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Biopsychology Flashcards

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1
Q

What are the two main components of the nervous system?

A

The central NS.
Peripheral NS.

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2
Q

What parts of the body make up the CNS?

A

Brain and spinal cord.

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3
Q

What if the function of the CNS?

A

Brain stem controls involuntary processes e.g. heartbeat.
Spinal cord transfers messages to and from the brain.

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4
Q

What is the function of the PNS?

A

Sends messages from the CNS to the rest of the body.

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5
Q

What are the two main systems that make up the PNS?

A

Somatic nervous system.
Autonomic nervous system.

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6
Q

What is the function of the somatic nervous system?

A

Provides voluntary muscle responses to sensory info from the environment.

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7
Q

What is the role of the autonomic nervous system?

A

Regulates involuntary processes.
Divisions maintain homeostasis.

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8
Q

What are the two main components of the ANS?

A

Sympathetic nervous system.
Parasympathetic.

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9
Q

What does the sympathetic nervous system do?

A

Prepares body for fight or flight.

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10
Q

What is the job of the parasympathetic nervous system?

A

Returns us to normal resting state.

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11
Q

What is the endocrine system?

A

Network of glands across the body that secrete chemical messages called hormones into the bloodstream which regulate bodily functions.

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12
Q

Give two examples of hormones and their effects.

A

Ovaries - oestrogen - regulates females reproductive system.
Thyroid - thyroxin - increases metabolic rate.

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13
Q

Define homeostasis.

A

The process in which the body maintains a balanced internal state.

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14
Q

What effects does fight or flight have on the body?

A

Increased heart rate.
Increased breathing rate.
Increase muscle tension - shaking.
Inhibit saliva production.
Inhibit digestion.

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15
Q

Describe the process of the fight or flight response.

A

Hypothalamus - perceives threat.
Adrenal medulla - receives stress signal, secretes adrenaline.
Adrenaline causes physiological changes.

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16
Q

Name two evaluations of the fight or flight explanation.

A

Not limited to 2 responses.
Androcentric explanation.

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17
Q

Explain why fight or flight is not limited to just 2 behaviours.

A

Research suggests that first response to danger is to avoid it altogether - demonstrated by freeze response in which person is hyper vigilant while they decide how to deal with the threat.
Suggests the explanation is limited/incomplete as doesn’t fully explain different responses.

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18
Q

Explain why the fight or flight response is androcentric.

A

Research was typically conducted on males.
New research shows females often adopt a ‘tend and befriend approach’ in which they are more likely to protect their offspring and and form alliances with other women.
Beta bias - assumes females react the same so doesn’t fully explain the response in females.

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19
Q

What is the function of sensory neurons?

A

Found in sense receptors.
Carry nerve impulses to brain and spinal cord.

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20
Q

What is the structure of sensory neurons?

A

Long dendrites.
Short axons.

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21
Q

What is the function of relay neurons?

A

Connect sensory and motor neurons.
Assess situation and decide how to respond.

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22
Q

Describe the structure of relay neurons.

A

Short dendrites.
Short axons.

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23
Q

What is the function of motor neurons?

A

Control muscle movements.

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24
Q

Describe the structure of motor neurons.

A

Short dendrites.
Long axons.

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25
Q

What is action potential?

A

Creates an electrical signal which travels down the axon to the end of the neuron.

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26
Q

Describe the effect of excitatory neurotransmitters on the post synaptic neuron.

A

Increases the positive charge of the neuron making it more likely to fire.

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27
Q

Give one example of an excitatory neurotransmitters.

A

Adrenaline.

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28
Q

How do inhibitory neurotransmitters affect the postsynaptic neuron?

A

Increases negative charge so the postsynaptic neuron is less likely to fire.

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29
Q

What is on example of an inhibitory neurotransmitter?

A

Serotonin.

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30
Q

What is localisation of function?

A

The idea that certain functions are controlled by specific parts of the brain.

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31
Q

What is the function of the motor cortex?

A

Voluntary movements - sending signals to muscles in the body.
Regions arranged in a logical order.

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32
Q

Where is the motor cortex located?

A

Frontal lobe.

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33
Q

Where is the somatosensory area?

A

Parietal lobe.

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34
Q

What is the function of the somatosensory area?

A

Receives incoming sensory info from the skin to produce sensations.
Pressure, pain, temperature etc.

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35
Q

Where is the visual area located in the brain?

A

Occipital lobe.

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36
Q

What is the purpose of the visual cortex?

A

Receives and processes visual information.

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37
Q

Where is information from the right side visual field processed?

A

Left hemisphere.
Opposite side.

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38
Q

Where is the auditory cortex located?

A

Temporal lobe.

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39
Q

Name the 4 lobes of the brain.

A

Frontal.
Temporal.
Parietal.
Occipital.

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40
Q

What is the job of the auditory area?

A

Processing acoustic info.
Info from left ear goes primarily to right hemisphere etc.

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41
Q

Where is brocas area located?

A

Left frontal lobe.

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42
Q

What does Broca’s area do?

A

Speech production.

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43
Q

Where is Wernickes area located?

A

Left temporal lobe.

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44
Q

What is the purpose of Wernickes area?

A

Language comprehension.

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45
Q

Explain one strength of localisation.

A

Lots of research evidence.
Tulving used scans to conclude that’s semantic and episodic memories are stored in different parts of the prefrontal cortex.
Provides scientific evidence for localisation.

46
Q

Explain one weakness of localisation.

A

Contradicting research.
When 10-50% of a rats brain removed and learned a maze, no clear evidence one specific part of the brain is linked to learning.
Learning requires whole brain to be effective.
Disagrees with localisation as suggests some functions are too complex to be localised.

47
Q

Define plasticity.

A

The brains tendency to change and adapt its structure and function as a result of experience and new learning.

48
Q

Define functional recovery.

A

A form of plasicity.
The brains ability to redistribute or transfer functions to undamaged areas following trauma.

49
Q

What is synaptic pruning?

A

A process in which as we age rarely used connections are deleted and frequently used connections are strengthened.

50
Q

Name two things that happen in the brain during recovery.

A

Axonal sprouting.
Recruitment of homologous areas.

51
Q

What is axonal sprouting?

A

New nerve endings connect with other undamaged nerve cells to form new neuronal pathways.

52
Q

Describe recruitment of homologous areas.

A

A similar area within the brain adapts to perform tasks instead.
E.g. undamaged part of area recruits function or equivalent area on opposite side (motor area etc)

53
Q

Why can age reduce functional plasticity?

A

When younger there are more synapses which are able to adapt to new learning.

54
Q

What is meant by negative plasticity?

A

Brains ability to adapt can have maladaptive behavioural consequences.

55
Q

Give one example of negative plasticity.

A

Phantom limb syndrome.
Signal mismatch created which results in the missing limb responding to signals meant for other body parts.

56
Q

Describe how Maguires research supports brain plasticity.

A

He found the volume of a London taxi drivers posterior hippocampus was positively correlated with the amount of time spent driving taxis - plus significant difference between them and control group.

57
Q

Give one counterpoint for Maguires research.

A

Biologically reductionist as only examines size of hippocampus and doesn’t consider other biological or cognitive processes.

58
Q

Summarise why Maguires research supports brain plasticity. Mention the counterpoint.

A

Research shows change in response to exposure to a frequent task.
However some say a holistic approach would be more relevant to understand these complex ideas.

59
Q

Explain another evaluation of brain plasticity.

A

Application of findings to neurorehabilitation.
Understanding processes of plasticity and functional recovery led to development - motor therapy and electrical stimulation to counter deficits following harm.
Demonstrates positive application of research to improve cognitive functions.

60
Q

Define contralateral.

A

Each hemisphere of the brain controls the opposite side of the body.

61
Q

Define Lateralisation.

A

The dominance of one hemisphere of the brain for particular functions.

62
Q

The left hemisphere is … dominant.

A

Language

63
Q

Which side of the brain is visual and motor dominant?

A

Right.

64
Q

Describe a key study into split brain research.

A

11 male ‘split brain’ patients - undergone hemisphere dissection due to history of advanced epilepsy.
Measured performance on visual, tactile and verbal tasks.

65
Q

What are the hemispheres held together with?

A

Corpus callosum.

66
Q

What is the function of the corpus callosum?

A

Allows the two hemispheres to talk.

67
Q

What occurs during a hemisphere dissection?

A

Corpus callosum is cut.

68
Q

Describe the results of the visual tasks during split brain research.

A

Picture in right visual field - could describe what they saw, demonstrating domination of left hemisphere for language.
Left visual field (right hemisphere) - couldn’t describe what was shown, and reported nothing present.

69
Q

Describe what the drawing task found in ‘split brain’ research.

A

Left hand - drew clearer and better pictures despite all participants being right handed.
Demonstrates domination of visual motor tasks in right hemisphere.

70
Q

Name 3 evaluations of ‘split brain’ research.

A

Few participants, idiographic approach.
Lateralisation not fixed.
Lateralisation changes with age.

71
Q

Explain why this ‘split brain’ research is idiographic.

A

Research only used 11 participants, each had epilepsy, still on medication to control it.
Any conclusions only relevant to small group with epilepsy so cannot be generalised to general population.
+ medication may have affected results.

72
Q

Explain why it can be argued that lateralisation is not fixed.

A

Functional recovery resulting in recruitment of homologous areas.
Research found patient with damage to left hemisphere developed capacity to speak in right hemisphere.
Suggests not fixed as the brain can adapt following trauma to some areas.

73
Q

Explain how lateralisation can change with age.

A

Study found that language become very lateralised to left hemisphere with increasing age in children and teens, but after 25 it decreased with each decade.
Questions if everyone has dominant hemispheres or if this changes with age.
Means may be problematic to generalise Sperrys finding to general population.

74
Q

Explain one weakness of Sperrys ‘split brain’ research.

A

Only used 11 male patients.
Idiographic - individual research which is harder to generalise.
Beta bias - assumes results generalised to women.
Therefore may not be complete results.

75
Q

Name the 4 brain scanning techniques.

A

fMRI.
EEG.
ERPP.
Post mortem.

76
Q

How does an fMRI work?

A

Measures blood flow when performing a task.
Creates a dynamic map.
Highlights areas involved in neuronal activity.

77
Q

Explain one strength of fMRIs.

A

Non invasive.
Don’t rely on radiation so virtually risk free when done correctly.
Can be used for vulnerable people.

78
Q

Explain one strength of fMRIs.

A

Non invasive.
Don’t rely on radiation so virtually risk free when done correctly.
Can be used for vulnerable people.

79
Q

Explain one weakness of fMRIs.

A

It only measures blood flow.
Meaning doesn’t measure any neuronal activity.
May not be practical for all cases as not detailed enough.

80
Q

Describe an EEG.

A

Measures electrical activity through electrodes.
Small changes graphed over time.

81
Q

Name one strength of an EEG.

A

Non invasive.

82
Q

Explain one weakness of an EEG.

A

Lacks detail - receives general info about 1000s of neurons.
Unable to pin exact point of activity.
Therefore can not prove causation.

83
Q

Describe an ERP.
(Event related potentials)

A

Electrodes.
A stimulus is presented and doctor looks for activity caused.

84
Q

Name one strength of an ERP.

A

Non invasive.

85
Q

Explain one weakness of an ERP.

A

Difficult to conduct properly.
Must remove all background noise or extraneous material in order establish pure data - because otherwise cannot prove which stimulus caused activity.
May be difficult to achieve or inconvenient.
May deter people from performing test.

86
Q

Describe a postmortem exam.

A

Studying the physical brain of a person who displayed behaviour throughout life which suggests brain damage.

87
Q

Explain one strength of a postmortem exam.

A

Provided a foundation for early understandings of the brain.
E.g. Broca and Wernicke relied on a postmortem to establish the relationship between parts of the brain and language functions.
Therefore can help to improve medical knowledge.

88
Q

Explain one weakness of a postmortem exam.

A

Damage may be due to unrelated trauma or decay.
Deficits found in exam may not actually be cause of behaviour.
Therefore cannot use exam to prove causation.

89
Q

Which scan would you use to establish causation?

A

ERP.

90
Q

What is an exogenous zeitgeber?

A

External cues which reset the biological clock.

91
Q

Give 2 examples of exogenous zeitgebers.

A

Social cues - meals times.
Light.

92
Q

Explain how one research study demonstrates the use of exogenous zeitgebers.

A

Research/case study evidence.
Siffre - underground stay, no clocks or light.
Came out and believed it to be a month earlier than it was.
Shows lack of external cues increased his sleep wake cycle.

93
Q

Suggest one counterpoint to Siffre’s study.

A

Andocentric as only studied a male.

94
Q

What are endogenous pacemakers?

A

Internal biological clocks.

95
Q

What is the most important endogenous pacemaker?

A

SCN and pineal gland.

96
Q

Explain how the SCN and pineal gland work.

A

SCN - receives info about light levels via the optic nerve.
Pineal gland - receives signal, increases/inhibits melatonin release.

97
Q

What does melatonin do?

A

Makes you sleepy.

98
Q

Describe research evidence with demonstrates the function of endogenous pacemakers.

A

Hamsters bred to have circadian rhythm of 20 hours.
Neuron’s planted into normal hamsters - resulted in displaying same abnormal circadian rhythm.
Demonstrates significance of SCN and how endogenous pacemakers are important for circadian rhythms.

99
Q

Explain one counterpoint for the hamster research evidence.

A

Use of hamsters makes its difficult to generalise to humans.
Humans would not respond in the same way to the manipulations due to biology and environment.

100
Q

Define circadian rhythms.

A

24 hour biological cycles.

101
Q

How long do infradian rhythms last?

A

Longer than 24 hours - weekly, monthly etc.

102
Q

Name one example of an infradian rhythm.

A

Female menstrual cycle.

103
Q

How long is a typical menstrual cycle?

A

28 days.

104
Q

What hormones regulate the menstrual cycle?

A

Oestrogen.
Progesterone.

105
Q

Explain a research study which demonstrated the effects of light on a menstrual cycle.

A

Women spent 3 months in a cave with only a small lamp.
Cycle shortened to around 26 days.
Demonstrates the effect of light (EZ’s) on infradian rhythms.

106
Q

Explain research into synchronisation of menstrual cycles and how this demonstrates effects of EZ’s.

A

Through odour exposure - sweat samples rubbed onto upper lip of other women.
Two groups separate but menstrual cycles synchronised.
Suggests pheromones can act as EZ for other women.

107
Q

How long do ultradian rhythms last?

A

Fewer than 24 hours.

108
Q

Give one example of an ultradian rhythm.

A

Human sleep patterns - occurs more than once every 24 hours.

109
Q

Explain the human sleep stages.

A

5 stages.
Light sleep, deep sleep, REM.
Lasts around 90 minutes.
REM is where dreaming occurs.

110
Q

Evaluate ultradian rhythms in terms of flexibility.

A

Randy gardener awake for 264 hours.
Afterwards slept for 15 hours straight.
Over next nights only recovered 25% lost sleep - mostly deep and REM sleep.
Highlights that there are many factors which affect this ultradian rhythm - affect variance.

111
Q

Are the sleep stages idiographic or nomothetic.

A

Nomothetic - set stages for everyone.

112
Q

Evaluate why the best way to understand sleep cycles may be an idiographic approach.

A

Tucker found significant differences between participants in terms of duration of each stage - specifically 3 and 4.
May be innate individual differences
Theories into sleep cycles may be incomplete.

Psychology (15 decks)

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