Forensic Psychology Flashcards

1
Q

Define the top down approach.

A

Profiler uses witness accounts and evidence to assign offender to one of two categories.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are the 2 top down categories?

A

Organised offender.
Disorganised offender.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are the crime scene characteristics of an organised offender?

A

Evidence of planning.
Signature ways of working - if repeat offender.
Little evidence left.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are the likely characteristic of an organised offender?

A

Higher than average intelligence.
Married, possibly with children.
Socially and sexually competent.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are the crime scene characteristics of a disorganised offender?

A

Leaves clues.
Noplanning.
Body still at scene.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are the likely characteristics of a disorganised offender?

A

Lower than average intelligence.
Socially and sexually incompetent.
Live alone.
Many failed relationships.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Describe Canters study into the validity of the top down approach.

A

Analysis of data from 100 murders in USA.
Examined against 39 characteristics thought to be typical of either type.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What did the results of Canters study into the top down approach show?

A

A set of organised characteristics were found to be typical of most serial killers.
Disorganised characteristics were much rarer and did not occur often enough to be considered a type.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Why is the ability to only be applied to particular crimes a weakness of the top down approach?

A

This involves rape, murder, arson etc where crime scenes reveal important details about a suspect.
It cannot be applied to crimes such as burglary, destruction of property etc.
It is a limited approach to identifying criminals.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Explain why the classification of the top down approach is too simplistic.

A

The two categories are not mutually exclusive - what if an intelligent person commutes a spontaneous murder.
Other theories suggest more types of offenders - 4.
Doesn’t explain all possibile types of offenders.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is bottom up profiling?

A

Using the evidence to create a profile.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

How is investigative psychology used in bottom up profiling?

A

Uses statistical analysis of data collected at crime scenes compared to a large data base.
Helps to suggest certain characteristics.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are the 5 factors used to analyse a crime scenes?

A

Interpersonal coherence.
Time and place significance.
Criminal characteristics.
Criminal career.
Forensic awareness.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Explain interpersonal coherence.

A

How the person interacted with the victim is likely how they interact with all e.g. aggressive, shy etc.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Explain time and place significance.

A

Time - personal schedule.
Place - where they know well e.g. escape routes, busyness.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is forensic awareness?

A

If they show evidence of knowledge of criminal justice system or use techniques to reduce evidence left.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Explain criminal career.

A

If they behave consistently when repeat offending or start to adapt methods due to experience.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are criminal characteristics in investigative psychology?

A

How the characteristics compare to a large data base of previous crimes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is geographical profiling?

A

Assuming where an offender lives based off the locations of linked crimes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What are the 2 types of geographical profiles?

A

Marauder.
Commuter.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Define marauder.

A

Those who commit crimes in their own neighbourhood - commonly within less than 2 miles.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Define commuter.

A

Those who travel to commit their crimes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Describe the study by Lundrigan and Canter for geographical profiling.

A

Info from 120 murder cases.
Dispersion of body disposal sites usually creates a centre of gravity, where offenders usually based.
Most noticable for marauders.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

How can the research into geographical processes be used to support the use of it?

A

Supports ideas that spatial information is key in determining characteristics.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Explain one weakness of the bottom up approach.

A

Mixed results for effectiveness.
Copson surveyed 48 police forces and found the method was useful in 83% of cases but only led to accurate identification in 3% of cases.
Questions validity.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is the atavistic form theory?

A

Offenders are a biologically distinct group of people exhibiting primitive characteristics.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Define primitive.

A

Preserving characteristics from an early stage of evolution.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Give 4 examples of atavistic characteristics.

A

Large ears.
Large jaw.
Hairiness.
Beak like nose.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Describe lombrosos research into criminal features.

A

Visited variety of prisons in Italy.
Looked at faces to gather evidence.
Found people with 5 or more features are likely to be criminal.
Certain characteristics for certain crimes - thin lips - murder, beak like nose - robber.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Explain one strength of atavistic form theory.

A

Contributed to criminology.
Shifted emphasis in crime research to a more scientific method - first to believe it could be genetic rather than a lack of morals.
Major contribution to the scientific credibility of criminology.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Why did Lombroso’s research have poor control?

A

Poor control - didn’t have a control group of non criminals to compare facial features against.
Theory lacks validity as an ‘atavistic’ form may not actually exist.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Why is cause and effect a weakness of atavistic form theory?

A

These differences may be cause by environmental factors which also influenced offending behaviour e.g. diet and poverty.
This suggests that biological factors may not actually be the cause of criminal behaviour - rather a correlation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What are the candidate genes for criminality?

A

2 genes associated with violent crime:
MAOA - controls serotonin and dopamine and linked to aggressive behaviour.
CDH13 - linked to substance abuse and ADD.
High risk combination has lead to people being 13x more likely to have a history of violent disorder.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Explain the diathesis stress model in terms of criminality.

A

Genetic vulnerability e.g. parents have convictions.
Trigger e.g. peers engage in criminal behaviour.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Explain one study which supports the diathesis stress model.

A

Mednick studied 13000 Danish adoptees.
One of bio parents had convictions - 20%.
Both bio and adoptive parents had convictions - 24.5%.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Describe Lange’s research into concordance rates for criminality.

A

13 Mz and 17 Dz twins compared.
Mz showed 77% concordance rate and Dz only 12% for criminal convictions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What does Lange’s research suggest about criminal behaviour?

A

Due to genetics more than environment.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

How does Mednick’s research support the diathesis stress model?

A

Suggests both genetic inheritance and environment influence criminality.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Outline the neural explanation for criminality.

A

Evidence from studies of people with antisocial personality disorder.
Raine - reduced activity in prefrontal cortex and 11% reduction in volume of grey matter (processes info in the brain).
Criminals only able to empathise when asked to - not an automatic response, it can be turned on and off.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Describe Raines research into neural explanations.

A

Studied 21 people with APD and 21 without.
Volume of grey and white matter in prefrontal cortex measured with MRI scan.
Autonomic activity measured through heart rate when put in a stressful situation through videoing them talking about their thoughts.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What did Raines study demonstrate?

A

11% reduced grey matter in APD participants.
Deuces automatic response during stressful situation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What are mirror neurons?

A

Found in multiple areas of the brain which light up when we feel an emotion or carry out a task.
Also when we see another person do the same thing.
Bodies empathy system which allow us to feel the pain of others.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

How may mirror neurons relate to criminality?

A

Empathy can be turned off to commit a crime.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Why is biological reductionism a weakness of biological explanations?

A

These explanations reduce behaviour to a genetic or neural level.
Fail to make reference to any environmental factors such as poverty or lifestyle.
Therefore the explanations alone are too simplistic, and may benefit from more holistic approach.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Why is there a problem with the twin studies used to support genetic explanations.

A

MZ twins tend to be treated as the same person due to being identical.
Concordance rates may be higher as a result of environmental factors.
Suggests results lack validity.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What are 3 possible evaluations for biological explanations.

A

Issues with twin studies.
Support for the diathesis stress model - Mednick.
Biological reductionism.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Outline Eysenck’s theory of personality as a psychological explanation for criminality.

A

Personality made of 3 dimensions - extraversion/introversion, neuroticism/stability, and psychoticism.
These result from the type of nervous system we inherit.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Which personality type is most likely to be criminal?

A

Extroverted neurotic.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Explain the nervous system of extraverts and introverts.

A

Extraverts under active - seek stimulation from risk taking and tend to not condition easily so don’t learn from mistakes.
Introverts - already overactive.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What is a neurotic personality?

A

Tend to be nervous jumpy and over anxious.
Difficult to predict their behaviour.

51
Q

Explain the relationship between psychoticism and criminal behaviour.

A

Offenders tend to score highly.
Characterised as cold, unemotional, and prone to aggression.

52
Q

How did Eysenck measure personality dimensions?

A

EPI.
Large number of questions which you answer yes or no to.

53
Q

Describe one strength of Eysencks theory.

A

Eysenck compared EPI scores of 2070 male prisoners with a control group of non criminal males.
All scored higher on P E and N.
Therefore supporting evidence for his theory.

54
Q

Why is Bartol’s contradictory research a weakness of Eysencks theory?

A

Studies six groups of Hispanic and African-American prisoners in New York.
All groups less extraverted than control.
Due to cultural differences.
Questions generalisability of Eysencks theory.

55
Q

Why may Eysencks theory may be too simplistic?

A

Only identifies one single criminal type.
The five factor model proposes other traits such as conscientiousness -how agreeable you are.
May be other personality types which are linked to criminality which Eysenck did not consider.

56
Q

What are the 2 cognitive explanations for offending behaviour?

A

Low level of moral reasoning.
Cognitive distortions.

57
Q

Define moral reasoning.

A

The process in which an individual draws upon their own value system to determine if an action is right or wrong.

58
Q

Outline Kohlbergs levels of moral reasoning.

A

Developmental stages in which an individual grow as their understanding of moral decision making - usually complete by 9/10.

59
Q

Outline Kohlbergs stages of moral development.

A

Level 1: stage 1 - right and wrong determined by what is punished.
Stage 2 - determined by what is rewarded, actions based on what they will get out of it.
Level 2 : stage 3 - seeking approval/avoiding disapproval of people in close circle.
Stage 4 - determined by society’s laws and rules.
Level 3: stage 5 - interpretation of the law, understanding it may be flawed in some cases.
Stage 6 - focus on preservation of life.

60
Q

How do the stages of morals relate to criminal behaviour?

A

Criminals fail to reach stage 6.

61
Q

Define cognitive distortions.

A

Faulty and irrational ways of thinking which mean we perceive the world inaccurately.

62
Q

Name 2 cognitive distortions.

A

Hostile attribution theory.
Minimisation.

63
Q

Explain hostile attribution theory.

A

Viewing a situation as aggressive/threatening when in reality it is not.

64
Q

Define minimisation.

A

Under exaggerating the consequences of a situation.

65
Q

How does hostile attribution theory explain criminal behaviour?

A

Offenders may misread non aggressive cues and have a disproportionate violent reaction.

66
Q

How does minimisation explain criminal behaviour?

A

The downplay the seriousness of the offence, so don’t feel bad.

67
Q

Name 3 possible evaluations of cognitive explanations.

A

Applications to therapies.
Evidence for minimisation.
Kohlbergs theory is androcentric.

68
Q

Explain one weakness of cognitive explanations.

A

Kohlbergs research is androcentric.
Theory based off of research which only studies men.
May not accurately explain moral reasoning in females - Gilligan suggested women’s morals develop based on care and relationships rather than strict rules.
So theory may be incomplete and lack generalisability.

69
Q

Describe the research evidence which supports the idea of minimisation.

A

Pollock - of a sample of child molesters, 35% argues the crime they committed was non sexual and just affectionate.
36% argued the child had consented.
This provides evidence for the concept as it suggests the lack of understanding of consequences is why they committed the crime.

70
Q

Why are treatments derived from the cognitive explanation a strength?

A

CBT - has offenders face what they have done which helps them have a less distorted view of what they have done.
Rational ways of thinking have reduced rates of reoffending.
Provides validity for explanation.

71
Q

Outline differential association theory.

A

Offending behaviour is acquired through social interaction with others.
Two elements - learned attitudes towards crime, learning of specific criminal acts.
If we are surrounded by people with pro criminal attitudes, we are more likely to participate in offender behaviour - Sutherland believed we should be able to mathematically predict this.
Learning of criminal acts occurs from people we are close to e.g. picking a lock.
Reoffending may be the result of learning and association with other criminals in prison.

72
Q

Describe Farrington’s study which provides evidence for differential association theory.

A

411 males, started 1961 when 8, lasted 40 years - longitudinal.
All from working class, deprives areas of south London.
41% convicted of at least one crime.
Average - between age 19 -28, 5 crimes.
7% chronic offenders which committed half of all crimes recorded.

73
Q

Name 3 factors factors Farrington found increased criminality.

A

Family criminality.
Low school achievement
Poverty.

74
Q

How does Farrington’s findings support differential association theory?

A

Suggests we learn criminal behaviour through socialisation and imitation.

75
Q

Name 2 evaluations of differential association theory.

A

Difficult to test.
Socially sensitive.

76
Q

Explain how differential association theory is difficult to test.

A

Difficult to measure pro and anti criminal attitudes in an objective way, and at what point does one outweigh the other.
Undermines its scientific credibility.

77
Q

Why is differential association theory socially sensitive?

A

Doesn’t fully consider individual difference e.g. personality - too deterministic, not everyone exposed to crime will go on to commit.
May lead to stereotyping of individuals/areas.

78
Q

Outline the psychodynamic explanation for criminal behaviour.

A

Superego doesn’t develop properly during phallic stage which means there is a lack of control over the id.
3 types - weak superego, deviant, over harsh.
Absence of same sex parent - weak - lack of understanding between right and wrong.
Parent they identify with is immoral - deviant - believe that immoral behaviour is acceptable.
Over harsh - superego is not forgiving for breaking acceptable rules, increases guilt, unconsciously seek opportunities to be punished to reduce guilt.

79
Q

Outline Bowlby’s 44 thieves study in support for the psychodynamic approach.

A

In group of 44 juvenile thieves, 14 showed signs of affectionless psychopathy - 12 of which experienced prolonged separation.
Suggests maternal deprivation can have damaging psychological effects which can include delinquent behaviour.

80
Q

Explain how the psychodynamic approach uses untestable concepts.

A

Cannot test concepts such as superego in a way that provides scientific evidence for them.
Questions scientific validity of explanation.

81
Q

How does Bowlby’s supporting research have methodological issues?

A

Been accused of researcher bias and failing to distinguish between deprivation and privation.
Means evidence to support theory lacks validity.

82
Q

3 ways you could evaluate the psychodynamic explanation.

A

Bowlby’s supporting research.
Methodological issues in Bowlby’s study.
Untestable concepts.

83
Q

Define custodial sentencing.

A

A judicial sentence by a court where the offender is punished by serving time in prison or other institution.

84
Q

What are the 4 aims of custodial sentencing?

A

Incapacitation.
Rehabilitation.
Retribution.
Deterrence.

85
Q

What is incapacitation?

A

When an offender is taken out of society to prevent them reoffending in order to protect the public.

86
Q

What type of offender may be incapacitated?

A

Serial killers.

87
Q

How does incapacitation help to reduce crime?

A

Physically unable to reoffend.

88
Q

Explain rehabilitation.

A

Prison is seen as a chance to improve self in order to go back in to society as a better functioning member.

89
Q

How does rehabilitation reduce recidivism?

A

Teaches new skills, allows access to treatments to work on themselves.

90
Q

Explain retribution.

A

Prison is used as a form of revenge from society against crimes committed.
Level of suffering should be proportionate to severity of crime.

91
Q

What are the 2 types of deterrance?

A

General.
Individual.

92
Q

Define general deterrance.

A

Aims to send a broad message to members of society that crime isn’t tolerated.

93
Q

Define individual deterrance.

A

Prevents a single person from committing the same crime again.

94
Q

How is deterrance effective?

A

The unpleasant experience of prisons aims to put off people from engaging in offender behaviour.

95
Q

How is deterrance effective?

A

Vicarious reinforcement - viewing of punishment discourages people from participating in offender behaviour.

96
Q

Describe smiths research into recidivism.

A

Females, juveniles and, minority groups.
Meta analysis of 170 correlational studies into 1. Recidivism and prison, 2. Type of sanction and recidivism, sentence length and recidivism.

97
Q

What did smiths meta analysis find?

A

Type of sanction has no effect on recidivism.
Spending a longer time in prison increases recidivism rates.

98
Q

Explain one weakness of Smith’s study.

A

Ignores men in sample - only juvenile and minority groups included.
Men are majority of offenders, so doesn’t provide a representative sample.
Difficult to generalise results.

99
Q

Explain one strength of recidivism studies.

A

Results support differential association theory.
Prisoners learn new criminal acts and are surrounded by majority pro criminal attitudes - increases criminal behaviour.
Suggests prisons are not the best environment for criminals as actually encourage behaviour - maybe we should rethink punishment methods.

100
Q

Explain how custodial sentencing may have damaging psychological effects.

A

Bartol - prison can be ‘brutal and devastating’, suicide rates are 15x higher than general population among offenders.
Young, single men in first 24 hours of confinement most at risk.
Suggests sentencing is not effective at rehabilitating individuals and in fact may make the problem worse as crime has been linked to mental health problems.

101
Q

How is … biologically determinist?

A

Suggests innate psychology will determine your personality and behaviour.
Ignores factors such as free will and environmental factors.
Therefore questions the validity of the theory.
The theory may benefit from interactionist approach.

102
Q

Name and explain the 3 stages of anger management.

A

Cognitive preparation- reflect on past experiences and consider typical patterns of anger.
Skill acquisition - use range of techniques to deal with anger provoking situations e.g.positive self talk.
Application practice - give offenders chance to practice using these skills in a controlled environment e.g. role play.

103
Q

Explain research from Ireland in relation to anger management effectiveness.

A

Control - 37 male prisoners, no course.
50 male prisoners complete anger management course.
Both groups given cognitive behaviour interview, Wing behavioural checklist, and self report questionnaire before and after treatment.
Prisoners who completed CALM treatment rated lower for aggression by themselves and guards - 92% showed improvement on at least one measure.

104
Q

What do the results of Irelands research show about anger management.

A

It is successful at reducing aggression.

105
Q

Name 3 evaluations of anger management.

A

Attempts to tackle cause of behaviour.
Anger may not be cause of offence.
Expense and commitment.

106
Q

Explain how the attempt at treating the cause of offending is a strength of anger management.

A

Addresses the thought processes underlying offending behaviour.
Gives insight into causes which helps offenders to self discover ways of managing themselves.
Likely can lead to permanent behaviour chnage and lower rates of recidivism.

107
Q

Explain why anger may not be a cause of offending.

A

Loza found no difference between levels of anger in offenders classified as violent or non violent.
May not prevent offending from many people, as it doesn’t accurately address the cause.

108
Q

Why is expense and commitment a limitation of the use of anger management?

A

Require trained specialists, expensive, many prions cannot afford to run the program.
Plus success relies on prisoners being engaged.
Limits the effectiveness.

109
Q

Define behaviour modification.

A

Application of the behaviourist approach using systems of reward and punishment to encourage obedience and avoid conflicts.

110
Q

Explain how token economies may be used in prison.

A

Tokens awarded for encouraged behaviours e.g. avoiding conflict, following rules, keeping cell clean.
Tokens exchanged for rewards e.g. phone calls, extra gym time, extra food.
A way of measuring if the offender is objectively displaying a rewarded behaviour must be established - avoids so thatbt

111
Q

What type of reinforcers is each part of a token economy system?

A

Tokens awarded for encouraged behaviours e.g. avoiding conflict, following rules, keeping cell clean.
Tokens exchanged for rewards e.g. phone calls, extra gym time, extra food.
A way of measuring if the offender is objectively displaying a rewarded behaviour must be established - avoids potential biases.u

112
Q

Name 3 evaluations of behaviour modification systems.

A

Easy to implement.
Little rehabilitative value.
Ethical issues.

113
Q

Explain how behaviour modification is easy to implement.

A

Doesn’t require use of specialists.
Making it cost effective - therefore can be used in any prison.

114
Q

Why does behaviour modification have little rehabilitative value?

A

Behaviours unlikely to be maintained on the outside.
Only provide a temporary solution for when still imprisoned.
Value of systems is limited.

115
Q

Explain how behaviour modification may raise ethical issues.

A

Regarded by some as manipulative and dehumanising.
Prisoners forced to participate, no option involved - therefore if don’t comply they lose privileges such as phone calls.
Questions if the systems are moral and fair.

116
Q

Define restorative justice.

A

Focus on reconciling with victims, allows offender to see the impacts of their crime and empowers the victim by giving them a voice.

117
Q

Describe how restorative justice would take place.

A

Supervised meeting between parties arranged by mediator, conducted in a non court room setting.
Victim allowed to explain how incident affected them (including emotionally).

118
Q

Describe 2 variants of restorative justice.

A

Compensation - financial, repairing damage.
Add on to community service - leads to reduction of existing sentence.

119
Q

Name 3 evaluations of restorative justice.

A

Diversity of the programme.
Not cost effective.
Feminist critique.

120
Q

Explain why diversity is a strength of restorative justice programmes.

A

Flexibility means it can be used in other environments such as schools.
Programme can be adapted to fulfil the needs of many situations.

121
Q

Why is restorative programmes not being cost effective a weakness?

A

Requires specialists trained in mediation - likely to be difficult to find.
Plus often involve high dropout rates prior to the scheduled meeting due to nerves.
Not a very economically beneficial solution.

122
Q

Why do restorative justice programmes suffer from a feminist critique?

A

Women’s aid has called for a ban on the use of force domestic violence cases - due to power imbalance in relationship, plus wider community tends to resort to victim blaming when they should be offering support.
Not appropriate for all cases of crime.

123
Q

Describe Sherman and Strang’s study into the effectiveness of restorative justice.

A

Compared 36 studies using restorative justice.
Found reduction in reoffending rates for violent and property crimes.
For victims, incidents of PTSD were significantly reduced.