Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Psychology > Psychopathology > Flashcards

Psychopathology Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
AP® Psychology flashcards Psychology 101 flashcards GRE® Psychology flashcards
1
Q

Explain statistical infrequency.

A

the number of times we observe something determines if we consider it to be ab/normal.
Observed a lot - considered normal.
Rarely observed - abnormal.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Explain one strength of statistical infrequency.

A

Real life application to intellectual disability disorder.
Place for statistical infrequency in considering normal and abnormal behaviours.
Useful part of clinical assessment.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Give one example of statistical infrequency being successful.

A

Average IQ is 100.
Most people are in range 85-115.
2% below 70 - allows for diagnosis of intellectual disability disorder.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Explain how labels can be harmful in statistical infrequency.

A

If someone is living a happy life, they get no benefit to being labelled abnormal, if someone with low IQ is capable of working and not distressed there is no need to label.
So it may have negative effects of how they and others view themself.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Explain how unusual characteristics can be positive.

A

Having an IQ over 130 is just as unusual as having one over 70 however we don’t view this as needing support and treatment.
Makes them statistically abnormal but not in a bad way.
Cannot be alone used for diagnosis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Explain deviation from social norms.

A

Behaviour that is different from the accepted standards of behaviours in a community or society.
Social norms change with generations and culture.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Explain a strength of deviation from social norms as a definition of abnormality.

A

Real life application.
Antisocial personality is order is defined as a deviation from social norms.
Useful in clinical practice.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Explain how deviation from social norms is ethnocentric.

A

Definition does not consider other cultures, what’s normal in one may not be normal in others.
This can create problems for people from one culture living with other cultures.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Explain how deviation from social norms can lead to abuse of human rights.

A

Certain diagnoses can be made to control minority groups (in history).
Old classifications appear ridiculous nowadays but that is because our social norms have changed.
In years to come our classifications of mental disorders may appear controlling as social norms change.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Explain one example of deviation from social norms as a definition for abnormality.

A

One important symptom of antisocial personality disorder is an absence of prosocial internal standards associated with failure to conform to lawful or culturally normal ethical behaviour.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Define failure to function adequately.

A

Occurs when someone is unable to cope with ordinary demands of day to day living.
Including nutrition and hygiene.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Give an example of how failure to function adequately shows abnormality.

A

A diagnosis of intellectual disability disorder can only be made if person is also failing to function adequately.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Explain a strength of failure to function adequately as a definition of abnormality.

A

Patients perspective is acknowledged.
Definition also captures the experience of many people who need help.
Suggests it could be useful in assessing abnormality.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Explain why subjective judgements is a weakness of failure to function adequately.

A

There is no objectively to functioning adequately.
So it is up to whoever is assessing the individual to decide.
May not make an accurate diagnosis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Name 3 possible evaluations for failure to function adequately.

A

Patients perspective is acknowledged.
Could just be a deviation from social norms.
Subjective judgements.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are the possible evaluations for statistical frequency?

A

Real life application.
Unusual characteristics can be positive.
Labels can be harmful.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Name the 3 evaluations of deviation from social norms.

A

Real life application.
Can lead to abuse of human rights.
Ethnocentric.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Explain why failure to function adequately could just be a deviation from social norms.

A

Can be hard to tell if they’re really failing to function or just deviating from social norms.
If we treat certain behaviours as failures, we risk limiting personal freedom and discriminating against minority groups.
E.g. travellers, no permanent address, not viewed as failing to function as a lifestyle.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Define deviation from ideal mental health.

A

Occurs when someone does not meet a set of criteria for good mental health.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Explain one strength of deviation from ideal mental health.

A

Comprehensive definition.
Covers a broad range of criteria for mental health.
Therefore covers most areas anyone would seek help for.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Explain how deviation from ideal mental health sets unrealistically high standards.

A

Anyone is very unlikely to fit into all categories.
Could make people feel worse about themselves.
But allows people to aim for better mental health.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Explain cultural relativism as a weakness for deviation from ideal mental health.

A

Some ideas in the classification are specific to Western European and northern American cultures.
For example some criteria would be considered self-indulgent in communist cultures.
The criteria does not particularly apply successfully to other cultures.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What are the possible evaluations of deviation from ideal mental health.

A

Comprehensive definition.
Cultural relativism.
Sets unrealistically high standard.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Define phobia.

A

An irrational fear of an object or situation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What are specific phobias?

A

Phobias of an object e.g. animal, or a situation e.g. flying.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is agoraphobia?

A

The phobia of being outside or in a public place.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is a social phobia?

A

Phobia of a social situation where there is a possibility of judgement e.g. public speaking or using a public toilet.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What are behavioural characteristics of phobias?

A

Panic.
Avoidance.
Endurance.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Explain panic as a behavioural characteristic of phobias.

A

May involved crying screaming and running away.
For children may be freezing, clinging or throwing a tantrum.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Explain avoidance as a behavioural characteristic of phobias.

A

Going to a lot of effort to avoid coming into contact with phobic stimuli.
Can make it hard to go about daily life.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Explain endurance as a behavioural characteristic of phobias.

A

When the sufferer remains in the presence of phobic stimuli but experiences high levels of anxiety.
May be unavoidable e.g. flying.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Name the emotional characteristics of phobias.

A

Anxiety.
Unreasonable emotional responses.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Explain anxiety as an emotional characteristic of phobias.

A

Unpleasant state of high arousal.
Prevents relaxation and positive emotions.
Can be long term.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What are unreasonable emotional responses to phobias?

A

Responses may be wildly disproportionate to the danger posed by a phobic stimuli.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Name the cognitive characteristics of a phobia.

A

Selective attention to phobic stimulus.
Irrational beliefs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Explain selective attention to phobic stimuli.

A

If stimulus is visible it’s hard to look away from it.
Keeping our attention on something dangerous is good as it gives us the best chance of responding to a threat.
However it isn’t useful if the fear is irrational.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What is the cognitive characteristic of phobias irrational beliefs?

A

Sufferer may hold irrational beliefs in relation to the phobic stimuli.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Outline the behaviourist explanation of phobias.

A

A phobia is learnt through the process of classical conditioning so is formed through association and then maintained through operant conditioning.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Explain the role of classical conditioning in phobias.

A

Phobias are the result of an association between anxiety and a provoking UCS and a previously neutral stimulus.
E.g. NS - balloon, UCS - loud noise, UCR - fear, CS - balloon, CR - fear.

40
Q

Explain how operant conditioning plays a role in phobias.

A

The phobia is maintained through reinforcement (positive and negative).
Reinforcement increases the frequency of the behaviour.

41
Q

How does positive reinforcement strengthen phobias?

A

Provides a rewarding consequence for a phobia e.g. receiving attention or successfully avoiding the phobia resulting in the desirable consequence of being relaxed.

42
Q

How does negative reinforcement strengthen phobias?

A

Removing or stopping an unpleasant experience e.g. loss of anxiety due to removal of the stimulus.

43
Q

Explain the little Albert case study.

A

The experimenter allowed Albert to freely play with animals.
When he played with the white rat the experimenter frightened the child by making a loud noise behind him.
He then was startled and began to cry.

44
Q

What were the results of the little Albert study?

A

Whenever the rat was brought near him Albert would cry and scream.
A bind had been established between the sight of the rat (CS) and fear (CR).
Once the bind was fixed Albert would show fear around any furry object.

45
Q

What is stimulus generalisation?

A

The tendency to make the same response to similar stimuli.

46
Q

What can we conclude from the little Albert study?

A

It shows research support for the theory that phobias can be created through classical conditioning/association.

47
Q

Explain one strength of the behaviourist explanation of phobias.

A

Good practical application.
Led to effective therapies e.g. systematic desensitisation, patients unlearn fear response and replace it with one of relaxation.
Explanation has proved useful in a therapy setting.

48
Q

Explain one weakness of the behaviourist explanation for phobias.

A

Doesn’t acknowledge the influence of evolution.
Most people fear have fears that would have been useful in the past e.g. spiders, dark, heights - we don’t fear guns/cars as frequently although they are more dangerous to us now as we haven’t adapted to fear these things.
Therefore the explanation is too simple as it ignores biological preparedness.

49
Q

What is the two factor/process model?

A

Phobias are acquired through classical conditioning and then maintained through operant conditioning.

50
Q

What is an anxiety hierarchy?

A

When the patient ranks situations involving the phobic stimuli from least to most frightening.

51
Q

What is systematic desensitisation?

A

A behavioural therapy which reduces anxiety through classical conditioning.
They learn to relax around the phobic stimuli.
A new response is learned so a different response occurs to the phobic stimuli.
Reciprocal inhibition.

52
Q

What is reciprocal inhibition?

A

It is impossible to be afraid and relaxed at the same time so one emotion prevents the other.

53
Q

How does relaxation play a part in systematic desensitisation?

A

The therapist teaches the patient to relax as deeply as possible in the presence of phobic stimuli.

54
Q

What are the 3 main parts of systematic desensitisation?

A

Anxiety hierarchy.
Relaxation.
Exposure.

55
Q

Explain the exposure part of systematic desensitisation.

A

The patient is exposed to the phobic stimuli while in a relaxed state starting at the least frightening situation.

56
Q

What does flooding involve?

A

Immediate exposure to the phobic stimuli.
Have to become relaxed around the stimuli which often happens as the body becomes exhausted from being anxious.

57
Q

Define extinction in the context of flooding.

A

The patient quickly learns that the phobic stimuli is harmless.

58
Q

Name two strengths of systematic desensitisation.

A

Doesn’t cause much trauma.
Research support.

59
Q

Explain why systematic desensitisation causing less trauma is a strength.

A

Patients prefer it as it also includes some elements which are pleasant - learning relaxation procedures.
This means that there is low refusal rates and low attrition rates.

60
Q

Explain how research support is a strength of systematic desensitisation.

A

Gilroy et al found patients with spider phobias who were given systematic desensitisation were less fearful after 3 months than a group just treated with relaxation.
This shows that the treatment is more effective that other types of treatment particularly in the long term.

61
Q

What are 2 possible evaluations of flooding as a treatment for phobias.

A

Traumatic.
Less effective for some types of phobias.

62
Q

Explain how flooding is less effective for some types of phobias.

A

It is best used for simple phobias and has less effect on social phobias.
This may be due to cognitive aspects - e.g. don’t just experience anxiety but have unpleasant thoughts about the social situation as well.
This type of phobia may benefit more from cognitive therapies.

63
Q

Explain how flooding can be traumatic.

A

Patients experience a high degree of psychological harm if they have to confront the object of their fear.
Not a suitable treatment for many has people with a low fear threshold may drop out before their symptoms can be effectively treated.

64
Q

What are the 2 characteristics of OCD?

A

Obsessions.
Compulsions.

65
Q

Define obsessions.

A

Recurring thoughts and images.

66
Q

Define compulsions.

A

Repetitive behaviours e.g. hand washing.

67
Q

What are the 3 main compulsions of OCD?

A

Trichotillomania.
Hoarding disorder.
Excoriation disorder.

68
Q

What is trichotillomania?

A

Compulsive hair pulling.

69
Q

What is hoarding disorder?

A

Compulsive gathering of possessions and inability to part with anything regardless of its value.

70
Q

What is excoriation disorder?

A

Compulsive skin picking.

71
Q

What are the 2 main behavioural characteristics of OCD?

A

Compulsions (2 elements).
Avoidance.

72
Q

What are the 2 main elements of compulsions?

A

Repetitive.
Reduce anxiety.

73
Q

What is avoidance on OCD?

A

Sufferers tend to keep away from situations that trigger their OCD to reduce anxiety e.g. avoiding contact with germs if they have a compulsion to wash their hands.

74
Q

What are the 3 emotional characteristics of OCD?

A

Anxiety and distress.
Depression.
Guilt and disgust.

75
Q

Describe anxiety and distress in OCD.

A

Powerful and unpleasant thoughts that are frightening can overwhelm sufferers.

76
Q

How can depression be an emotional characteristic of OCD?

A

A low mood and a lack of enjoyment in activities often occur.
Compulsions bring temporary relief.

77
Q

Explain guilt and disgust as a part of OCD.

A

Irrational guilt over minor moral issues or disgust which can be directed at themselves.

78
Q

What does an insight into excessive anxiety mean in regards to OCD?

A

People with OCD know that their obsessions/compulisons are not rational.
If they not aware they would be more likely characteristic of a psychotic disorder.

79
Q

Describe the genetic explanation for OCD.

A

Vulnerability thought to be inherited from parents.
230 separate candidate genes - therefore polygenic.
Many of which influence the functioning of neural systems in the brain.

80
Q

Describe research evidence for the genetic explanation for OCD.

A

Evidence from twin and family studies.
Family - examined 50 patients with OCD and interviewed families, found pronounced obsessional traits in 37% parents and 21% siblings.
Twin - on review of previous twin studies found 68% of Mz twins and 31% of Dz twins experience OCD.
Therefore suggesting a genetic link.

81
Q

What are the 2 neural explanations for OCD?

A

Imbalance of neurotransmitters.
Large neural structures.

82
Q

Describe the biochemical neural explanation.

A

Low levels of the neurotransmitter serotonin thought to cause obsessive thoughts.
Likely due to it being removed too quickly from the synapse - reputable too fast.
Doesn’t have time to transmit its signal/influence the postsynaptic cell.

83
Q

Explain how the parahippocampal gyrus may be involved in OCD.

A

Processes unpleasant emotions.
May be functioning abnormally.
Therefore sufferers are likely to experience emotions such as guilt and disgust in repossession to their thoughts.

84
Q

What are 2 possible evaluations for the genetic explanation for OCD?

A

Environmental risk factors.
230 candidate genes.

85
Q

Evaluate the genetic explanation of OCD in regards to environmental risk factors.

A

Environmental factors can trigger or increase the risk of OCD (diathesis stress).
Found over half of patients have suffered a traumatic event and more than 1 meant they had more severe OCD.

86
Q

Explain why so many candidate genes is a weakness of the genetic explanation for OCD.

A

Not been easy to pin down all the genes involved in OCD.
Several genes have been identified and each genetic variation only increases the risk of developing OCD by a fraction.
Genetic explanations alone are not very useful as have very little predictive value.

87
Q

What are two possible evaluations of the neural explanation for OCD?

A

Assumption of cause rather than effect.
Link between OCD and depression.

88
Q

Explain why the assumption that neural mechanisms cause OCD is a weakness.

A

There is evidence that various structures of the brain function abnormally in patients with OCD.
May be a result of OCD rather than a cause.

89
Q

Explain how the link between OCD and depression is a weakness of the neural explanation.

A

The low serotonin levels may be due to co-morbidity with depression.
People often suffer with both.
The serotonin levels may be disturbed by depression rather than OCD.

90
Q

Explain how SSRIs treat OCD.

A

Increase levels of serotonin.
Serotonin is released by the presynaptic neurons, and travel across the synapse.
Usually the neurotransmitter chemically conveys the signal by attaching to the presynaptic neuron, then reabsorbed.
SSRIs block serotonin reuptake, leaving increased levels in the synapse.
Therefore increased neurotransmission.

91
Q

Why are drugs more affective when used alongside CBT?

A

Reduce patients emotional symptoms so they can engage more effectively with CBT.

92
Q

Name 3 possible evaluations of drug therapy.

A

Effective at tackling symptoms.
Cost effective.
Side effects.

93
Q

Evaluate the effectiveness of drug therapy.

A

In study with placebo, SSRIs showed better results and symptoms typically reduce by 70%.
Clear evidence that they reduce severity of symptoms therefore improving quality of life.

94
Q

How is drug therapy cost effective?

A

Cheap compared to psychological treatments.
Good value for the public health system.

95
Q

Explain a weakness of drug therapy.

A

Side effects.
E.g. blurred vision, suicidal thoughts, weight gain - usually all temporary.
Reduces effectiveness as patients may stop taking the medication due to these.

Psychology (15 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions