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Psychology Test 3 Flashcards

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1
Q

What is developmental psychology

A

Studies how humans change across the life span (from the cradle to the grave)

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2
Q

What are the two core issues of developmental psychology

A
  1. Interaction of nature and nurture

2. The nature of change (how it occurs)

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3
Q

What is the critical period of the nature- nurture interaction

A

The period of special sensitivity to specific types of learning and sensory stimulation

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4
Q

What is continuous change

A

Gradual alteration of behavior (more prevalent in adulthood)

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5
Q

What is discontinuous change

A

Qualitatively different stages more obvious in adulthood

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6
Q

What is social development

A

Changes in interpersonal behaviors, feeling and thoughts across the lifespan

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7
Q

What is attachment

A

An enduring emotional tie between child and caretaker

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8
Q

What are the three components of attachment

A
  1. Desire for proximity to the caretaker
  2. Sense of security around the caretaker
  3. Feelings of distress when the caretaker is absent
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9
Q

What is Harlows attachment studies

A

Psychologists linked attachment to feeding
-infant monkeys were taken from their mother and given fake mothers, one was wire that provides food and one was terrycloth that didn’t, monkeys ate from the wire mother but was attached to the terrycloth mother

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10
Q

What are the four patterns of attachment in humans

A
  1. secure: child is distresses when mother leaves and relieved when mother returns
  2. Avoidant: child ignores the mother and avoids exploration
  3. Anxious-ambivalent : child exhibits anger at mother while seeking to be close to her
  4. Disorganized: child may show dazed facial expressions and stereotyped rocking (found in high risk kids)
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11
Q

What are the prevalence rates of childhood attachments in adults

A

1.secure = 60%
2.avoidant = 25%
3.anxious = 10%
4 unresolved = 5%

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12
Q

What is Piagets theory

A

Epistemology: a branch of philosophy concerned with the acquisition of knowledge

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13
Q

What is assimilation

A

Interpreting new information in terms of ones present schemas

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14
Q

What is accommodation

A

Process by which old schemas are modified to fit reality

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15
Q

What is the sensorimotor stage

A

Ages 0-2, object permanence forms and child becomes egocentric

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16
Q

What is object permanence

A

Realization that an object continuous to exist in time and space even though it cannot be seen

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17
Q

What is egocentrism

A

Children understand only their point of view

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18
Q

What is the preoperational stage

A

Age 2-7, Object permanence is firmly established, child does not understand conservation

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19
Q

What is concrete operational

A

Age 7-12, child begins to understand conservation and can apply it

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20
Q

What is conservation

A

Understanding the basic properties of an object are constant even if the object changes shape

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21
Q

What happens as we age

A
  1. In the mid 20s processing speed slows
  2. Retrieval of LTM becomes hard and working memory declines
  3. Fluid intelligence declines and crystallized intelligence increases
  4. Specific cognitive abilities diminish
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22
Q

What percent of adults meet the diagnostic criteria for Alzheimer’s disease and what percent of major NCD is caused by Alzheimer’s

A

About 5% of adults meet the criteria and about 60 to 80% cases are caused by Alzheimer’s

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23
Q

What happens during Alzheimer’s

A

Protein deposits and a loss of the acetylcholine, the greater the cell loss in the temporal lobes the greater degree of cognitive impairment.

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24
Q

What are the most obvious signs Of Alzheimer’s in the brain

A

The ventricle becomes large and the gyri reduces in size as the sulci increases in size due to cell loss

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25
Q

What is psychopathology

A

Problematic problems of thought, feeling, or behavior that disrupt a persons welling being and negatively impacts social, emotional, academic and occupational functioning

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26
Q

What are the 3 broad classes of psychopathology

A
  1. Neuroses
  2. Personality disorders
  3. Psychoses
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27
Q

What is neuroses

A

Minor problems that cause anxiety and mild interpersonal and occupational functioning

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28
Q

What is personality disorders

A

Chronic disturbances that impair interpersonal and occupational functioning

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29
Q

What is psychoses

A

Sever disturbances of contact with reality

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30
Q

what is morality

A

rules people use to balance the conflicting interest of themselves and others

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31
Q

what is the Kohlberg theory

A

changes in moral reasoning reflect changes in cognitive stuctures

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32
Q

what is the psychodynamic perspectives

A

3 broad classes of psychopathology from a continuum of functioning from minimal to serious disturbance

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33
Q

what is the cognitive behavioral perspective

A

integration of classical and operant conditioning within. cognitive social perspective, focus on the discrete process, assess the environmental stimuli that elicits symptoms

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34
Q

what is the biological approach

A

psychopathology is a disease of the brain

  1. disturbance of neurotransmitters
  2. Dysfunctional neural circuts
  3. gross pathology of the brain
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35
Q

what is the diathesis stress model

A

people develop a disorder when they
1. have an underlying vulnerability (diathesis) and 2. when they experience some psychological or environmental disturbance (stress)

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36
Q

what is the systems approach

A

explains an individuals behavior in the broader social context of social group. the group functions as a system with interdependent parts ( a change in one member influences other members)

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37
Q

what is ADHD

A

symptoms of inattention, hyperactivity,, and or impulsive persisting for at least 6 months to a degree that manipulative and inconsistent with developmental level

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38
Q

what is inattention

A

non responsiveness to task demands

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39
Q

what is hyperactivity

A

movement greater than required for accomplishing task

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40
Q

what is impulsivity

A

failure to inhibit behavior

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41
Q

when should the symptoms of ADHD be shown

A

in children prior to age 12, and be conducted in two or more setting

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42
Q

what is the prevalence of ADHD

A

about 5% in school aged children and 2.5% in adults (more common in males)

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43
Q

what are the risk factors of ADHD

A

low SES, severe marital discord, maternal psychopathology, paternal criminality

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44
Q

what is the underarousal hypothesis

A

there is insufficient inhibitory control over sensory input and motor output

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45
Q

what is the most common treatment for ADHD

A

stimulants

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46
Q

what are some future problems for children with ADHD

A

they are at risk for other problems as they grow up

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47
Q

what is the DSM-5 criteria for conduct disorder

A
  1. aggression
  2. destruction of property
  3. deceitfulness or theft
  4. serious violation of rules
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48
Q

what is the prevalence rate of conduct disorder

A

about 6-16% of boys, 2-9% girls

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49
Q

what is the etiology of conduct disorder

A

(nature - nurture interaction) an unstable home environment is particularly dangerous to children who are genetically vulnerable

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50
Q

what is schizophrenia

A

a heterogenous clinical syndrome that involves a range of cognitive, behavioral and emotional dsyfunctions associated with impaired social and occupational functioning

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51
Q

what is the prevalence rate of schizophrenia

A

about 1% of people have it

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52
Q

how many people fully recover from schizophrenia

A

about 10 to 20% of people recover

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53
Q

what is the DSM-5 criteria for schizophrenia

A
  1. two or more symptoms of psychosis (hallucinations, delusions, disorganized speech)
  2. duration of symptoms for at least 6 months
  3. marked deterioration from individuals previous self
  4. the disturbance is not attributable to the physiological effects of a substance
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54
Q

what are the negative symptoms of schizophrenia

A

reduction in normal behavior or emotions

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55
Q

what is affective flattening

A

restrictions in the range/ intensity of emotional expression

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56
Q

what is algoia

A

restrictions in the fluency/ productivity of thought and speech

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57
Q

what is avolition

A

Restrictions in the initiation of goal directed behavior

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58
Q

what are the positive symptoms of schizophrenia

A

excess in sensory perception and ideas

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59
Q

what are some biological causes of schizophrenia

A
  1. genes
  2. Prenatal/ delivery complications
  3. hypoxia
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60
Q

what is expressed emotion

A

family interactions characterized by criticism hostile comments and emotional intrusiveness

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61
Q

how does expressed emotion affect people with schizophrenia

A

affected individuals living in a home with high EE have a higher risk of relapsing and rehospitalization (about 65-75%) compared to people who live in low EE home who have a lower risk of relapse

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62
Q

what is MDD

A

Characterized by depressive mood and loss of interest in pleasurable activities (anhedonia)

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63
Q

what is the DSM-5 criteria for MDD

A

must have 5 of the 9 symptoms in the same 2 weeks and must of have one of #1 or #2

  1. Depressed mood
  2. anhedonia
  3. Significant weight loss or gain and increase/ decrease of appetite
  4. Insomnia or hypersomnia
  5. psychomotor agitation or retardation
  6. fatigue
  7. feelings of worthlessness or guilt
  8. can concentrate or make decisions
  9. thoughts of death or suicide
64
Q

what are the biological theories of depression

A
  1. genetics
  2. neurotransmission
  3. hormones
  4. brain regions
65
Q

how does genetics affect MDD

A

Family history of depression triples a persons risk of developing MDD

66
Q

how do neurotransmitters affect MDD

A

MDD is associated with abnormalities in serotonin and norepinephrine

67
Q

how do hormones affect MDD

A

Hypothyroidism and over activation of the HPA axis

68
Q

how do the brain regions affect MDD

A

hippocampal damage (due to an increase in cortisol)
overactivity in the right frontal lobe
under activity in the left frontal lobe

69
Q

what is Beck negative triad theory

A

interpret events unfavorably
do not like themselves
regard the future

70
Q

what is etiology of phobias

A
  1. biological - abnormalities in serotonin and dopamine pathways in the limbic system and lower levels of GABA causes anxiety provoking reactions
  2. behavioral- classical conditioning
71
Q

what is the DSM-5 criteria for Dissociative disorders

A
  1. disruption of identity characterized by two or more distinct personality traits
  2. recurrent gaps in memory of everyday events, personal information, and traumatic events
  3. cause impairment in life
  4. not a cultural or religious thing
  5. not caused by another underlying condition or substance
72
Q

what is the etiology of DID

A

a child has a trauma at the age of 4-6, is not hypnotizable then the person uses other coping mechanisms, is hypnotizable then the person develops a second personality which bears the burden of the trauma and creates a new personality for every future trauma

73
Q

what is personality disorder

A

stable, persuasive and maladaptive ways of perceiving, relating to and thinking about the world and ones self

74
Q

what are cluster A personality disorders

A

> odd or eccentric

  1. paranoid
  2. schizoid
  3. schizotypal
75
Q

what is paranoid

A

distrust and suspiciousness

76
Q

what is schizoid

A

detachment from social relationships, restricted ranges of emotional expression

77
Q

what is schizotypal

A

acute discomfort in close relationship, cognitive or perceptual distortions eccentricity

78
Q

what are type cluster B personality type

A
  • dramatic, emotional or erratic
    1. antisocial
    2. borderline
    3. histrionic
    4. narcissistic
79
Q

what is antisocial

A

disregard for and violation of the rights of others

80
Q

what is borderline

A

Impulsivity and instability in interpersonal relationships, self concept and emotion

81
Q

what is histrionic

A

excessive emotionality and attention seeking

82
Q

what is narcissistic

A

grandiosity, need for attention and lack of empathy

83
Q

what is type C cluster personality type

A
  • anxious or fearful
    1. avoidant
    2. dependent
    3. obsessive compulsive
84
Q

what is avoidant type

A

social inhibition and avoidance, feelings of inadequacy and hypersensitivity to negative emotion

85
Q

what is dependent type

A

submissive and clinging behavior and excessive need to be taken care of

86
Q

what is obsessive compulsive type

A

Preoccupation with orderliness, perfection, and control

87
Q

what is the information processing model

A

people make a series of sequential judgments to decide whether and act is immoral and whether is deserves punishment

88
Q

what are the 4 sequential judgements

A
  1. did the person cause the event
  2. was the person morally responsible
  3. is the person blameworthy
  4. does the person deserve punishment
89
Q

what is language

A

a system of symbols, sounds, meanings and rules that allows for communication among humans

90
Q

what are the four dimensions of language

A
  1. semantics
  2. Syntactics
  3. pragmatics
  4. prosody
91
Q

what is semantics

A

the words of a language and their meanings

92
Q

what is syntactics

A

the grammar of language

93
Q

what is pragmatics

A

the ways in which context conveys meaning

94
Q

what is prosody

A

rhythm and intonation used to convey meaning (linguistics) or emotion (affective)

95
Q

what Is the critical period off language

A

birth to 3 years old

96
Q

what are phonemes

A

smallest units of sound that constitute speech

97
Q

how are infants universally linguistic

A

they can detect differences between the speech sounds of any human

98
Q

at what age do children become culturally bound language specialists

A

10 to 12 months

99
Q

what are nonverbal communication

A 
touch 
gestures 
body language 
physical distance 
facial expressions
100
Q

What are the three techniques of the psychodynamic approach

A

Free association
Interpretation
Analysis of transference

101
Q

What is free association

A

Patient says whatever comes to mind to reveal unconscious process involved in symptom formation

102
Q

What is interpretation

A

Therapist interprets the patients thoughts, feelings, dreams, memories and wishes to reveal unconscious thoughts

103
Q

What is analysis of transference

A

(Patient displaces conflicts from past relationships onto the therapist) and resistance ( barriers to therapy the patient creates to reduce anxiety )

104
Q

What is the goal of the psychodynamic approach

A

To gain insight (understand the internal working of ones mind)

105
Q

What is the focus of the humanistic therapies

A

Phenomenology ( the way each person consciously experiences the self, relationships and the world )

106
Q

What is the goal of the humanistic approach

A

The goal is to help people get in touch with their feelings, their true selves, and a sense of meaning in life by listening empathically with unconditional positive regard

107
Q

What is gastalt therapy

A

Focuses on the here and now and emphasis awareness of feelings (uses the empty chair technique)

108
Q

What is the card rogers client centered therapy

A

People experience psychological difficulties when there concept of self is incongruent with their actual experience

109
Q

What is the goal of the carl rogers client centered therapy

A

To help clients experience themselves as they actually are

110
Q

What is systematic desensitization

A

The client confronts a feared stimulus mentally while in a relaxed state

111
Q

What are the steps of systematic desensitization

A
  • Therapist trains progressive muscle relaxation
  • Construct a hierarchy of feared imagines stimuli
  • While relaxing, the client imagines the least to most fearful of the images in the hierarchy
  • Therapist encourages the client to confront his or hers fears in real life while monitoring their progress
112
Q

What is exposure

A

Clients are exposed to the actual feared stimulus

113
Q

What is flooding

A

The client confronts the phobic stimulus all at once (no hierarchy)

114
Q

What is graded exposure

A

The client is exposed gradually to the feared stimulus (using hierarchy)

115
Q

What is virtual reality

A

The client is exposed to virtual images of the feared stimulus

116
Q

What is response prevention

A

All exposure techniques prevent the client from avoidance of the feared stimulus

117
Q

What are the three operant techniques

A

Extinction
Punishment
Reinforcement

118
Q

What is extinction

A

Removal of the source of reinforcement

119
Q

What is punishment

A

Positively or negatively punish an undesired target behavior to decrease the probability of that behavior

120
Q

What is participatory modeling

A

The therapist models the desired behavior and gradually induces the client to participate in it

121
Q

What is skills training

A

Teach the behaviors necessary to accomplish relevant goals often involving interpersonal competence

122
Q

What is the cognitive approach

A

What we think influences how we feel and how behave

123
Q

What is the focus of the cognitive approach

A

Changing dysfunctional thought patterns

124
Q

What is the Ellis rational emotive therapy

A

The ABC Theory
A-activating conditions
B- belief systems
C- emotional consequences

125
Q

What is becks cognitive therapy

A

Therapist works on changing the clients cognitive distortions through a process called collaborative empiricism

126
Q

What is the cognitive behavioral therapy

A

Integrates classical and operant conditioning within a social cognitive social perspective

127
Q

What does CBT target

A

The clients maladaptive thoughts, behaviors and emotions

128
Q

What is group therapy and what are the benefits

A

Multiple people work together toward a mutual therapeutic goal benefits because people will be will be with people with the same experiences and won’t experience shame

129
Q

What is the focus of group therapy

A

Exploring the group process (the way member of the groups interact with each other)

130
Q

What is the focus couple therapy

A

The marital unit or couple

131
Q

What is the family systems approach

A

Looks for problematic interactions/ communication patterns

132
Q

What is the behavioral approach

A

People stay in relationships when they receive more reinforcement than punishment

133
Q

What is the goal of family therapy

A

Change maladaptive family interaction patterns

134
Q

What is structural family therapy

A

Focuses on the organization of the family system and uses active interventions to disrupt dysfunctional patterns

135
Q

How are genograms used

A

To see if the pattern of dysfunction has been seen before in the family history

136
Q

What is eclectic therapy

A

Combines techniques from multiple theoretical perspectives

137
Q

What is meta analysis

A

A statistical technique that allows researchers to combine findings from various studies and make comparisons between the effects of treatment and no treatment

138
Q

What is medical model

A

Views psychopathology as a biological disorder

139
Q

What do psychotropic medications do

A

Alter behavior by interacting with neurotransmitter sites in the brain

140
Q

What is the difference between antagonist and agonist

A

Antagonist decrease receptor transmission while agonist increase them by blocking reuptake or blocking breakdown of neurotransmitters

141
Q

What are antipsychotic medications

A

Most are dopamine receptors antagonist

142
Q

What are the positive and negative symptoms of antipsychotic medication

A

Positive symptoms reflect too much DA

Negative symptoms reflect brain cell loss associated with enlarges ventricles and too little DA

143
Q

What is tardive dyskinesia

A

Involuntary movements due to blocking DA receptors in the basal ganglia

144
Q

How is tardive dyskinesia cause

A

A compensatory increase in the sensitivity of the DA receptors in the basal ganglia, happens in patients who have taken antipsychotics for many years

145
Q

What are MAOIs

A

Keep the enzyme monoamine oxidase from breaking down 5-HT and NE

146
Q

What are tricyclics

A

Block reuptake of serotonin and norepinephrine

147
Q

What is selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors

A

Block transporter proteins for the serotonin reuptake

148
Q

What do alcohol and barbiturates do in anti anxiety medication

A

Bind to sedative hypnotic sites, increase flux of Cl- causing hyperpolarization

149
Q

What do benzodiazepines do

A

Bind to anti anxiety sites which enhance binding of GABA to its receptors, useful for short term treatment of anxiety but can lead to psychological dependence

150
Q

What are the primary issues of pharmacotherapy

A

Can cause side effects and there is a high relapse rate when drugs are no longer used

151
Q

What happens when people continue to stay on the medication after the diagnosis has gone away

A

Lower relapse rates than people who get of the drug when the are no longer showing symptoms

152
Q

What is electroconvulsive therapy

A

Used for treatment of severe depression

153
Q

What does electroconvulsive therapy do

A

It increase the sensitivity of postsynaptic serotonin receptors, reduces the autoreceptors on the terminals of norepinephrine so the release of NE is increased

154
Q

What are the side effects of electroconvulsive therapy

A

Short term memory life, it can interfere with newly acquired information into the LTM

155
Q

What is deep brain stimulation

A

Electrodes are planted in the brain and a neurostimulator delivers electrical stimulation to targeted areas in the brain to treat neurological and psychiatric conditions

156
Q

What is repetitive transcranial magnetic stimulation

A

Noninvasive stimulation of the brain using a magnetic stimulator, used as treatment for movement disorders, chronic pain, and depression

157
Q

What is a lobotomy

A

Most widely practiced western psychosurgery technique involving removal of cerebral tissue usually the frontal lobe

Biology (5 decks)

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