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Psychology Final Flashcards

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1
Q
  1. Psychology is most accurately defined as the _____.
    a. study of people through description and analysis of past events and artifacts
    b. study of people in terms of large-scale social forces and with a focus on groups rather than
    individuals
    c. scientific study of thought and behavior
    d. scientific study of human culture and origins
A

c. scientific study of thought and behavior

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2
Q
  1. The field of psychology is concerned with the scientific study of:
    a. directly observable behaviors but not internal states and processes.
    b. internal states and processes but not directly observable behaviors.
    c. personality and abnormal behavior.
    d. directly observable behaviors and internal states and processes.
A

d. directly observable behaviors and internal states and processes.

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3
Q
  1. _____ is the study of how we perceive information, how we learn and remember, how we acquire
    and use language, and how we solve problems.
    a. Social psychology
    b. Cognitive psychology
    c. Clinical psychology
    d. Educational psychology
A

b. Cognitive psychology

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4
Q
  1. _____ studies the links among brain, mind, and behavior.
    a. Social psychology
    b. Industrial psychology
    c. Behavioral neuroscience
    d. Developmental psychology.
A

c. Behavioral neuroscience

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5
Q
  1. Which of the following early approaches to psychology focused on why and how people think and
    feel?
    a. Structuralism
    b. Functionalism
    c. Socialism
    d. Behaviorism
A

b. Functionalism

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6
Q
  1. In experimental research, the _______________ variable is the variable that is manipulated by the
    experimenter.
    a. independent
    b. dependent
    c. operational
    d. random
A

a. independent

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7
Q
  1. When considering the mind-body puzzle, ancient philosophers who argued that the mind is NOT
    separate from the body would belong to which philosophical position?
    a. dualism
    b. monism
    c. structuralism
    d. functionalism
A

b. monism

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8
Q
  1. The statement, “… answers to the great questions of psychology will ultimately be found in
    ‘physiology.’ … All behavior, all experience, all feeling, indeed all the subject matter of
    psychology, are nothing more than the outcomes of the activity of the nervous system,” is most
    consistent with which of the following views?
    a. dualism
    b. monism
    c. functionalism
    d. structuralism
A

b. monism

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9
Q
  1. With regard to specific meanings of the terms sensation and perception, studies of subliminal
    stimuli have revealed that subliminal stimuli are:
    a. both sensed and perceived.
    b. neither sensed nor perceived.
    c. perceived but not sensed.
    d. sensed but not perceived.
A

d. sensed but not perceived.

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10
Q
  1. Freud’s psychoanalytic theory:
    a. has been consistently supported by modern science.
    b. has been consistently rejected by modern science.
    c. has been generally ignored by modern science.
    d. generally has inspired modern science.
A

d. generally has inspired modern science.

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11
Q
  1. The visual receptors in the eyes called ___________ function best in dim lighting and are
    primarily brightness receptors.
    a. rods
    b. cones
    c. fovea
    d. ganglion cells
A

a. rods

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12
Q
  1. _____ is the study of how we perceive information, how we learn and remember, how we acquire
    and use language, and how we solve problems.
    a. Social psychology
    b. Cognitive psychology
    c. Clinical psychology
    d. Educational psychology
A

b. Cognitive psychology

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13
Q
  1. The absolute threshold is technically defined as the lowest intensity at which a stimulus can be
    detected ______ of the time.
    a. 100%
    b. 75%
    c. 66%
    d. 50%
A

d. 50%

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14
Q
  1. The rapid shift of the neuron’s electrical potential from –70 millivolts to +40 millivolts is called:
    a. polarization.
    b. an action potential.
    c. a resting potential.
    d. hyperpolarization.
A

b. an action potential.

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15
Q
  1. When a neuron is stimulated, tiny protein structures embedded in the cell membrane called
    _____________ are activated and pump specific ions back and forth, thus changing the overall
    potential of the neuron.
    a. ion channels
    b. action potentials
    c. neurotransmitters
    d. glial cells
A

a. ion channels

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16
Q
  1. What is the effect of the myelin sheath on the conduction of neural impulses?
    a. Myelin sheaths decrease the speed of electrical conduction.
    b. Myelin sheaths increase the speed of electrical conduction.
    c. Myelin sheaths have no effect on the speed of electrical conduction.
    d. Myelin sheaths are responsible for the refractory period after a neuron has fired.
A

b. Myelin sheaths increase the speed of electrical conduction.

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17
Q
  1. Axon is to dendrite as:
    a. anion is to graded potential.
    b. send is to receive.
    c. polarize is to depolarize.
    d. resting potential is to action potential.
A

b. send is to receive.

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18
Q
  1. The Young-Helmholtz trichromatic theory of color vision is LEAST able to explain which of the
    following?
    a. our ability to see an afterimage
    b. our ability to see the color red
    c. our ability to detect a subliminal image
    d. our ability to see the color blue
A

a. our ability to see an afterimage

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19
Q
  1. The resting potential of the typical neuron is determined by:
    a. extra negative ions on the outside of the neuron and extra neutral ions on the inside of the
    neuron.
    b. extra positive ions on the inside of the neuron and extra neutral ions on the inside of the
    neuron.
    c. extra positive ions on the inside of the neuron and extra negative ions on the outside of the
    neuron.
    d. extra positive ions on the outside of the neuron and extra negative ions on the inside of the
    neuron.
A

d. extra positive ions on the outside of the neuron and extra negative ions on the inside of the
neuron.

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20
Q
  1. Inattentional blindness refers to:
    a. purposely not paying attention to unpleasant stimuli.
    b. the failure of unattended stimuli to register in consciousness.
    c. the failure of a stimulus to be perceived because the light from the stimulus falls on the blind
    spot of the retina.
    d. an inability to pay attention to more than two stimuli at a time.
A

b. the failure of unattended stimuli to register in consciousness.

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21
Q
  1. Which of the following are among the functions affected by the hypothalamus?
    a. mating, fleeing, fighting, feeding
    b. fine muscle control
    c. respiration and heart rate
    d. alerting the higher brain centers that sensory information is about to come in
A

a. mating, fleeing, fighting, feeding

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22
Q
  1. The primary job of the amygdala is to:
    a. organize emotional response patterns, particularly aggression and fear.
    b. create and store memories.
    c. regulate body temperature and sexual behavior.
    d. regulate heart rate and respiration.
A

a. organize emotional response patterns, particularly aggression and fear.

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23
Q
  1. The two major divisions of the peripheral nervous system are which of the following?
    a. Afferent and efferent
    b. Sympathetic and parasympathetic
    c. Somatic and parasympathetic
    d. Somatic and autonomic
A

d. Somatic and autonomic

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24
Q
  1. Jason is a psychologist. He is actively researching the interactions of people on social networking
    sites. Jason is most interested in finding out whether a person can get addicted to social
    networking sites and if such interactions can become dangerous to those involved. Jason is most
    likely to be a ______ psychologist.
    a. personality
    b. cognitive
    c. developmental
    d. clinical
A

d. clinical

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25
Q
  1. Which of the following types of psychologists is most likely to conduct a research on how
    reasoning skills or emotional skills change with age?
    a. Educational psychologist
    b. Developmental psychologist
    c. Behavioral psychologist
    d. Clinical psychologist
A

b. Developmental psychologist

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26
Q
  1. Which of the following questions is most likely to be discussed by a social psychologist?
    a. Why are behaviors modified by environmental situations?
    b. How does the presence of other people change an individual’s thoughts, feeling, or
    perceptions?
    c. How do people visualize objects in their minds?
    d. How does parent-infant bonding affect adult relationships?
A

b. How does the presence of other people change an individual’s thoughts, feeling, or
perceptions?

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27
Q
  1. “An empirical objective science of behavior that has no need for the theories of mind or personal
    freedom” characterizes which of the following?
    a.Gestalt psychology
    b.Structuralism
    c.Behaviorism
    d.Humanistic psychology
A

c.Behaviorism

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28
Q
  1. The independent variable is the __________, and the dependent variable is the _________.
    a. experiment; cause
    b. cause; effect
    c. effect; correlation
    d. experiment; correlation
A

b. cause; effect

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29
Q
  1. As Salma views a famous Impressionist painting that is hung on a wall, her ___________ send
    signals from her brain to coordinate fine muscles in her eye to focus on parts of the painting.
    a. motor neurons
    b. sensory neurons
    c. mirror neurons
    d. interneurons
A

a. motor neurons

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30
Q
  1. The ___________ lies directly in front of the _________.
    a. primary visual cortex; auditory cortex
    b. auditory cortex; somatosensory cortex
    c. somatosensory cortex; motor cortex
    d. motor cortex; somatosensory cortex
A

d. motor cortex; somatosensory cortex

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31
Q
  1. ___________ is responsible for the left and right hemispheres of the brain’s ability to
    communicate back and forth with each other.
    a. Corpus callosum
    b. Wernicke’s area
    c. Thalamus
    d. Cingulate gyrus
A

a. Corpus callosum

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32
Q
  1. Children and teenagers act more impulsively than adults partially because their ______ are not
    fully developed.
    a. parietal lobes
    b. frontal lobes
    c. temporal lobes
    d. occipital lobes
A

b. frontal lobes

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33
Q
  1. For which of the following reasons is ancient Greece significant in the history of psychology?
    a. The foundations for psychology as a science can be traced to ancient Greece.
    b. Wilhelm Wundt, one of the first known psychologists, established his laboratory in ancient
    Greece.
    c. The first doctorate in psychology was awarded in ancient Greece.
    d. The ancient Greeks compiled the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders
A

a. The foundations for psychology as a science can be traced to ancient Greece.

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34
Q
  1. A hypothesis is best considered as a(n):
    a. tentative explanation or prediction about some phenomenon.
    b. attempt to explain something after it has already occurred.
    c. set of formal statements that explain how certain events are related to one another.
    d. particular type of experimenter expectancy.
A

a. tentative explanation or prediction about some phenomenon.

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35
Q
  1. The last process of the scientific method is to _____.
    a. communicate
    b. observe
    c. test
    d. predict
A

a. communicate

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36
Q
  1. Empiricism made the specific claim that our knowledge and understanding should be based upon:
    a. intuition.
    b. basic research.
    c. observation.
    d. reason.
A

c. observation.

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37
Q
  1. Which of the following is NOT a basic process of the scientific method?
    a. Observing
    b. Falsifying
    c. Interpreting
    d. Testing
A

b. Falsifying

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38
Q
  1. Which of the following psychologists study and treat mental disorders?
    a. cognitive psychologists
    b. clinical psychologists
    c. biological psychologist
    d. developmental psychologist
A

b. clinical psychologists

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39
Q
  1. In most persons, the left hemisphere of the brain
    a. Controls the left side of the body
    b. Controls speech
    c. Is larger than the right
    d. Receives tactile information from the left side of the body
A

b. Controls speech

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40
Q
  1. The ethical standard of ___________ refers to how participants should be given full descriptions
    about the procedures involved in a study and told that they are free to withdraw from a study at any time.
    a. informed consent
    b. right to privacy
    c. psychological risk
    d. social risk
A

a. informed consent

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41
Q
  1. In ____________________, the organism learns to associate two stimuli such that a
    previously neutral stimulus comes to produce a reflexive response that was previously
    produced by a different stimulus.
    a. operant conditioning
    b. modeling
    c. classical conditioning
    d. shaping
A

c. classical conditioning

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42
Q
  1. Probably the most important contribution of Ivan Pavlov’s work with dogs was that it:
    a. illustrated the nature of the digestive process.
    b. disproved prior operant conditioning theories.
    c. provided valuable insight into the nature of learning.
    d. showed how fixed action patterns can be modified.
A

c. provided valuable insight into the nature of learning.

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43
Q
  1. All of the following would strengthen the classical conditioning process, EXCEPT:
    a. presenting the UCS without the CS.
    b. presenting a particularly strong UCS.
    c. repeatedly presenting the CS-UCS pairings.
    d. making sure the time interval between the CS and UCS is short.
A

a. presenting the UCS without the CS.

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44
Q
  1. In 1946, Austrian physiologist Hans Selye coined the term ___________ to describe the
    common pattern of responses to prolonged exposure to stress.
    a. general adaptation syndrome
    b. Klinefelter’s syndrome
    c. Münchausen syndrome
    d. chronic fatigue syndrome
A

a. general adaptation syndrome

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45
Q
  1. When the CS is presented repeatedly without the UCS, the CR will gradually weaken in a
    process called:
    a. negative reinforcement.
    b. habituation.
    c. discrimination.
    d. extinction.
A

d. extinction.

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46
Q
  1. A dog salivates in response to food. In this instance, the salivation would technically be
    considered a(n):
    a. UCS
    b. CS
    c. UCR
    d. CR
A

c. UCR

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47
Q
  1. When undergoing chemotherapy to treat cancer, patients may generalize the nausea caused
    by chemotherapy to the hospital where the therapy takes place. When this occurs, the
    conditioned stimulus is:
    a. chemotherapy
    b. the hospital
    c. nausea
    d. the nurse
A

b. the hospital

48
Q
  1. If a CR has high stimulus generalization, then it will be triggered by ____________,
    whereas if it has high discrimination, it will occur in response to ____________.
    a. several different stimuli; a single stimulus
    b. a discriminative stimulus; a neutral stimulus
    c. a single stimulus; several different stimuli
    d. a neutral stimulus; a discriminative stimulus
A

a. several different stimuli; a single stimulus

49
Q
  1. Operant conditioning is concerned with ____________, whereas classical conditioning
    focuses on ____________.
    a. discriminative stimuli; generalized stimuli
    b. emitted behaviors; elicited behaviors
    c. generalized stimuli; discriminative stimuli
    d. elicited behaviors; emitted behaviors
A

b. emitted behaviors; elicited behaviors

50
Q
  1. Thorndike’s law of effect states that:
    a. responses followed by unsatisfying consequences will become more likely to occur.
    b. responses followed by unsatisfying consequences will become less likely to occur.
    c. aversive consequences produce greater learning than do positive consequences.
    d. positive consequences produce greater learning than do negative consequences.
A

b. responses followed by unsatisfying consequences will become less likely to occur.

51
Q
  1. Aaliyah remembers how to drive a car with a manual transmission, but when asked how
    she does it, she just says, “I don’t know—it’s automatic.” This is an example of her:
    A. implicit memory.
    B. priming.
    C. semantic memory.
    D. episodic memory.
A

A. implicit memory.

52
Q
  1. Chronic Stress-related cortisol release causes hippocampal dendrites to shrink, which can
    interfere with __________.
    a. vision
    b. memory
    c. reasoning
    d. hearing
A

b. memory

53
Q
  1. The capacity of _____________ memory is generally agreed to be about five to nine
    meaningful pieces of information.
    a. short-term
    b. episodic
    c. procedural
    d. sensory
A

a. short-term

54
Q
  1. The serial position effect refers to how:
    a. people tend to remember words presented at the beginning and end of a list better
    than words presented in the middle.
    b. elaborative rehearsal is more effective than maintenance rehearsal for storing
    information in long-term memory.
    c. information tends to be remembered better if it is processed more deeply.
    d. people tend to use automatic processing to encode words presented at the beginning
    and end of a list and use effortful processing to encode the words presented in the
    middle.
A

a. people tend to remember words presented at the beginning and end of a list better
than words presented in the middle.

55
Q
  1. Both elaborative and maintenance rehearsal keep information active in __________
    memory but __________ rehearsal is more effective in transferring information to longterm memory.
    a. short-term; elaborative
    b. sensory; maintenance
    c. short-term; maintenance
    d. sensory; elaborative
A

a. short-term; elaborative

56
Q
  1. A ____________ is something that assists in the reactivation of stored information.
    a. memory trace
    b. schema
    c. retrieval cue
    d. procedural memory
A

c. retrieval cue

57
Q
  1. The two subcategories of declarative memory are:
    a. implicit and explicit memory.
    b. episodic and semantic memory.
    c. procedural and episodic memory.
    d. proactive and retroactive memory.
A

b. episodic and semantic memory.

58
Q
  1. Your memory for the answer to this multiple-choice test question would be considered an
    example of:
    a. episodic memory.
    b. semantic memory.
    c. implicit memory.
    d. procedural memory
A

b. semantic memory.

59
Q
  1. The concept of context-dependent memory asserts that memory retrieval will be better if:
    a. the environment during encoding is similar to the environment during retrieval.
    b. the environment during encoding is different from the environment during retrieval.
    c. your internal state during encoding is similar to your internal state during retrieval.
    d. your internal state during encoding is different from your internal state during
    retrieval.
A

a. the environment during encoding is similar to the environment during retrieval.

60
Q
  1. Hermann Ebbinghaus studied the processes of memory by:
    a. learning lists of nonsense syllables himself and measuring his relearning.
    b. having people read and recall an unusual Pacific Northwest Indian story.
    c. touching specific brain areas during surgery and having patients report on what they
    were experiencing.
    d. damaging specific brain areas in animals and noting how this impacted learning.
A

a. learning lists of nonsense syllables himself and measuring his relearning.

61
Q
  1. Jim has a hard time remembering to do things that he plans to do in the future, such as
    mailing letters or remembering to call someone. These memories are examples of what
    are called ____________ memories and the frontal lobe is thought to play an important
    role in their retrieval.
    a. retroactive
    b. prospective
    c. anterograde
    d. retrograde
A

b. prospective

62
Q
  1. Which of the following are considered dimensions of consciousness?
    a. Wakefulness
    b. Awareness
    c. Flow
    d. A and B
A

d. A and B

63
Q
  1. What happens when one learns something new and stores it as short-term or long-term
    memory?
    a. It has no bearing on synaptic connections.
    b. Synaptic connections get weakened.
    c. Synaptic connections get strengthened.
    d. Increase in the release of Schwann cells.
A

c. Synaptic connections get strengthened.

64
Q
  1. The area of the cortex that appears to be heavily involved in the process of emotion
    regulation and determining options for response is:
    a. the prefrontal cortex.
    b. the parietal lobe.
    c. the right hemisphere.
    d. the occipital lobe.
A

a. the prefrontal cortex.

65
Q
  1. Which of the following are the key structures in the neuroendocrine regulation of stress
    responses?
    a. The hypothalamus, the pituitary gland, and the adrenal glands
    b. The adrenal gland, the parietal lobe, and the sebaceous gland
    c. The cerebellum, the adrenal glands, and the pineal gland
    d. The front lobe, the sebaceous gland, and the pituitary gland
A

a. The hypothalamus, the pituitary gland, and the adrenal glands

66
Q
  1. According to the research of Yerkes and Dodson on the relationship between arousal and
    performance, performance will be best on a complex task if there is a ___________ level
    of arousal. However, if the task is easy and not very complex, it is likely that the optimal
    level of arousal for this second task will be ___________.
    a. moderate; lower
    b. low; the same
    c. moderate; higher
    d. high; higher
A

c. moderate; higher

67
Q
  1. According to the traditional James-Lange theory of emotion, people who do NOT have
    access to feedback from their internal organs and physiology should experience:
    a. more intense emotional responses.
    b. no emotional responses.
    c. less intense emotional responses.
    d. emotional responses similar to normal individuals.
A

b. no emotional responses.

68
Q
  1. According to the ______________, physiological information provided by the muscles of
    the face may provide significant clues regarding the nature and intensity of the emotions
    we experience.
    a. somatic feedback hypothesis
    b. display rules theory of emotion
    c. facial feedback hypothesis
    d. Cannon-Bard theory of emotion
A

c. facial feedback hypothesis

69
Q
  1. ______ stimulates the pituitary to release adrenocorticotropic hormone and is released by
    the hypothalamus during a state of emotional arousal.
    A. Corticotropin-releasing factor
    B. Proopiomelanocortin
    C. Melanocortin
    D. Pro-opiomelanocortin
A

A. Corticotropin-releasing factor

70
Q
  1. A(n) _____________ is a chain of linkages between related concepts.
    a. parallel distributed processing
    b. tensor product network
    c. neural network
    d. associative network
A

d. associative network

71
Q
  1. Your memory of what happened to you on a childhood trip to Disneyland would best be
    considered an example of:
    a. procedural memory
    b. implicit memory
    c. semantic memory
    d. episodic memory
A

d. episodic memory

72
Q
  1. The concept of state-dependent memory asserts that memory retrieval will be better if:
    a. the environment during encoding is similar to the environment during retrieval.
    b. the environment during encoding is different from the environment during retrieval.
    c. your internal state during encoding is similar to your internal state during retrieval.
    d. your internal state during encoding is different from your internal state during retrieval
A

c. your internal state during encoding is similar to your internal state during retrieval.

73
Q
  1. The Temporal Dynamics model of emotional enhancement is based on enhancing neural
    plasticity in the __________.
    a. Prefrontal cortex
    b. Hippocampus
    c. Amygdala
    d. Hypothalamus
A

b. Hippocampus

74
Q
  1. The receptors for glutamate that are involved in Long-Term Potentiation (LTP) associated
    with memory are
    a. AMPA & IMPA
    b. NMDA & MDMA
    c. AMPA & NMPA
    d. AMPA & NMDA
A

d. AMPA & NMDA

75
Q
  1. _________ belongs to the hallucinogen category of drugs and results in mild intoxication,
    the munchies, and some memory deficits.
    a. LSD
    b. PCP
    c. Marijuana
    d. Psilocybin
A

c. Marijuana

76
Q
  1. ______________ was defined as the distinctive and relatively consistent ways of
    thinking, feeling, and behaving that characterize a person’s responses to various life
    situations.
    a. Self-efficacy
    b. Internalization
    c. Personality
    d. Self-verification
A

c. Personality

77
Q
  1. _____________ are best described as relatively stable cognitive, emotional, and
    behavioral characteristics that help establish people’s individual identities and distinguish
    them from others.
    a. Types
    b. Traits
    c. Behavioral outcome expectancies
    d. Defense mechanisms
A

b. Traits

78
Q
  1. The “A” in the personality acronym OCEAN stands for:
    a. apprehensiveness.
    b. adventurousness.
    c. aggressiveness.
    d. agreeableness
A

d. agreeableness

79
Q
  1. All of the following were methods that Sigmund Freud used to discover hidden
    unconscious material, EXCEPT:
    a. hypnosis.
    b. sublimation.
    c. dream analysis.
    d. free association.
A

b. sublimation.

80
Q
  1. According to humanistic theorists, _____________ refers to the active process of
    realizing our total human potential.
    a. self-actualization
    b. self-efficacy
    c. self-enhancement
    d. self-verification
A

a. self-actualization

81
Q
  1. The existence of two or more disorders at the same time is called _____.
    A. cyclothymia
    B. comorbidity
    C. joint attention
    D. compulsion
A

B. comorbidity

82
Q
  1. Which of the following statements regarding the stability of personality traits is most
    accurate?
    a. Almost all traits are remarkably consistent across time and across situations.
    b. Traits show significantly more stability across time than they do across situations.
    c. Traits show significantly more stability across situations than they do across time.
    d. In terms of stability across situations and across time, some traits are relatively stable,
    whereas others show a capacity for change.
A

d. In terms of stability across situations and across time, some traits are relatively stable,
whereas others show a capacity for change.

83
Q
  1. Identify the major psychological disorder that occurs when psychological symptoms take
    a physical form even though no physical causes can be found.
    A. Dissociative identity disorder
    B. Somatic symptom disorder
    C. Mood disorder
    D. Adjustment disorder
A

B. Somatic symptom disorder

84
Q
  1. _____ disorder is a major psychological disorder that involves a sudden loss of memory
    or change of identity.
    A. Personality
    B. Dissociative
    C. Factitious
    D. Somatic symptom
A

B. Dissociative

85
Q
  1. Which of the following are types of anxiety disorders?
    A. Dysthymia and kleptomania
    B. Depressive disorder and bipolar disorder
    C. Post-traumatic stress disorder and panic disorder
    D. Schizophrenia and bipolar disorder
A

C. Post-traumatic stress disorder and panic disorder

86
Q
  1. _____ are convincing sensory experiences that occur in the absence of an external
    stimulus.
    A. Panic attacks
    B. Hallucinations
    C. Manic episodes
    D. Delusions
A

B. Hallucinations

87
Q
  1. The _____ were among the first pharmaceuticals used to treat depression.
    A. phenothiazines
    B. benzodiazepines
    C. atypical antipsychotics
    D. monoamine oxidase inhibitors
A

D. monoamine oxidase inhibitors

88
Q
  1. Any type of psychotherapy that works to restructure irrational thought patterns is known
    as _____.
    a. psychoanalytic therapy
    b. humanistic-positive therapy
    c. behavioral therapy
    d. cognitive therapy
A

d. cognitive therapy

89
Q
  1. Ozzie’s depression was treated with repetitive transcranial magnetic stimulation. Which of
    the following did physicians do to his brain?
    a. exposed specific brain structures to high-intensity magnetic fields
    b. implanted magnets of opposing polarities in each brain hemisphere
    c. removed neurons that are attracted to magnetic fields and are therefore damaged
    d. colored affected brain tissue with magnetic coating, making identification easier
A

a. exposed specific brain structures to high-intensity magnetic fields

90
Q
  1. Bill and Harold are identical twins, but only Bill develops depression. The vulnerability-stress model would predict that Bill has _______ stressors.
    a. more
    b. fewer
    c. the same
    d. None of these
A

a. more

91
Q
  1. Obsession is to compulsion as:
    a. subjective-emotional is to behavioral.
    b. cognitive is to behavioral.
    c. physiological is to cognitive.
    d. behavioral is to cognitive.
A

b. cognitive is to behavioral.

92
Q
  1. Which of the following is performed in a radical procedure known as prefrontal lobotomy?
    a. The left hemisphere of an individual’s brain is entirely removed.
    b. Connections between the prefrontal lobes and the lower portion of the brain are severed.
    c. The corpus callosum is severed and the frontal lobes are enlarged.
    d. The right visual pathway is rewired to be processed by the right hemisphere.
A

b. Connections between the prefrontal lobes and the lower portion of the brain are severed.

93
Q
  1. _____ reduce(s) the action of the enzyme monoamine oxidase, which breaks down
    monoamine neurotransmitters in the brain.
    a. Lithium
    b. Benzodiazepines
    c. Barbiturates
    d. MAO inhibitors
A

d. MAO inhibitors

94
Q
  1. The central diagnostic feature of ______________ is a breakdown in the coherence of the
    personality, resulting in significant changes in memory and/or identity.
    a. depression
    b. the dissociative disorders
    c. conversion disorder
    d. the somatoform disorders
A

b. the dissociative disorders

95
Q
  1. One of the side effects of traditional antipsychotics is _____, which consists of repetitive,
    involuntary movements of jaw, tongue, face and mouth, and body tremors.
    a. nocebo
    b. tardive dyskinesia
    c. primary ciliary dyskinesia
    d. iatrogenesis
A

b. tardive dyskinesia

96
Q
  1. A person with a euphoric mood, a decreased need for sleep, and grandiose or exaggerated
    cognitions would most likely be diagnosed as having:
    a. psychogenic fugue.
    b. schizophrenia.
    c. major depression.
    d. mania.
A

d. mania.

97
Q
  1. Underactivity of all of the following neurotransmitters has been linked to depression,
    EXCEPT:
    a. serotonin.
    b. dopamine.
    c. norepinephrine.
    d. gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA).
A

d. gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA).

98
Q
  1. _______________ are false beliefs that are maintained in the face of contradictory
    evidence and they play a central role in ______________.
    a. Hallucinations; dissociative identity disorder
    b. Delusions; schizophrenia
    c. Helpless thoughts; anxiety
    d. Catastrophic thoughts; depression
A

b. Delusions; schizophrenia

99
Q
  1. Impulsiveness, a lack of guilt, and a lack of emotional attachment to people are all
    aspects of:
    a. antisocial personality disorder.
    b. dissociative identity disorder.
    c. somatoform disorders.
    d. paranoid schizophrenia.
A

a. antisocial personality disorder.

100
Q
  1. Dolareen suffers from cynophobia, which is an abnormal fear of dogs. Her therapist is
    treating her with systematic desensitization, which means that the therapist is
    ___________________.
    A. pairing relaxation with gradual exposure to dogs
    B. hypnotizing her to be unafraid of dogs
    C. transferring her fear of dogs to a fear of cats
    D. reducing her real-world contact with dogs
A

A. pairing relaxation with gradual exposure to dogs

101
Q
  1. Although they can be quite different from one another, the basic goal of all therapies is to
    a. identity important unconscious factors and change people’s personalities for the
    better.
    b. allow for the expression of previously denied or suppressed emotions.
    c. put people in touch with their innate tendencies for growth so that they can gain more
    personal freedom in their lives.
    d. change maladaptive patterns of thinking, feeling, and behaving so that people can
    lead happier lives.
A

d. change maladaptive patterns of thinking, feeling, and behaving so that people can
lead happier lives.

102
Q
  1. Which of the following refers to a major diagnostic tool used in the U.S. and some other
    Western cultures for psychological disorders?
    a. Disorders and Specialization Manual
    b. Diagnostic and Statistical Manual
    c. Disorders and Symptoms Manual
    d. Diagnostic and Specialization Manual
A

b. Diagnostic and Statistical Manual

103
Q
  1. SSRIs treat depression by _____.
    a. decreasing the brain’s production of glutamate
    b. decreasing the brain’s production of acetylcholine
    c. increasing the availability of serotonin in the brain
    d. increasing the availability of GABA in the brain
A

c. increasing the availability of serotonin in the brain

104
Q
  1. Given that Paul suffers from a disorder that makes it difficult for him to distinguish real
    from imagined perceptions, which of the following accounts for his condition?
    a. dysthymic disorder
    b. psychotic disorder
    c. cyclothymic disorder
    d. dissociative disorder
A

b. psychotic disorder

105
Q
  1. Which of the following reasons is true for why SSRIs take about four weeks to have a
    therapeutic effect?
    a. It takes that long for new receptor sites to form to make use of the increased serotonin
    supply.
    b. Cortical tissue takes this long to regenerate once active medication is administered.
    c. The patient usually has an interfering, negative attitude that the medication will not
    work.
    d. The corpus callosum needs this time to strengthen the connection between
    hemispheres.
A

a. It takes that long for new receptor sites to form to make use of the increased serotonin
supply.

106
Q
  1. _____ is the point at which one moves from not having a particular response to having one.
    a. A personality trait
    b. A behavioral threshold
    c. A psychosexual stage
    d. Extraversion
A

b. A behavioral threshold

107
Q
  1. In client-centered therapy, the therapist must show _____— that is, genuine liking and
    empathy for the client, regardless of what he or she has said or done.
    a. flooding
    b. desensitized immersion
    c. systematic desensitization
    d. unconditional positive regard
A

d. unconditional positive regard

108
Q
  1. _____ entails restructuring thoughts, loosening the client’s belief in irrational thoughts
    that may perpetuate the disorder, and offering incentives for acquiring more adaptive
    thought and behavior patterns.
    a. Humanistic-positive therapy
    b. Group therapy
    c. Cognitive-behavioral therapy
    d. Implosion therapy
A

c. Cognitive-behavioral therapy

109
Q
  1. Which of the following is true about traditional antipsychotics?
    a.Traditional antipsychotics are considered to be the first line of treatment for anxiety
    disorders.
    b. Clozapine, olanzapine, and risperidone are examples of traditional antipsychotics.
    c.Tardive dyskinesia is a particularly problematic side effect of traditional
    antipsychotics.
    d.Traditional antipsychotics have the same side effects as atypical antipsychotics.
A

c.Tardive dyskinesia is a particularly problematic side effect of traditional
antipsychotics.

110
Q
  1. For which of the following disorders are clozapine, olanzapine, and risperidone, as
    atypical antipsychotics, used as a treatment?
    a.schizophrenia
    b.avoidant personality disorder
    c.dissociative fugue
    d.dissociative identity disorder
A

a.schizophrenia

111
Q
  1. Delusion is to hallucination as:
    a. auditory is to visual.
    b. grandiose is to persecutory.
    c. belief is to sensory experience.
    d. positive symptom is to negative symptom
A

c. belief is to sensory experience.

112
Q
  1. Under which of the following circumstances is electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) used
    today?
    a. to punish mentally ill patients for unacceptable behavior
    b. to reduce seizures in epileptics
    c. to treat depression when other treatments have failed
    d. to treat acute insomnia
A

c. to treat depression when other treatments have failed

113
Q
  1. When Malcolm experiences the bizarre perceptual symptoms of schizophrenia, he shows
    the _____ of schizophrenia.
    a. cognitive
    b. manic
    c. adjunct
    d. positive
A

d. positive

114
Q
  1. Which of the following best describes auditory hallucination?
    a. The false perception of taste
    b. The false perception of sight
    c. The false perception of sensation of touch
    d. The false perception of hearing voices in one’s head
A

d. The false perception of hearing voices in one’s head

115
Q
  1. Anna shows negative symptoms of schizophrenia if she shows:
    a. instances of word salad.
    b. delusions.
    c. hallucinations.
    d. catatonia.
A

d. catatonia.

Psychology Chapter 1 (7 decks)

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