Psychopathology Flashcards
What distinguishes acute psychotic disorder, schizophreniform, and schizophrenia
acute psychotic: 1 day-1 month (full remits)
schizophreniform: 1 month-6 months
schizophrenia: 6+ mo (although only need 1 month of delusions, hallucinations, or disorganized speech)
Severity of ID is based on
adaptive functioning
For the 20-50% of cases of ID where the cause is known, what percentage is due to genetic factors
80-85%
5-10% are due to perinatal factors (asphyxia)
5-10% are due to postnatal factors
What is worse for ASD, Level 1 or Level 3
Level 3 (requiring very substantial support)
Is ASD more likely in males or females
males; serotonin appears to play a role in ASD
How many vocal and motor tics are required for a dx of Tourettes
1+ vocal tics and 2+ motor tics (may occur together or at different times, may wax and wane in frequency); if less than this, called persistent (chronic) motor or vocal tic disorder
Occurred for 1+ year; started prior to 18 (average onset between 4 and 6 yrs old)
Are comorbid mood symptoms (especially depressive symptoms) a negative or positive prognostic indicator for schizophrenia?
Positive
Schizoaffective disorder requires all the sx of schizophrenia plus
Major mood or manic episode during psychotic illness
2 weeks WITHOUT mood/manic symptoms (so still having hallucinations or delusions)
Timeline required for manic for hypomanic episode
manic- one week
hypomanic-4 days
If the person has mania that causes an impairment in functioning, requires hospitalization, or has psychotic features, it’s automatically classified as
manic episode regardless of time
Which is more severe, bipolar I or bipolar II
Bipolar I because it requires a manic episode (BP II = hypomanic)
How long do you have to have hypomanic sx and subclinical depressive sx for a cyclothymia diagnosis
2 years
Rapid cycling
A lack of recovery between episodes
Earlier onset (10-15 yo)
Typical or atypical bipolar
Atypical - second generation antipsychotic
clinical perfectionism, core low self-esteem, intense mood states, and interpersonal difficulties are targets of what therapy for eating disorders
CBT-E
3s of insomnia dx
dissatisfaction with sleep associated with 1 of 3:
falling asleep
staying asleep
early morning waking
>= 3 nights/week >= 3 months
Sleep walking and sleep terrors are examples of what type of dx
Non-REM sleep arousal disorders, usually occur during deep sleep (stage 3 or 4) in the first third of sleep period
If a person is having trouble achieving erections in a dysfunctional romantic relationship, what is the most likely diagnosis
Not erectile disorder -
Before a diagnosis of a sexual dysfunction is assigned, it must be determined that
the person’s symptoms are not due to a nonsexual mental disorder,
a serious relationship disturbance or other stressor,
or the effects of a drug or medical condition.
What % of time do you have to have difficulty getting an erection, maintaining an erection, or decrease in erectile rigidity for ED
75-100%
If someone who has a hard time getting an erection, how can you rule out an organic cause
morning erections
erections when masturbating
erections with different sexual partner
or spontaneous erections occur in the absence of planned sex
Duration req for gender dysphoria dx
6 mo
Dutch protocol for gender dysphoria
gender affirmative model - kids know their authentic selves and dysphoria persists into adolescence in a small minority of cases
<12 yo: watchful waiting
puberty: social transition and puberty-blocking drugs are started for children who are persistent in their gender dysphoria
16 yo: can start sex hormone therapy
18 yo: gender affirming surgery
Aversive counter conditioning used for paraphilia
Covert sensitization: replaces the sexual arousal elicited by the paraphilic object or behavior with fear or other undesirable response
To assign a DSM-5 diagnosis of pedophilic disorder to a client, the client must be at least _____ years old.
16 (and >=5 yrs older than the kids arousing him/her)
Is ODD more common in boys or girls
Boys (younger children)
Equal in older children/adolescents
What percentage of kids with ODD go on to get diagnosed with conduct disorder
30
ODD requires symptoms for ___ whereas conduct disorder requires symptoms for __
ODD - 6 mo
Conduct - 12 mo
a persistent pattern of behavior that violates the basic rights of others and/or age-appropriate social norms or rules as evidenced by the presence of at least three characteristic symptoms during the past 12 months and at least one symptom in the past six months. Symptoms represent four categories: aggression to people and animals, destruction of property, deceitfulness or theft, and serious violation of rules.
conduct disorder
CANNOT be simultaneously diagnosed with antisocial personality disorder in 18+
Life-course persistent type of CD
Adolescence-limited type of CD
Life-course persistent type of CD - starts in childhood and continues to adulthood
Adolescence-limited type of CD - temporary and situational type of antisocial behavior that’s due to a “maturity gap” between an adolescent’s biological and sexual maturity and his/her social maturity (do bad things to attain mature status)
Two major interventions for conduct disorder
Parent Management Training Oregon Model (PMTO) Multisystemic Treatment (MST)
*Scared Straight does not work
Intermittent explosive disorder requires destruction to
property or physical injury to people or animals
aggressiveness has to be out of proportion to stiuation
Can graham be dx with intermittent explosive disorder
no - need to be 6 years old
Believing a celebrity you met 6 mo ago is in love with you is what type of delusion
erotomanic
What distinguishes OCD and OCP
OCD - true obsessions and compulsions
Disorder characterized by feeling like a robot or automaton, have vague somatic symptoms (e.g., lightheadedness), and experience anxiety or depression.
depersonalization
Medications used to treat tic disorders decrease _____
Dopamine - antipsychotics
For a diagnosis of anorexia, what is required
Low weight
Intense fear of becoming fat
Disturbance in self-perception
DOES NOT require dieting or fasting; can include dieting, fasting, binging, and/or purging
when a reinforcer is no longer reinforcing because the person is satiated (no longer desires the reinforcer).
satiation - can be prevented by switching from a continuous schedule to an intermittent schedule once the behavior is occurring at the desired level helps
The severity of a substance use disorder is determined by
of sx
When a client’s symptoms meet the DSM-5 diagnostic criteria for both panic disorder and agoraphobia, she would receive which of the following diagnoses?
panic disorder and agoraphobia
Somatic symptom dx and conversion dx are largely _____, whereas
facticious dx and malingering are largely ____
Somatic/conversion: typically unaware
Facticious/malingering: aware w/ some intention
According to the DSM-5, the median age of onset of specific phobia is between _____ years of age.
7-11
