go to school because he thinks everybody will be staring and laughing at him because of his hair. As described by Elkind (1981), this is an example of:

A. identity foreclosure.

B. identity moratorium.

C. the personal fable.

D. the imaginary audience.

Answer 144

D. the imaginary audience.

Question 145

Research on sex differences has most often found which of the following?

A. Boys obtain higher scores on measures of visual/spatial skills (especially on tasks involving mental rotation), while girls obtain higher scores on most measures of verbal skills.

B. Boys obtain higher scores on most measures of verbal skills, while girls obtain higher scores on measures of visual/spatial skills (especially on tasks involving mental rotation).

C. Girls obtain higher scores than boys on most measures of visual/spatial and verbal skills.

D. Boys obtain higher scores than girls on most measures of visual/spatial and verbal skills.

Answer 145

A. Boys obtain higher scores on measures of visual/spatial skills (especially on tasks involving mental rotation), while girls obtain higher scores on most measures of verbal skills.

Question 146

Increasing age in adulthood is most associated with a decline in:

A. sensory memory.

B. primary memory.

C. secondary memory.

D. tertiary memory.

Answer 146

C. secondary memory.

Question 147

As described by Vygotsky, private speech is:

A. a means of self-guidance that eventually becomes inner speech.

B. a means of self-guidance that interferes with cognitive development.

C. due to egocentrism and gradually fades away.

D. due to egocentrism and plays an important role in cognitive development.

Answer 147

A. a means of self-guidance that eventually becomes inner speech.

Question 148

Babies first exhibit intentional, goal-directed behaviors and imitation of the novel behaviors of others during substage ___ of Piaget’s sensorimotor stage.

A. 2

B. 4

C. 5

D. 7

Answer 148

B. 4

Question 149

Which of the following best describes the gender gap in self-esteem?

A. Females have higher self-esteem than males do from late childhood through late adulthood.

B. Males have higher self-esteem than females do from late childhood through late adulthood.

C. Females have higher self-esteem than males do in late childhood, but males have higher self-esteem than females do in adulthood.

D. Males have higher self-esteem than females do in late childhood, but females have higher self-esteem than males do in adulthood.

Answer 149

B. Males have higher self-esteem than females do from late childhood through late adulthood.

Question 150

What are gottman’s 4 hourseman

Answer 150

1. criticism
2. defensiveness
3. stonewalling.
4. contempt—-the worse

Question 151

predictors of divorce?

Answer 151

1. emotionally volatile (attack-defend) for new marriages
2. emotionally inexpressive avoid for later marriage.
3. older is less likely
4. previous marriage, or kid, or poor is not good.
5. psychopathology and neuroticism

Question 152

Effects of divorce on children?

Answer 152

younger is initially worse in longer run older is worse because they remember.
-boys experienced more negative short- and long-term effects than girls.
-girls also experience negative effects immediately after the divorce but are more likely to exhibit internalizing behaviors that aren’t as obvious. In addition, girls may experience a “sleeper effect”: Girls who were in preschool or elementary school when their parents divorced may experience few problems initially but become noncompliant and have low self-esteem and emotional problems as adolescents and become pregnant before marriage, marry young, and worry excessively about abandonment and betrayal in romantic relationship.

Question 153

What age group is the most problematic in terms of adjusting to divorce?

Answer 153

9-15

Question 154

explain cohabitation and divorce?

Answer 154

Initial studies found that married couples who cohabitated before marriage had higher rates of divorce than those who did not cohabit
-Subsequent studies a decreased likelihood for divorce during the first year of marriage but with an increased likelihood for divorce in subsequent years.
-age is more important than cohabitation for predicting divorce, with a younger age at first cohabitation or first marriage (whichever came first) being associated with an increased risk for divorce.

Question 155

what is the effect of premarital sex on divorce and marital satisfaction?

Answer 155

not good

Question 156

what is the effect of marriage on death

Answer 156

dead first men, married men, women, married women
happiness is married men, married women, women then men

Question 157

transition to parenthood what makes it better?

Answer 157

adopted better than your own.
-both parties getting involved
-support of family
-transition to parenthood early in their relationship.

Question 158

Do adopted kids have better outcomes?

Answer 158

No though the parents are well off the kids have more externalizing and internalizing behaviors that could be due to pre-exposure.

Question 159

helicopter parents outcome?

Answer 159

link between helicopter parenting and poor emotional functioning, decision-making, and academic functioning in their sample of individuals, ages 17 to 25.

Question 160

Gay or lesbian parents?

Answer 160

No difference they are as good or better.

Question 161

effects of custodial parents, grandparents?

Answer 161

They love it but it almost kills them

Question 162

Empty nest good or bad?

Answer 162

married women in their study experienced an increase in marital satisfaction after the last child left home and that this increase was due primarily to an increase in the quality of interactions with their husbands rather than the quantity of time they spent with their husbands.

Question 163

What is Walker’s cycle of violence?

Answer 163

3 phases
1. tension building phase, hostility and tension between partners gradually escalates as partners argue over domestic issues and the abuser becomes increasingly hostile and critical of the victim. The victim attempts to placate the abuser by doing things she believes will please or calm him. 2. Increasing tension eventually leads to the acute battering incident, in which the abuser verbally expresses intense rage and/or physically attacks the victim. The incident may occur when the woman is no longer able to control her partner’s hostility or unconsciously provokes the incident to relieve tension and move to the next phase.
3. The loving contrition phase is also referred to as the honeymoon phase. During this phase, the abuser expresses remorse, is loving and kind, and tries to convince his partner the abuse will not happen again.

Question 164

4 types of johnsons typology for interpersonal partner violence?

Answer 164

mediated by motivation, or is by male or female
1. Intimate terrorism is most often perpetrated in heterosexual couples by the male partner who uses violence to control his female partner.
2. Violent resistance is most often perpetrated in heterosexual couples by the female partner as a response to the behavior of her violent and controlling male partner. The female partner’s motivation is not to control her partner but, instead, to retaliate or defend herself – or, in extreme cases, to escape the abuse by killing the abuser.
3. Mutual violent control is perpetrated by both partners for the purpose of gaining control over their relationship. Johnson’s research found this to be the least common type of IPV.
4. Situational couple violence is perpetrated by male and female partners, can be either one-sided or mutual, and can range from mild to severe. This type of violence is situationally provoked (e.g., by an argument that escalates to verbal and/or physical aggression). It may involve a desire to control the situation but not a more general desire to control the relationship. Johnson found this to be the most common type of IPV.

Question 165

Most common type of child maltreatment?

Answer 165

The most common type is neglect

Question 166

child maltreatment demographics

Answer 166

younger worse
girls worse
natives, then black
single homes

Question 167

Consequences of maltreatment?

Answer 167

-obesity in adulthood. depression may mediate the link between childhood maltreatment and adult obesity.
-Sexual abuse (CSA) are affected by the individual’s gender and relationship with the perpetrator and the nature of the abuse.
Girls depression and other internalizing behaviors
Males being more likely to exhibit conduct problems, aggression, and other externalizing behaviors.

Males and females, with both experiencing significant mental health problems and other difficulties throughout their lifetimes

betrayal trauma theory that child sexual abuse perpetrated by a family member or other person who is close to the child is associated with worse mental health outcomes than is abuse perpetrated by a less familiar or unknown individual.

Finally, the consequences of CSA are related to the duration and severity of the abuse, with severe outcomes being associated with abuse that occurs over a long period of time, involves force, and includes some form of penetration.

Question 168

Therapies for abuse

Answer 168

Parent-child interaction therapy and trauma-focused cognitive behavioral therapy.

Parent-child interaction therapy (PCIT) was originally developed for children with disruptive behavior disorders but is also effective for children ages 2 to 12 who have experienced or are at risk for experiencing physical or emotional abuse.

It includes didactic parent training and live coaching in which the therapist observes parent-child interactions from behind a two-way mirror and provides parents with feedback and support via an earpiece. Therapy has two phases: During the first child-directed interaction phase, the focus is on helping parents establish non-coercive, non-violent relationships with their children and strengthen the parent-child bond.

During the second parent-directed interaction phase, the focus is on teaching parents how to give clear instructions to children and consistently provide children with appropriate consequences for acceptable and unacceptable behaviors.

Trauma-focused cognitive behavioral therapy (TF-CBT) is an effective treatment for youths 3 to 18 years of age who have experienced sexual abuse or other maltreatment, witnessed domestic violence, or experienced a traumatic loss. Treatment is provided to children and nonoffending parents and focuses on providing them with the resources and skills needed to help children cope with posttraumatic stress and other negative consequences of the abuse or other trauma. It incorporates a variety of strategies including psychoeducation, parenting skills training, relaxation techniques, affect regulation and expression techniques, in vivo exposure, and cognitive coping techniques.

Question 169

effect of return to work of kids?

Answer 169

maternal employment does not have a significant impact on children’s development
-some impact from single family

Question 170

effects of daycare on child development?

Answer 170

high-quality daycare may increase behavioral problems but improve performance on measures of cognitive and language skills and some social skills

Question 171

Teacher Interactions with Students in terms of development?

Answer 171

elementary through graduate school, the ways that male and female teachers interact with male and female students reflect gender stereotypes: For example, teachers call on male students more often than female students and give male students more attention, praise, and feedback that encourages them to learn.

Question 172

Research investigating the consequences of divorce for women and men has found that:

A. women usually experience greater economic hardship than men do, and the hardship is often chronic.

B. women usually experience greater economic hardship than men do, but the hardship is often transient.

C. men usually experience greater economic hardship than women do, and the hardship is often chronic.

D. men usually experience greater economic hardship than women do, but the hardship is often transient.

Answer 172

A. women usually experience greater economic hardship than men do, and the hardship is often chronic.

Question 173

Studies investigating the impact of gender stereotypes on teacher behavior have found that:

A. male and female teachers pay more attention to and give more praise to male students than to female students.

B. male and female teachers pay more attention to and give more praise to female students than to male students.

C. female teachers pay more attention to and give more praise to female students but male teachers pay more attention to and give more praise to male students.

D. female teachers pay more attention to and give more praise to male students but male teachers pay more attention to and give more praise to female students.

Answer 173

A. male and female teachers pay more attention to and give more praise to male students than to female students.

Question 174

Research on the effects of divorce on parents and children has identified a “sleeper effect” which refers to which of the following?

A. The gradual increase in the problematic behaviors of boys and girls after the divorce.

B. The gradual decrease in the problematic behaviors of boys after the divorce.

C. The delay in the onset of problematic behavior in girls following the divorce.

D. The gradual increase in conflict in the parent-child relationship following the divorce.

Answer 174

C. The delay in the onset of problematic behavior in girls following the divorce.

Question 175

The studies have found that children in high-quality daycare:

A. are indistinguishable from children who do not attend daycare.

B. have higher rates of disobedience and other behavioral problems than children who do not attend daycare.

C. are more likely to have cognitive and language deficits than children who do not attend daycare.

D. have higher rates of behavioral problems and lower cognitive and language skills than children who do not attend daycare.

Answer 175

B. have higher rates of disobedience and other behavioral problems than children who do not attend daycare.

Question 176

During the year or two following divorce, custodial mothers tend to be:

A. overly indulgent and permissive toward their children.

B. inconsistent and more authoritarian in their discipline.

C. overly anxious about their parenting skills.

D. distracted and indifferent or hostile toward their children.

Answer 176

B. inconsistent and more authoritarian in their discipline.

Question 177

Data collected by the U. S. Department of Health and Human Services (2018) indicate that members of which age group are at highest risk for child maltreatment?

A. 0 to 3 years of age

B. 4 to 7 years of age

C. 12 to 15 years of age

D. 16 to 17 years of age

Answer 177

A. 0 to 3 years of age

Question 178

Greenstein’s (2016) cross-national study found that _______ in his sample obtained the highest average score on a measure of life satisfaction.

A. never married women

B. never married men

C. married men

D. married women

Answer 178

c. married men

Question 179

Juffer and van IJzendoorn (2005) conducted a meta-analysis of studies comparing mental health outcomes of international adoptees, domestic adoptees, and nonadopted peers and found that:

A. international adoptees had the lowest rates of internalizing and externalizing problems.

B. international adoptees had the highest rates of internalizing and externalizing problems.

C. international adoptees had higher rates of internalizing and externalizing problems than nonadopted peers had but lower rates than domestic adoptees had.

D. international adoptees had lower rates of internalizing and externalizing problems than nonadopted peers had but higher rates than domestic adoptees had.

Answer 179

C. international adoptees had higher rates of internalizing and externalizing problems than nonadopted peers had but lower rates than domestic adoptees had.

Question 180

Of the following types of intimate partner violence, which most often takes the form of Walker’s cycle of violence?

A. situational couple violence

B. mutual violent control

C. intimate terrorism

D. violent resistance

Answer 180

C. intimate terrorism

this is a tricky question as they are not asking which is most common they are asking which one fits the theory.
e.g.
e.g. tension builds, violence, honeymoon. very indicative of intimate terrorism.

Question 181

Data collected by Danese and Tan (2014) indicated that which of the following may mediate the relationship between childhood maltreatment and adult obesity?

A. socioeconomic status

B. alcohol intake

C. physical activity

D. depression

Answer 181

a tricky question what are they asking. what determines whether you get fat or not, what determines it beyond the obvious.

d. depression.

Question 182

Research comparing the outcomes for children of gay or lesbian parents and heterosexual parents has found that:

A. children of gay or lesbian parents tend to be less well-adjusted than children of heterosexual parents.

B. children of heterosexual parents tend to be less well-adjusted than children of gay or lesbian parents.

C. children of gay parents (but not lesbian parents) tend to be less well-adjusted than children of heterosexual parents.

D. children of gay or lesbian parents do not differ consistently in terms of adjustment from children of heterosexual parents.

Answer 182

D. children of gay or lesbian parents do not differ consistently in terms of adjustment from children of heterosexual parents.

Question 183

Of Gottman and Levenson’s (2002) “Four Horsemen of the Apocalypse,” which is the best predictor of divorce?

A. defensiveness

B. criticism

C. contempt

D. stonewalling

Answer 183

C. contempt

Question 184

A frequently cited meta-analysis of the research by Lucas-Thompson and colleagues (2010) found that a mother’s return to work during the first 3 years of her child’s life:

A. has significant negative effects on a child’s later behavior and academic achievement regardless of family structure and income.

B. has significant positive effects on a child’s later behavior and academic achievement regardless of family structure and income.

C. does not have significant effects on a child’s later behavior and academic achievement, although outcomes are affected somewhat by the family structure and income.

D. does not have significant effects on a child’s later behavior and academic achievement, and outcomes are not affected by the family structure or income.

Answer 184

C. does not have significant effects on a child’s later behavior and academic achievement, although outcomes are affected somewhat by the family structure and income.

Question 185

tell me about synaptogenesis?

Answer 185

The process of creating new synapses.
-peaks at 2-3, wastefull stuff is discarded through synaptic pruning.

Question 186

tell me about brain growth?

Answer 186

newborn’s brain is about 25% of its adult weight at birth, but it grows rapidly and is about 80% of its adult weight by the time a child is two years old

Question 187

When does the brain start to decrease?

Answer 187

around 30
-loss of neurons
-loss of size of the frontal cortex
-the process is compensated by -neurogenesis creation of new neural pathways, especially in the hippocampus.

Question 188

Tell me about vision at birth?

Answer 188

-Vision is the least developed sense at birth
-see about 20 feet what normal adults see at 400 to 600 feet
-7 or 8 months of age, their visual acuity(sharpness) is similar to that of normal adults. –prefer to look at patterned stimuli rather than non-patterned stimuli
-prefer facial to non-facial images.

Question 189

vision depth perception relies on what three characteristics

Answer 189

-binocular cues
-kinetic motion cues
-pictorial (static-monocular) cues

Question 190

what are the first two senses to decline and when

Answer 190

40 hearing and vision

Question 191

What’s up with sound in newborns’

Answer 191

Newborns are somewhat less sensitive than adults to sound, especially high-frequency sounds, but their sensitivity to high-frequency sounds develops quickly and comes close to adult levels by six months of age

Question 192

What is the first sense to develop and when

Answer 192

touch
in the womb
touch and pain well developed at birth

Question 193

What is sids?

Answer 193

sudden infant death syndrome
-could be caused by serotonin abnormalities in the medulla

Question 194

risk factors for sids?

Answer 194

-male gender
-African American or Native
-6 months of age or younger
-premature birth
-ow birth weight
- poor prenatal care, maternal
-alcohol or drugs during pregnancy
- cigarette smoke
- sleeping on stomach).

Question 195

What does early onset puberty look like for boys and girls?

Answer 195

-boys higher levels of self-esteem and social maturity
- greater popularity with peers,
-better athletic skills.
-higher levels of alcohol use and antisocial behavior and precocious sexual behavior.

For girls, early onset puberty is associated with a number of negative consequences
-including lower levels of self-esteem and popularity;
- poorer academic achievement; -a higher risk for precocious sexual behavior; and higher rates of substance use, depression, anxiety, eating disorders, and disruptive behavior disorders.

Question 196

What are the buffering factors that effect drug use in teens

Answer 196

1. religiosity
2. self-control
3. parental support

Question 197

In terms of the brain whats going on in teens decision making?

Answer 197

limbic system well developed, feelings.
-pre-frontal cortex not as well developed thinking.

Question 198

what does screen time have to do with sleep?

Answer 198

it depresses melatonin

Question 199

Sexual orientation and genetics?

Answer 199

-twin studies
-fraternal birth order, not really a thing.

Question 200

What is the difference between sexual fluidity and bisexuality?

Answer 200

-Sexual fluidity is transient and situation dependent,
-while bisexuality involves a stable and persistent pattern of sexual attraction to both men and women.

Question 201

Which of the following infants is at greatest risk for sudden infant death syndrome?

A. a Black male infant who is 4 months old

B. a Black female infant who is 7 months old

C. a White male infant who is 7 months old

D. a White female infant who is 4 months old

Answer 201

A. a Black male infant who is 4 months old

Question 202

Volitional (versus reflexive) auditory localization emerges after _________ of age and then improves to nearly adult levels by about 12 months of age:

A. six weeks

B. nine weeks

C. four months

D. nine months

Answer 202

C. four months

Question 203

Sexual fluidity is:

A. considered to be the same as bisexuality and is somewhat more common in women than in men.

B. considered to be the same as bisexuality and is somewhat more common in men than in women.

C. not considered to be the same as bisexuality and is somewhat more common in women than in men.

D. not considered to be the same as bisexuality and is somewhat more common in men than in women

Answer 203

C. not considered to be the same as bisexuality and is somewhat more common in women than in men.

Question 204

Which of the following best describes the outcomes associated with early and late onset puberty for boys and girls?

A. Early onset puberty has more favorable outcomes than late onset puberty for both boys and girls.

B. Late onset puberty has more favorable outcomes than early onset puberty for both boys and girls.

C. Early onset puberty has more favorable outcomes for boys, while late onset puberty has more favorable outcomes for girls.

D. Early onset puberty has more favorable outcomes for girls, while late onset puberty has more favorable outcomes for boys

Answer 204

C. Early onset puberty has more favorable outcomes for boys, while late onset puberty has more favorable outcomes for girls.

Question 205

Of the senses, __________ is least well-developed at birth.

A. hearing

B. sight

C. touch

D. taste

Answer 205

B. sight

Question 206

The studies have found that sensitivity to depth cues develops in infancy in a stage-like sequence, with sensitivity to ________ cues developing first.

A. stereoscopic

B. binocular

C. pictorial

D. kinetic

Answer 206

D. kinetic

Question 207

The adolescent growth spurt begins:

A. at about the same age for boys and girls.

B. about two years earlier for girls than boys.

C. about four years earlier for girls than boys.

D. about two years earlier for boys than girls.

Answer 207

D. about two years earlier for boys than girls.

Question 208

what is the age of puberty adolescences development?

Answer 208

10 or 11 years of age for girls
12 or 13 years of age for boys.
peaks in two years
takes about 4 years

Question 209

Which of the following areas of the brain is least well-developed at birth?

A. prefrontal cortex

B. cerebellum

C. hippocampus

D. basal ganglia

Answer 209

A. prefrontal cortex

Question 210

What is contact comfort?

Answer 210

Well in monkeys they are even willing to give up food for comfort with baby monkeys.

Question 211

What is Bowlby’s ethological attachment theory.

Answer 211

-proposes that infants and their mothers are biologically predisposed to form an attachment to help ensure the survival of the infant:
-four stages of attachment that occur during the first two years of life:
-preattachment,
-attachment-in-the-making
- clear-cut attachment,
-formation of reciprocal relationships.

Question 212

Bowlby signs off attachment?

Answer 212

six months of age
a) At six to eight months, infants begin to exhibit social referencing and look to caregivers to determine how to act in ambiguous and unfamiliar situations.
(b) Separation anxiety also begins at about six to eight months, is most intense from 14 to 18 months, and thereafter gradually declines.
(c) Stranger anxiety begins at about eight to ten months and begins to decline at about age two.

Question 213

4 patterns of types of atttachment.

Answer 213

1. secure attachment– explores the room when his/her mother is present, may or may not cry when she leaves, actively seeks contact with her when she returns, and prefers her to a stranger. Mothers of these babies are sensitive and responsive.
   (b) A baby with insecure/resistant (ambivalent) attachment stays close to his/her mother initially, is distressed when she leaves, may be angry and resist her attempts at contact when she returns, and is fearful of a stranger even when his/her mother is present. Mothers of these children are inconsistent in their caregiving. (c) A baby with insecure/avoidant attachment seems indifferent toward his/her mother, exhibits little distress when she leaves, avoids her when she returns, and reacts to his/her mother and to a stranger in a similar way. Mothers of these children are either rejecting or intrusive and over-stimulating.
   (d) A baby with disorganized/disoriented attachment is fearful of his/her mother and often has a dazed or confused facial expression. A baby with this pattern may or may not be distressed when his/her mother leaves and exhibits disorganized, confused behavior when she returns and when with a stranger. The majority of these babies have been maltreated by their caregivers.

Question 213

OK link attachment styles to consequence as adults

Answer 213

secure-autonomous adult
preoccupied-resistant/insecure
dismissing avoidant

Question 214

attachment who is at higher risk

Answer 214

low socioeconomic, single mom teens the worse.

Question 215

Whats the deal with attachment patterns in cultures?

Answer 215

-insecure/avoidant pattern was most prevalent in the United States, Germany, and other individualistic cultures,
-insecure/resistant pattern was most prevalent in Japan, Israel, and other collectivist cultures.

Question 216

What is the timeline for early emotions?

Answer 216

From birth to about 18 months of age
children exhibit primary emotions: Shortly after birth they exhibit contentment, interest, and distress which expand at about six months to include joy, surprise, sadness, disgust, anger, and fear. Thereafter, children exhibit secondary (self-conscious) emotions as a result of the development of self-awareness: -At 18 to 24 months, they begin to exhibit envy, empathy, and embarrassment which expand at -30 to 36 months to include shame, guilt, and pride.

Question 217

When do infants begin to recognize emotions beyond smile, happy

Answer 217

7 months
might be due to fear bias
10-18 months they understand effect of stuff food makes you happy.

Question 218

How is increasing age adulthood to late adulthood associated with emotions?

Answer 218

increasing age was associated with decreasing negative emotions and increasing positive emotions.

Question 219

What are Age-Related Changes in Emotional Memory?

Answer 219

Socioemotional selectivity theory (SST)
-older adults tend to be motivated more than younger adults by emotional gratification and
-more likely to focus on and recall positive information more than negative information.

Question 220

Which is a stronger motivator shame or guilt?

Answer 220

Shame?

Question 221

How does shame and guilt work as motivators?

Answer 221

shame was more likely to induce the motivation to distance oneself from the event, while guilt was more likely to induce the motivation to apologize for or otherwise repair the aftermath of the event.

Question 222

Tell me about instrumental and hostile aggression?

Answer 222

Instrumental aggression is also referred to as proactive aggression, and its function is to fulfill a need or desire (e.g., to get attention or obtain a desired object).

Hostile aggression is driven by anger and is done to hurt someone.

Physical instrumental aggression 1 year of age, peaks around 2 years of age

4 years of age when verbal and relational hostile aggression begin to become more common

Question 223

is there a link between violent video games and violence?

Answer 223

consistent relation between violent video game use and increases in aggressive behavior, aggressive cognitions, and aggressive affect and decreases in prosocial behavior, empathy, and sensitivity to aggression

Question 224

Tell me about southern or northern united states in terms of violence?

Answer 224

south has culture of honour, poor, hillbillys, herding, slavery, uneducated.

Question 225

What is the coercive family interaction model?

Answer 225

parents are mean to get compliance, and kids learn that being mean gets others to comply

Question 226

What is the social information processing model in terms of aggression?

Answer 226

–Encoding of cues: Aggressive children tend to focus on aspects of the provoker’s behavior that suggest a hostile intention and ignore other aspects.
–(b) Interpretation of cues: Aggressive children have a hostile attribution bias that causes them to automatically assume that a provoker had a hostile intent in ambiguous social situations.
–(c) Clarification of goals: Aggressive children identify retaliation as their goal.
–(d) Response search: Aggressive children identify few options for responding, and most of them involve aggressive behavior.
– (e) Response decision: Aggressive children choose an aggressive response because they believe it will have favorable outcomes.
— (f) Behavioral enactment: Aggressive children act aggressively.

Question 227

How do you age successfully?

Answer 227

1. dont get sick
2. exercise your body and brain
3. get engaged.

selection, optimization, and compensation

Question 228

How is againg effect friendships

Answer 228

young people time is unlimited they look for the future and knowlede.
older people time is limited and they look for intimacy.

Question 229

tell me about unhappy vs unhappy married couples

Answer 229

older unhappy married couples cause less shit cause they are use to it and use strategies.

Question 230

What are the stages of Friendships in Childhood and Adolescence?

Answer 230

Level 0/Momentary Playmates – “I Want It My Way?” (about 3 to 6 years of age):

Level 1/One-Way Assistance – “What’s In It For Me?” (about 5 to 9 years of age): Children in this stage recognize that friendships extend beyond their current activities and say friends are children who do nice things for them.
Level 2/Two-Way, Fair Weather Cooperation – “By The Rules” (about 7 to 12 years of age): Children in this stage are concerned about fairness and reciprocity in friendships. They believe if they do something nice for a friend, the friend should do something nice for them – and, if that doesn’t happen, the friendship is likely to end.

Level 3/Intimate, Mutually Shared Relationships – “Caring and Sharing” (8 to 15 years of age): During this stage, children and adolescents share secrets and do things for each other because they genuinely care about their friends. They’re likely to feel betrayed when a best friend chooses to spend time with someone else.

Level 4/Mature Friendship – “Friends Through Thick and Thin” (12 years of age and older): Children and adolescents in this stage value emotional closeness with friends. They accept differences between themselves and their friends and are less likely to feel threatened when a close friend has other friendships.

Question 231

Tell me about peer status in terms of rejected-aggresive children, rejected-withdrawn, and unpopular?

Answer 231

Rejected-aggressive children tend to be hyperactive and impulsive, are often in conflict with their peers, have trouble regulating their emotions, and misinterpret the intentions of others as hostile.

Rejected-withdrawn children tend to be submissive and passive, have a high degree of social anxiety, and have negative expectations about how they’ll be treated by others.

Neglected children have low rates of interaction with peers, rarely engage in disruptive behaviors, and are usually well-adjusted.

unpopular children has found that they tend to be worse for children who are actively rejected by their peers. These children not only express greater loneliness and have lower self-esteem but are also less likely than neglected children to experience an improvement in their peer status when they change schools or social groups

Question 232

In a research study, a baby’s willingness to crawl across a “visual cliff” depends on whether his mother, who is standing on the other side of the cliff, is smiling or has a fearful expression on her face. The baby’s behavior is best explained by which of the following?

A. social referencing

B. observational learning

C. separation anxiety

D. empathy

Answer 232

A. social referencing

Question 233

Which of the following is not included in Rowe and Kahn’s (1987) three-component model of successful aging?

A. high cognitive and physical functioning

B. positive self-perception of aging

C. low risk for disease and disability

D. active engagement with life

Answer 233

B. positive self-perception of aging

Question 234

The “culture of honor” in the southern United States has been linked to which of the following?

A. a high need for affiliation

B. a high need for achievement

C. certain types of violence

D. certain types of altruism

Answer 234

C. certain types of violence

Question 235

Carstensen’s (1993) socioemotional selectivity theory attributes differences in adults’ motivation for friendships to differences in:

A. attachment style.

B. information processing.

C. gender.

D. time perspective.

Answer 235

D. time perspective.

Question 236

According to Selman (1980), 3- and 4-year old children are most likely to say that a friend is someone:

A. who does nice things.

B. they play with.

C. in their family.

D. who likes them.

Answer 236

B. they play with.

Question 237

An intervention based on Patterson et al.’s (1992) research on coercive family interactions is most likely to include which of the following?

A. training for parents in effective parenting skills

B. training for parents and children in social-perspective taking

C. empathy training for children

D. social skills training for children

Answer 237

A. training for parents in effective parenting skills

Question 238

Self-conscious emotions ordinarily emerge when a child is ________ months of age.

A. 9 to 12

B. 12 to 18

C. 18 to 24

D. 24 to 32

Answer 238

C. 18 to 24

Question 239

Which of the following best describes the conclusion of the APA Task Force on Violent Media (2015)?

A. Exposure to violent videogames has little or no effect on the aggressive behavior of youth or young adults.

B. Exposure to violent videogames has a cathartic effect and reduces the aggressive behavior of children, adolescents, and young adults.

C. Exposure to violent videogames increases the aggressive behavior of youth over 10 years of age and young adults.

D. Exposure to violent videogames increases the aggressive behavior of children under the age of 13 but has little or no effect on the behavior of adolescents and young adults.

Answer 239

C. Exposure to violent videogames increases the aggressive behavior of youth over 10 years of age and young adults.

Question 240

Research conducted by Carstensen, Gottman, and Levenson (1995) found that older unhappily married couples were less likely than middle-aged unhappily married couples to engage in:

A. de-escalation.

B. positive continuance.

C. negative start-up.

D. negative continuances.

Answer 240

C. negative start-up.

Question 241

In the strange situation, a baby with insecure/avoidant attachment will most likely:

A. be easily comforted by a stranger.

B. ignore a stranger.

C. react to a stranger and his/her mother in a similar way.

D. be distressed by a stranger even when his/her mother is present.

Answer 241

C. react to a stranger and his/her mother in a similar way.