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psychological assessment Flashcards

1
Q

What is the Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory

A

Measure of personality and psychopathology for individuals 18 years of age and older and is used to assist with diagnosis, treatment planning, and selecting applicants for high-risk occupations.

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2
Q

In the MMPI2 2 what is a significant score?

A

t score greater than 65 or under 40

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3
Q

when is the MMPI2 used

A

diagnosis of mental disorder and used in combination with other assessment techniques.
-used to identify personality disorders.

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4
Q

how is it used in practice key coding?
two point code

A

you get two highest scales, and then you take the number and report the two highest scales such 4-9 or 9-4

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5
Q

what are the three point codes there are three of them.

A

conversion V high (hypochondrias, hysteria) low depression-with somatic symptoms
1,3, 2

psychotic V (paranoid valley high (pananoi, schizophrenai) low psychasthenia)-associated with szhizo behavior.
6, 8, 7
neurotic V (high hypochondrias, depression, and hysperia)
1,2,3,

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6
Q

on the validity of the MMPI2 what do these terms mean.
L(lie)
K(defensiveness)
F(infrequently)
Fb(F Back)
Fp(infrequency)
S(Superlative)
VRIN(variable response inconsistency)
TRIN
?

A

L=attempt to fake, denial, poor insight
K=attempt to fake, denial, defensive, may resist treatment.
F=F attempt to fake bad, excessive eccentricity, resistance to testing, significant pathology
FB=atempt to fake Bad, random, not interested
Fp=exaggeratin of symptoms
S=defensive in one or more of the five area
VRIN=invalid profile inconsistent, similar or opposite
TRIN=opposite content in the same way
? reading problem, confusion, lack of cooperation

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7
Q

basic interpretaion of MMPI2 remember this?

A

F, VRN=random answers
F VRN=psychopathology
L K F

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8
Q

The three-point code known as the psychotic valley consists of which of the following?

A. elevated scores on scales 1 and 3 with a lower score on scale 2

B. elevated scores on scales 6 and 8 with a lower score on scale 7

C. elevated scores on scales 1, 2, and 3

D. elevated scores on scales 6, 7, and 8

A

B. elevated scores on scales 6 and 8 with a lower score on scale 7

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9
Q

A 21-year-old man is extraverted and talkative and has a history of impulsive and criminal behaviors that began during his pre-adolescent years. He will most likely obtain elevated scores on which of the following MMPI-2 clinical scales?

A. 1(Hs) and 3(Hy)

B. 1(Hs) and 6(Pa)

C. 0(Si) and 4(Pd)

D. 4(Pd) and 9(Ma)

A

D. 4(Pd) and 9(Ma)

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10
Q

A psychologist interviews 28-year-old Jack who was recently incarcerated. Jack is forthcoming during the interview and is willing to disclose the behaviors that led to his incarceration and other problematic behaviors, and he seems to have previously undiagnosed psychopathology. On the MMPI-2, Jack is most likely to obtain which of the following?

A. high L and high K scale scores

B. high F and low VRIN scale scores

C. low F and low Fb scale scores

D. high S and high TRIN scale scores

A

B. high F and low VRIN scale scores

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11
Q

Theo, age 35, lost sensory and motor functioning in his left hand after being in a car accident that killed his best friend. His physician has found no medical explanation for Theo’s symptoms. On the MMPI-2, Theo is most likely to obtain which of the following?

A. elevated scores on scales 1 and 3 with a lower score on scale 2

B. elevated scores on scales 6 and 8 with a lower score on scale 7

C. elevated scores on scales 2, 4, and 7

D. elevated scores on scales 2, 7, and 8

A

A. elevated scores on scales 1 and 3 with a lower score on scale 2

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12
Q

A 21-year-old man is extraverted and talkative and has a history of impulsive and criminal behaviors that began during his pre-adolescent years. He will most likely obtain elevated scores on which of the following MMPI-2 clinical scales?

A. 1(Hs) and 3(Hy)

B. 1(Hs) and 6(Pa)

C. 0(Si) and 4(Pd)

D. 4(Pd) and 9(Ma)

A

D. 4(Pd) and 9(Ma)

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13
Q

The research has found that child custody litigants often respond to MMPI-2 items in a defensive way that’s indicated by:

A. a higher than normal score on the F scale and lower scores on the L and K scales.

B. a lower than normal score on the S scale and higher scores on the F and L scales.

C. higher than normal scores on the L and K scales and a lower score on the F scale.

D. higher than normal scores on the S and F scales and lower scores on the L and K scales.

A

C. higher than normal scores on the L and K scales and a lower score on the F scale.

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14
Q

What is the Halstead-Reitan Neuropsychological Battery for?

A

brain damage
traumatic brain injury or a neurocognitive disorder. 5-8
9-14
15 plus
often used with WISC WAIS or MMPI-2

Index is derived total number of subtest impaired by total number of subtests.
It ranges from 0 to 1.0, with a score of 0 to 0.2 indicating normal functioning, 0.3 to 0.4 indicating mild impairment, 0.5 to 0.7 indicating moderate impairment, and 0.8 to 1.0 indicating severe impairment.

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15
Q

Luria-Nebraska Neuropsychological Battery: what is it for?

A

neuropsychological functioning and consists of 11 scales that assess several aspects of functioning
- reading, writing, arithmetic, expressive language, receptive language, and intellectual functioning

8-12 and 13 and older.
1-3 impairment, cut off scores

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16
Q

Boston Process Approach test what is it?

A

Qualitative test.
-neuropsychological test, flexible

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17
Q

Bender Visual-Motor Gestalt Test, 2nd Edition test what is it?

A

visual-motor perception and integration for individuals 4 to 85 years of age and older

-copy and recall phase

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18
Q

Wisconsin Card Sorting Test (WCST): what is it

A

Abstract reasoning, perseveration, the ability to change cognitive strategies in response to feedback, and other executive cognitive functions.
-18-90
the tester fucks with the responder by changing shit up.

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19
Q

Stroop Color and Word Test what is it?

A

examinee can inhibit a prepotent (habitual) response in favor of a less familiar response.
-ADHD, bipolar disorder, major depressive disorder, and schizophrenia.

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20
Q

tower of london test

A

problem-solving, planning, and inhibition of impulsive and perseverative responding in order to evaluate frontal lobe functioning

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21
Q

Mini-Mental State Exam (MMSE): is for

A

cognitive impairment—screener neuorcognition in adults
-Scores below 24 indicate cognitive impairment and, the lower the score, the greater the impairment

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22
Q

Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) test

A

evaluate the level of consciousness in patients following an acute or traumatic brain injury and involves rating the patient in terms of three responses: best eye opening response, best motor response, and best verbal response.

8 or less indicating a coma and severe injury, a score of 9 to 12 indicating a moderate injury, and a score of 13 to 15 indicating a mild injury.

-lower the score the worse it is

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23
Q

Rancho Scale of Cognitive Functioning Revised:

A

evaluate cognitive recovery during the first several weeks following a head injury

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24
Q

A score of 23 or lower on the Mini-Mental State Exam (MMSE) indicates:

A. normal functioning.

B. cognitive impairment.

C. severe depression.

D. a lack of responsiveness.

A

B. cognitive impairment.

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25
Which of the following tests would be most useful for confirming a diagnosis of intellectual disability? A. Vineland-3 B. Stroop Test C. Benton Test D. MMSE
A. Vineland-3
26
A score of _____ on the Halstead Impairment Index indicates severe impairment. A. 0 B. .5 C. .9 D. -10.0
C. .9
27
When administering the Bender-Gestalt II to a 72-year-old man who has just received a diagnosis of mild neurocognitive disorder due to Alzheimer’s disease, you will first ask the man to: A. match a set of cards to four stimulus cards. B. pick up a piece of paper in his right hand, fold it in half, and put it in his lap. C. copy geometric designs depicted in a set of cards. D. draw from memory the geometric designs depicted in a set of cards.
C. copy geometric designs depicted in a set of cards.
28
Poor performance on the Stroop Word and Color Test or the Tower of London Test is most suggestive of damage to the area of the brain that mediates: A. short-term memory. B. executive functions. C. visual-motor integration. D. receptive language.
B. executive functions.
29
what are interest inventories used for?
preferences for different activities and occupations
30
What are interest inventories good and bad for?
good -job choice -satisfaction -persistence bad predicting job success
31
What is the strong interest inventory used for?
-high school to adult -5 scales
32
SII scale A general occupations theme
realistic, investigative, artistic, social, enterprising, and conventional
33
SII scale B
Basic interest scale 30 interests
34
SII occupational scales
occupations 130 of them
35
SII Personal Styles Scales (PSSs) 5 of them
work style, leadership style learning environment risk taking team orientation.
36
SSI The Administrative Indices
measures unusual or inconsistent responses
37
What is Kuder Occupational Interest Survey (KOIS) used for?
high school, teen, adult, choose least and most preferred activity.
38
KOIS scales include?
A)Occupational Scales indicate the strength of the relationship between the examinee’s interests and those of satisfied workers in 109 occupations. (b) Scores on the College Major Scales indicate the strength of the relationship between the examinee’s interests and those of students who have chosen one of 40 college majors. (c) The Vocational Interest Estimates (VIE’s) indicate the examinee’s preferences for ten interest areas: outdoor, mechanical, computational, scientific, persuasive, artistic, literary, musical, social services, and clerical. (d) The Dependability Indices provide information that’s used to determine the validity of an examinee’s responses.
39
The Kuder Occupational Interest Inventory (KOIS) provides ipsative scores, which means that scores indicate: A. the degree of consistency of an examinee’s interests. B. an examinee’s likelihood of success in different occupations. C. the relative strength an examinee’s interests. D. the absolute strength of an examinee’s interests.
C. the relative strength an examinee’s interests.
40
Empirical criterion keying was used in the development of which of the following Strong Interest Inventory scales? A. Basic Interest Scales B. Occupational Scales C. Occupational Scales and General Occupational Themes D. Basic Interest Scales and Occupational Scales
B. Occupational Scales
41
Which of the following provides scores on Holland’s six occupational themes? A. the SII B. the KOIS C. the SII and the KOIS D. neither the SII nor the KOIS
A. the SII
42
Which of the following is NOT one of the Kuder Occupational Interest Survey (KOIS) scales? A. Occupational Scales B. Vocational Interest Estimates C. Personal Styles Scales D. College Major Scales
C. Personal Styles Scales
43
Research has found that interest inventories are least predictive of which of the following? A. job persistence B. job performance C. job satisfaction D. job choice
B. job performance
44
Is the KOIS inter or intra
intra (relative)
45
spearman two-factor theory of intelligence has two parts. What are they?
general intellectual factor numerous specific factors
46
What the difference between crystalized and fluid intelligence
crystalized what you know. fluid what you can figure out to learn
47
research on crystalized and fluid intelligence says what.
They both increase during childhood and adolescence but that fluid intelligence peaks before crystallized intelligence does fluid peaks 30-40 crystalized around 70
48
Carroll’s Three-Stratum Theory what is its
three parts 1. general intelligence 2. broad abilities 3. specific abilities
49
Das, Naglieri, and Kirby’s PASS Theory of Intelligence
four interdependent functions that interact with a person’s knowledge: planning, attention, simultaneous processing, and sequential processing.
50
Gardner’s Theory of Multiple Intelligences
We have multiple intelligences such as linguistic musical logical-mathematical spatial bodily-kinesthetic interpersonal intrapersonal naturalistic existential.
51
Sternberg’s Triarchic Theory of Successful Intelligence:
three parts 1. Analytical intelligence is comparable to general intelligence (g) and consists of knowledge-acquisition and information-processing skills that are used to analyze, evaluate, and critique information. 2.Creative intelligence is the ability to apply knowledge and information-processing skills to novel problems and unfamiliar situations. 3. practical intelligence is the ability to apply knowledge and information-processing skills to everyday tasks and situations. According to Sternberg, traditional intelligence tests focus on analytical intelligence and neglect creative and practical intelligence.
52
What is the Flynn effect in intelligence
IQ scores increased by about 3 points per decade throughout the 20th century in both developed and developing countries, with the increase being most robust for measures of fluid intelligence
53
What is the reverse flynn effect
in 21century, kids with 109 iq or higher get a reverse effect.
54
highest and lowest scores for WISC WAIS for ADHD depression alzeimer TBI ------------there all the same
low psi high VCI autism Low PSI high PRI mild congnitive low PRI high VCI
55
what are the the four main catagories for WISC
VCI PSI PRI WMI
56
tell me about stanford binnet intelligence test
precursor to wisc wais -verbal and non-verbal domains Fluid Reasoning factor assesses fluid intelligence Knowledge factor assesses crystallized knowledge Quantitative Reasoning factor assesses quantitative knowledge Visual-Spatial Processing factor assesses visual processing Working Memory factor assesses short-term memory (Gsm). always starts with verbal comprehension and objects series/matrixes
57
math the WISC domain to the appropriate test VCI PRI PSI WMI
Core: Vocabulary, Similarities, Information Supplemental: Comprehension Core: Block Design, Matrix Reasoning, Visual Puzzles Supplemental: Figure Weights, Picture Completion Core: Digit Span, Arithmetic Supplemental: Letter-Numbering Sequencing Core: Symbol Search, Coding Supplemental: Cancellation
58
for the wais what is a characteristic of NVerbal LD
nonverbal learning disability (NVLD) VCI score on the WAIS-IV that is significantly higher than the PRI score
59
in terms of decline from least decline to most who goes first.
VCI least decline about 80 WMI about 60 PRI PSI about 30 but PSI goes first
60
What are the main domains of the WISC
Verbal Comprehension Index (VCI) Fluid Reasoning Index (FRI) Working Memory Index (WMI) Visual Spatial Index (VSI) Processing Speed Index (PSI)
61
highest and lowest domain of the following ADHD Autism with language impairment Autism without language impairment LD reading
High VCI low PSI LD High VSI low WM autism without laguage High VCI low PSI autism with language High FRI low PSI
62
The Processing Speed Index of the WAIS-IV consists of which of the following subtests? A. symbol search, digit span, and block design B. symbol search, coding, and cancellation C. digit span, coding, and cancellation D. letter-number sequencing, block design, and coding
B. symbol search, coding, and cancellation
63
A 68-year-old woman recently received a diagnosis of mild neurocognitive disorder due to Alzheimer’s disease. Most likely she will receive the highest score on the WAIS-IV’s __________ Index and lowest score on the __________ Index. A. Verbal Comprehension; Perceptual Reasoning B. Working Memory; Perceptual Reasoning C. Verbal Comprehension; Processing Speed D. Perceptual Reasoning; Processing Speed
C. Verbal Comprehension; Processing Speed
64
The Flynn effect refers to: A. generational increases in IQ scores in the last century. B. generational decreases in IQ scores in the last century. C. individual increases in IQ scores over the lifespan in the last century. D. individual decreases in IQ scores over the lifespan in the last century.
A. generational increases in IQ scores in the last century
65
The WAIS-IV is appropriate for individuals ________ years of age. A. 2 through 90 B. 8 through 85 C. 16 through 90 D. 6 through 95
C. 16 through 90
66
Which of the following SB5 subtests are used to determine the starting point for the other subtests? A. Object Series/Matrices and Verbal Analogies B. Object Series/Matrices and Vocabulary C. Procedural Knowledge and Vocabulary D. Procedural Knowledge and Verbal Analogies
B. Object Series/Matrices and Vocabulary
67
A 10-year-old child who has received a diagnosis of autism spectrum disorder with language impairment will most likely receive the highest score on the WISC-V’s ________ Index and lowest score on the ________ Index. A. Fluid Reasoning; Processing Speed B. Fluid Reasoning; Working Memory C. Verbal Comprehension; Working Memory D. Verbal Comprehension; Processing Speed
A. Fluid Reasoning; Processing Speed
68
Research has found that: A. crystallized and fluid intelligence both increase or remain stable until late adulthood. B. crystallized and fluid intelligence both peak in early to middle adulthood. C. crystallized intelligence peaks in early to middle adulthood, while fluid intelligence peaks in late adulthood. D. crystallized intelligence peaks in late adulthood, while fluid intelligence peaks in early to middle adulthood.
D. crystallized intelligence peaks in late adulthood, while fluid intelligence peaks in early to middle adulthood.
69
According to Flanagan and Alfonso (2017), which of the following WISC-V’s primary subtests assesses both crystallized and fluid intelligence? A. Vocabulary B. Similarities C. Symbol Search D. Matrix Reasoning
B. Similarities
70
(CAS2)
cognitive processing abilities for individuals five to 18 years of age.
71
Peabody Picture Vocabulary Test-Fifth Edition (PPVT-5)
-2:6 to 90+ years of age -useful for examinees who have speech or motor impairments.
72
(KABC-II)
cognitive ability for children ages 3:0 through 18 -culturally fair test by minimizing cultural content and verbal instructions and responses -Results can be interpreted using the Cattell-Horn-Carroll (CHC) model of cognitive abilities -
73
(CMMS)
Originally developed for children with cerebral palsy, but it is also useful for children with sensory, speech, or other motor impairments or limited English proficiency.
74
(Leiter-3)
-nonverbal measure of cognitive abilities for individuals 3 to 75+ years of age have cognitive delays, speech or hearing impairments, autism spectrum disorder, or limited English proficiency
75
(SPM)
-nonverbal measure of abstract reasoning that provides an estimate of fluid intelligence. -free from the effects of specific educational and cultural learning. 6:0 and older hearing or speech impairments, physical disabilities, or limited English proficiency. It has also been found useful for individuals with autism spectrum disorder and is less likely than the Wechsler tests to underestimate their level of intelligence
76
(WPT-R)
used primarily to assist with hiring decisions.
77
(CogAT7)
predict academic performance and identify gifted/talented and at-risk students
78
College Admissions Tests: types
GRE SAT
79
(FTII)
three to 12 months of age and evaluates an infant’s selective attention and recognition memory.
80
(Bayley-4)
developmental status of children ages 16 days to 42 months
81
Computerized Adaptive Testing:
-assessment of cognitive ability and achievement, but it is also used for other purposes including assessing the severity of psychiatric symptoms. -item response theory (IRT)
82
The __________ is a measure of receptive vocabulary that can be used with children, adolescents, and adults who have motor or speech impairments. A. CAS2 B. CogAT7 C. KABC-II D. PPVT-5
D. PPVT-5
83
The results of which of the following can be interpreted using the Cattell-Horn-Carroll (CHC) model of cognitive abilities? A. PPVT-5 B. KABC-II C. CAS2 D. Leiter-3
B. KABC-II
84
To evaluate the general intellectual ability of a 26-year-old with limited English proficiency, you would use which of the following? A. KABC-II B. WPT-R C. Raven’s SPM D. Bayley-4
C. Raven’s SPM
85
Which of the following evaluates the selective attention and recognition memory of infants three to 12 months of age? A. Bayley-4 B. Fagan Test C. Kaufman Assessment Battery D. Leiter-3
B. Fagan Test
86
To evaluate the general mental ability of job applicants to assist with hiring decisions, you would use which of the following? A. CogAT7 B. WPT-R C. Bayley-4 D. Leiter-3
B. WPT-R
87
Sixteen Personality Factor Questionnaire (16 PF):
lexical strategy and factor analysis primary traits global traits
88
Edwards Personal Preference Schedule (EPPS)
-Murray’s system of human needs -forced-choice format yields ipsative scores -itra individual
89
Myers-Briggs Type Indicator (MBTI)
-based on Jung’s personality typology and provides information on four bipolar personality dimensions. -
90
NEO Personality Inventory-3 (NEO-PI-3)
Big Five” personality traits lexical approach and factor analysis -high levels of neuroticism and low levels of conscientiousness were significantly and most consistently related to an increased risk for Alzheimer’s disease and other forms of neurocognitive disorder
91
acronym ocean
openness conscientious extraversion agreeableness neuroticism.
92
Projective personality tests are based on what assumption?
people will ‘project’ their personalities if presented with unstructured, ambiguous stimuli and an unrestricted opportunity to respond
93
Rorschach Inkblot Test:
(a) Location: the area in the inkblot that the examinee used to derive his/her response (the whole inkblot, a common detail, or an unusual detail) (b) Determinants: the characteristic(s) of the inkblot that determined the examinee’s response (the inkblot’s form, movement, color, and/or shading) (c) Content: the category of the examinee’s response (human, animal, or nature) (d) Form Quality: the similarity of the examinee’s response to the actual shape of the inkblot (e) Popularity: the extent to which the examinee’s response is given by other examinees -many color responses indicate emotionality and impulsiveness; -many “whole” responses suggest creative or theoretical thinking -(overgeneralizing), confabulation a part of the inkblot to the whole) suggests brain injury, cognitive impairment, or schizophrenia.
94
Thematic Apperception Test (TAT)
Murray’s theory of human needs. involves identifying the story’s hero, the hero’s needs and press (internal and external causes of the hero’s behavior), and the outcomes for each story.

psychopathology (9 decks)

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