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3A > Psychiatry > Flashcards

Psychiatry Flashcards

1
Q

What is the strongest RF for schizophrenia

A

family history (monozygotic twins- 50%, parent- 10-15%)

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2
Q

RF for schizophrenia (5)

A

family history
black carribbean
migration
urban environment
cannabis use

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3
Q

two theories of the pathophysiology of schizophrenia

A

neurodevelopmental and neurotransmitter

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4
Q

factors that indicate a poor prognosis in schizophrenia (5)

A

strong Fhx
gradual onset
low IQ
prodromal phase of social withdrawal
lack of obvious precipitant

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5
Q

what are schnieder’s first rank symptoms for schizophrenia (4)

A

auditory hallucinations (3rd person narration)
thought disorder (insertion, withdrawal, broadcasting)
delusional perceptions
somatic passivity

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6
Q

what are the negative symptoms of schizophrenia (4)

A

anhedonia
alogia (poverty of speech)
avolition (poverty of motivation)
affective flattening

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7
Q

what are delusional perceptions

A

where someone experiences a normal perception which triggers a self related delusion
e.g. the traffic light is green so i am god

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8
Q

what are some examples of delusions

A

delusions of grandiosity
erotomatic delusions
cotard syndrome

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9
Q

What is circumstantiality

A

where someone answers a question by going of on a tangent but then returning to the point

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10
Q

what is tangentiality

A

where someone wanders from a topic but does not return to the original poin

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11
Q

What is neoligisms

A

where someone makes up a new word - sometimes from combining two words

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12
Q

what are clang associations

A

where someone speaks in a manner where ideas are related by rhyming

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13
Q

what is word salad

A

incoherent speech

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14
Q

What is knights move thinking

A

where someone makes illogical leaps between topics

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15
Q

what is flight of ideas

A

where someone leaps from one topic to another with discernable links

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16
Q

what is echolalia

A

repition of someone elses speech

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17
Q

what makes up DSM-5’s definition of schizophrenia

A

symptoms must be present for at least 6 months with features of the active phase being present for at least one month

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18
Q

what makes up ICD-10’s definition of schizophrenai

A

at least 2 symptoms present for one month where one of the symptoms is a core symptom:
- persistent delusions
- persistent hallucinations
- disorganised thinking
- experiences of influence, control, passivity
cannot be attributable to another illness or substance

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19
Q

what is the overall treatment of schizophrenia

A

antipsychotics and CBT

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20
Q

what type of antipsychotics are first lien

A

atypical antipsychotics

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21
Q

give some examples of atypical antipsychotics

A

risperidone
olanzapine
quetiapine
aripiprazole

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22
Q

which atypical antispychotic has the least SE

A

aripiprazole

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23
Q

what two types of antipsychotics are there

A

atypical and typical

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24
Q

give 2 examples of typical antipsychotics

A

haloperidol and chlopromazine

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25
Q

what is the criteria for prescribing clozapien

A

at least 2 antipsychotics need to have been tried for 6-8 weeks each

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26
Q

which type of antipsychotic is associated with extrapyramidal side effects

A

typical (e.g. chlorpromazine)

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27
Q

give examples of extrapyramidal SE

A

parkinsonisms
acute dystonia
akasthisia
tardive dyskinesia

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28
Q

how can acute dystonia be treated

A

procyclidine

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29
Q

SE of typical antipsychotics

A

extrapyramidal SE
hyperprolactinoma

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30
Q

SE of atypical antipsychotics

A

metabolic effects
impaired glucose tolerance
weight gain
reduced stroke threshold

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31
Q

which antipsychotic can cause prolonged QT

A

haloperidol

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32
Q

SE of clozapine

A

agranulocytosis
reduced seizure threshold
constipation
myocarditis
hypersalivation

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33
Q

what lifestyle factor can effect clozapine

A

smoking

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34
Q

what is bipolar disorder

A

a psychiatric condition characterised by recurrent episodes of depression and mania/hypomania

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35
Q

what is mania

A

episodes of excessively elevated mood and energy with significant impact on normal functions-
- episodes last at least one week
- epsiodes have severe impacts on social or occupational functioning
- psychotic features (e.g. delusions of grandiosity, flight of ideas, pressured speech)

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36
Q

what is hypomania

A

episodes of elevated mood and energy, milder than manic episodes
- last at least 4 days
- do not have psychotic features or have significant impacts on normal functions

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37
Q

what are some symptoms of mania

A

increased mood
irritability
increased energy
decreased sleep
grandiosity
increased risk taking behaviour
disinhibition and sexually inappropriate behaviour
flight of ideas
pressured speech
psychosis
increased libido

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38
Q

what is cyclothymia

A

mild symptoms of low mood and hypomania

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39
Q

how is mania acutely managed (2)

A

stop current antidepressants
start antipsychotics- e.g. olanzapine, haloperidol

can use sodium valproate or lithium

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40
Q

how is depression in bipolar treated

A

olanzapine plus fluoxetine

can do antipsychotics or lamotrigine

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41
Q

what is the first line long term mood stabiliser in bipolar

A

lithium

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42
Q

what are side effects of lithium (10)

A

nausea and vomiting
fine tremor
weight gain
chronic kidney disease (renally excreted)
hypothyroidism
hyperparathyroidism and hypercalcaemia
nephrogenic diabetes insipidus
idiopathic intracranial HTN
T wave flattening on ECG
lithium toxicity

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43
Q

at what level does lithium toxicity often present

A

above 1.5 mmol/l

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44
Q

what can precipitate lithium toxicity

A

dehydration
renal failure
drugs (NSAIDs, thiazides, ACEi)

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45
Q

how does lithium toxicity present?

A

coarse tremor (usually fine tremor at the therapeutic dose)
hyperreflexia
confusion
polyuria
seizure
coma

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46
Q

how is lithium toxicity managed

A

IV isotonic saline
may need haemodialysis
sometimes sodium bicarbonate is used

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47
Q

how soon after a dose change should lithium levels be checked

A

1 weeks

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48
Q

how long after a dose of lithium should levels be checked?

A

12 hours

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49
Q

generally how often should lithium levels be checked

A

every 3 months

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50
Q

what are alternatives to lithium in the long term management of bipoalr

A

sodium valproate and olanzapine

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51
Q

two theories of how lithium works

A

interferes with inositol triphosphate formation
interferes with cAMP formation

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52
Q

what is generalised anxiety disorder

A

excessive worrying and disproportional anxiety about a number of events that negatively impacts the persons everyday life

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53
Q

RF for GAD

A

female
family histord
childhoof adversity
history of sexual or emotional trauma

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54
Q

secondary causes of anxiety that need to be excluded (5)

A

substance use (e.g. caffeine, cortiocsteroids)
substance withdrawal (e.g. alcohol, benzos)
hyperthyroidism
phaeochromocytoma
cushings disease

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55
Q

What can the symptoms of anxiety be split into?

A

emotional and cognitive symptoms
physical symptoms

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56
Q

emotional and cognitive symptoms of anxiety

A

excessive worrying
restlessness
difficulty relaxing
difficulty concentrating
unable to control worrying
easily tired

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57
Q

physical symptoms of anxiety

A

muscle tension
tremor
palpitations
sweating
insomnia
GI symptoms
headaches

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58
Q

how long should symptoms of anxiety occur for for a diagnosis

A

most days for at least 6 months

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59
Q

What can be used to quantify the severity of anxiety

A

the generalised anxiety disorder questionnaire (GAD-7)h

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60
Q

interpretation of the GAD-7 results

A

5-9 = mild anxiety
10-14= moderate anxiety
15-21= severe anxiety

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61
Q

stepwise management of GAD

A

1- education and active monitoring
2- low intensity psychological intervention (e.g. non guided self-help, guided self-help, psychoeducations groups)
3- high intensity psychological interventions (e.g. CBT)
or drug therapy
4- specialisy inputfi

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62
Q

first line drug treatment in GAD

A

sertraline

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63
Q

stepwise management of drug treatment of anxiety

A

1- sertraline
2- other SSRI or SNRI (venlafaxine or duloxetine)
3- pregabaline

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64
Q

what characterises depression

A

a disorder of low mood, low energy and reduced enjoyment of activities

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65
Q

pathophysiology of depression

A

thought to be due to neurotransitter disturbance in the CNS - particularly serotonin

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66
Q

what might contribuite to causing depression

A

relationship breakdowns
grief
housing situations
occupational stress
financial stress

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67
Q

three types of symptoms associated with depression

A

emotional
cognitive
physical

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68
Q

emotional symptoms of depression

A

anxiety, low mood, irritability, low self-esteem, guilt, hopelessness

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69
Q

cognitive symptoms of depression

A

poor concentration, slow thoughts, poor memory

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70
Q

physical symptoms of depression

A

low energy
abnormal sleep (Early awakening)
poor appetite
slow movmements

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71
Q

what features of depression need to be risk assessed in assessment

A

self-neglect
self harm
harm to others (including neglect)
suicide

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72
Q

what physical conditions can cause depression?

A

stroke
MI
MS
parkinsons

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73
Q

What questionnaire can assess the severity of depression and how does it work?

A

the PHQ-9 questionnaire
enquires about how often someone has experienced certain symptoms over the past 2 weeks

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74
Q

interpretation of the scores of the PHQ-9

A

5-9 mild
9-14 moderate
15-19 moderate- severe
20-27 severe

NICE recommends that >16 is more severe depression and <16 is less severe

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75
Q

features of the ICD-10 definition of depression

A

at least one core symptom (low mood, anhedonia, low energy) on most days for the past 2 weeks

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76
Q

management of less severe depression

A
  • guided self help and active monitoring
  • therapy- group CBT, group behavioural activation, individual CBT, individual BA, group exercise, group meditation and mindfulness
  • antidepressants (not 1st line)
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77
Q

first line treatment of more severe depression

A

CBT and SSRI (sertraline)

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78
Q

examples of SSRI’s

A

sertraline
citalopram
fluoxetine
paroxetine
escitalopram

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79
Q

how do SSRI’s work?

A

they block the reuptake of serotonin from the neuromuscular junction

80
Q

which two groups of patients would likely have sertraline first line

A

those with anxiety symptoms
those who have had MI’s or cardiac disease

81
Q

specific SE of citalopram

A

prolonged QT interval - can cause Torsades de pointes

82
Q

why is fluoxetine preferred in children

A

it has a longer half life so is less likely to cause discontinuation syndrome (stays in body for longer)

83
Q

SE of SSRIs

A

GI upset (diarrhoea- particularly sertraline) , headaches, sexual dysfunction (ED, low libido), hyponatraemia (SIADH), anxiety, increases suicide risk in first few weeks, increased bleeding (particularly if on NSAIDs, anticoagulants)

84
Q

what is a complication that can occur with SSRIs (increased)

A

serotonin syndrome

85
Q

what can trigger serotonin syndrome

A

St Johns wart, triptans, MAO-B’s

86
Q

pathophysiology of serotonin syndrome

A

too much serotonin stimulation

87
Q

how does serotonin syndrome present

A

altered mental state- confusion
autonomic system hyperactivity- hyperthermia, sweating
neuromuscular hyperactivity- rigidity, hyperreflexia, myoclonus

88
Q

how is serotonin syndrome managed?

A

IV fluids
benzodiazepiens
serotonin antagonists- chlorpromazine

89
Q

What is discontinuation syndrome and why does it occur

A

occurs when antidepressants aren’t slowly tappered down

90
Q

how does discontinuation syndrome present?

A

increased mood changes
restlessness
difficulty sleeping
parasthesia
GI upset
sweating
unsteadiness

91
Q

which antidepressants are at an increased likelihood of discontinuation syndrome

A

paroxetine and venlafaxine

92
Q

which antidepressant does not cause discontinuation syndrome

A

fluoxetine

93
Q

which patients would not be prescribed SNRI’s

A

those with uncontrolled HTN as can cause increased BP

94
Q

2 examples of SNRIs

A

venlafaxine and duloxetine

95
Q

action of TCA’s

A

blocks the reuptake of serotonin and noradrenaline

96
Q

SE of TCAs

A

anticholinergic effects- dry mouth, blurred vision, constipation , urinary retention
drowsiness
postural HTN
arrhythmias - tachycardia, prolonged QT

97
Q

Who might be prescribed mitrazapine (2)

A

those with low appetite
those with insomnia

98
Q

what is OCD

A

a mental disorder characterised by recurrent obsessions, compulsions or both which causes significant functional impairment and or distress

99
Q

what is an obsession

A

an unwanted intrusive thought, image or urge that repeatedly enters the persons mind

100
Q

what is a compulsion

A

a repetitive behaviour or ritual including mental acts that the person may be driven to perform by their obsession

101
Q

RF for OCD

A

female
family history
pregnancy and postpartum
history of abuse

102
Q

common obsessions

A

contamination with dirt
fear of harm
forbidden thoughs

103
Q

common compulsions

A

repetitive hand washig
checking
ordering and arranging

104
Q

how can the severity of OCD be determined?

A

Y-BOCS scale

105
Q

what would classify severe OCD

A

> 3 hours a day are taken up by compulsions or obsessions
there is significant distress
there is little self control

106
Q

features of the ICD-10 definition of OCD

A

present on most days for 2 weeks
- thoughts or impulses are recognised as individuals own
- must be at least one thought that is resisted unsuccessfully
- the though of carrying out the act is not itself pleasurable
- the thoughts and impulses must be unpleasantly repetitve

107
Q

first line treatment of mild OCD

A

CBT and exposure and response prevention

108
Q

first line drug treatment of severe OCD

A

SSRI

109
Q

2nd line drug treatment of severe OCD

A

clomipramine

110
Q

drug treatment of body dysmorphic disorder

A

fluoxetine

111
Q

what is PTSD

A

a mental condition that results from traumatic experiences with ongoing distressing symptoms and impaired function

112
Q

what are the 4 key symptoms of PTSD

A

re-experiencing: flashbacks, nightmares, repetivite and disturbing images
avoidance- of places, people, situations that remind them of event
Hyperarousal- hypervigilance to threat, exaggerated startle resposnse, sleep problems
emotional numbing- lack of ability to experience emotions, feeling detached

113
Q

first line treatment for PTSD

A

trauma focused CBT or eye movement desensitisation and reprocessing

114
Q

what drugs may be used to treat PTSD

A

venlafaxine or sertraline

115
Q

how long do PTSD symptoms need to have lasted for

A

4 weeks

116
Q

difference between PTSD and acute stress reaction

A

acute stress reaction is present for less than 4 weeks, PTSD is over 4 weeks

117
Q

What is somatisation disorder

A

a disorder where a patient presents with multiple physical symptoms that have been present for over 2 years but have no apparent organic cause
Symptoms may include cardiac (chest pain), GI (diarrhoea, vomiting), MSK and neuro (headache, dizziness)

The patient will refuse to accept negative tests

118
Q

What is hypochondriasis

A

illness anxiety disorder
where a patient has persistent belief that they have an underlying condition (e.g. cancer)
patient will refuse to accept negative tests

119
Q

what is conversion disorder

A

a condition where a patient presents with symptoms of a disease of the brain and nerves
- may include vision loss, weakness, paralysis
- the patient is not consciously feigning symptoms and often expresses la belle indifference

120
Q

What is la belle indifference

A

where there is absence of psychological distress when a patient presents with symptoms of a serious medical illness

121
Q

what is factitious disorder

A

intentional production of physical or psychological symptoms
also called munchausens

122
Q

What is malingering

A

fraudulent simulation or exaggeration of symptoms with the intention of financial gain

123
Q

what is delirium

A

an acute and fluctuating change in mental status with inattention, disorganised thinking and altered levels of consciousness

124
Q

RF for delirium

A

old age
dementia
visual or hearing impairment
functional impairment
immobility
past history of delirium
decreased oral intake
polypharmacy
coexisting medical conditions
frailty
surgery

125
Q

predisposing factors for delirium

A

drugs (sedatives, opiates, TCA’s, stimulants, alcohol)
primary neurological injury (stroke, haemorrhage)
acute illness (infection- pneumonia, UTI)
metabolic disturbance
surgery
iatrogenic events
pain
prolonged sleep deprivation
drug withdrawal

126
Q

3 types of delirium

A

hypoactive- lethargy, decreased motor activity, incoherent speech
hyperactive - restlessness, agitation, hallucinations, inappropriate behaviour
mixed

127
Q

what features would suggest delirium over dementia ?

A

acute onset
agitation or fear
impairment of consciousness
delusions
fluctuating symptoms (worse at night)
abnormal perceptions (illusions and hallucinations)

128
Q

what quick test can be used to screen for delirium and what are its components

A

the 4A’s test
Alertness
a short test of orientation
attention
acute and fluctuating changes

129
Q

what drug treatment may be used for delirium

A

haloperidol first line

130
Q

What are three types of phobia disorders

A

specific phobia
social phobia
agoraphobia

131
Q

what is specific phobia and give some examples

A

intense anxiety triggered by a specific object or situation leading to avoidance behaviour

common examples include animals, heights, thunder, flying, blood exposure

132
Q

what is social phobia

A

fear of scrutiny by others in relatively small groups leading to the avoidance of social situations- can be specific to things such as public speaking or can be generalised

133
Q

What is agoraphobia

A

fear of open spaces and associated factors like the presence of crowds or perceived difficulty of immediate easy escape to a safe place

134
Q

first line management of phobias

A

CBT

first line drug treatment is SSRIs

135
Q

What 3 features make up the DSM-5 criteria for anorexia nervosa

A
  1. restriction of energy intake relative to requirement leading to a significantly lower body weight in the context of age, sex, developmental trajectory and physical health
  2. intense fear of gaining weight or becoming fat despite being underweight
  3. disturbance in the way in which ones body weight or shape is experienced, undue influence of body weight or shape on self-evaluation or denial of the seriousness of the current low body weight.
136
Q

1st line treatment of anorexia in children and adolescents

A

anorexia family focused therapy

137
Q

second line treatment of anorexia in children

A

CBT

138
Q

treatment options for anorexia in adults

A

individual eating disorder CBT
maudsley anorexia nervosa treatment for adults
specialist support clinical management

139
Q

what electrolyte abnormalities are present in refeeding syndrome?

A

hypophosphataemia
hypokalaemia
hypomagnesaemia

140
Q

What physiological abnormalities might be present in anorexia (7)

A

hypokalaemia
low FSH,LH, oestrogen and testosterone
increased growth hormone and cortisol
impaired glucose tolerance
hypercholesterolaemia
hypercarotinaemia
low T3

141
Q

What receptors do opioids bind to?

A

opioid receptors

142
Q

Features of opioid misuse

A

rhinorrhoea
needle track marks
pinpoint pupils
drowsiness
watering eyes
yawning

143
Q

complications of opioid misuse

A

viral infections from sharing needles- HIV, Hep B and C
bacterial infections - Infective endocarditis, septic arthritis
VTE
overdose- resp depression
psychosocial problems

144
Q

How is opioid overdose managed?

A

IV or IM naloxone

145
Q

What two drugs can be used in the management of opioid dependence?

A

methadone or bupenorphine

146
Q

What additional benefit does bupenorphine have and why?

A

it can reduce the effect of other opioids injected- it has a high affinity for the receptors so means other opioids cannot bind and exert their effects

147
Q

Action of cocaine

A

blocks the reuptake of dopamine, noradrenaline and serotonin from the presynaptic membrane

148
Q

What can cocaine misuse cause?

A
  • coronary artery vasospasm (MI)
  • hypertension
  • aortic dissection
  • seizures
  • mydriasis
  • hypertonia and hyperreflexia
  • agitation
  • hallucinations
  • ischaemic colitis
  • rhabdomyolisis
149
Q

How is cocaine toxicity treated?

A

benzodiazepines
- if chest pain may add GTN
- if HTN may had sodium nitroprusside

150
Q

Action of ecstasy

A

stimulates the release of serotonin and blocks its reuptake

151
Q

how does ecstasy toxicity present?

A

agitation
confusion
tachycardia
hypertension
rhabdomyolisis
hyponatraemia (from SIADH or excessive water intake)
hyperthermia

152
Q

what may be used to treat hyperthermia in ecstasy toxicity

A

dantrolene

153
Q

Action of LSD

A

stimulation of the serotonin receptors

154
Q

Action of benzodiazepines

A

stimulation of the GABA receptors

155
Q

action of cannabis

A

stimulation of the cannabinoid receptors

156
Q

management of paracetamol overdose

A

if within 1 hour= activated charcoal to reduce absorption
if over an hour- acetylcysteine infusion over one hour (if concentration is above treatment line)

157
Q

when might a liver transplant be indicated in paracetamol overdose?

A

if arterial pH is <7.3 24 hours after ingestion

If PTT > 100 seconds
IF creatinine > 300
If the is grade III of IV encephalopathy

158
Q

antedote to methanol overdose?

A

fomepizole or ethanol

159
Q

antidote to TCA overdose

A

IV bicarbonate

160
Q

Antidote for calcium channel blocker overdose?

A

calcium chloride or calcium gluconate

161
Q

what is antifreeze known as ?

A

ethylene glycol

162
Q

management of antifreeze ingestion

A

fomepizole or ethanol

163
Q

How can paracetamol overdose present?

A

nausea and vomiting
right subcostal pain and tenderness
reduced conciousness
hypoglycaemia
respiratory depression

164
Q

How might TCA overdose present?

A

dry mouth
seizures
coma
arrhythmias
hypothermia

165
Q

how might beta blocker overdose present

A

bradycardia
hypotension
syncope
heart failure
drowsiness and confusion

166
Q

antidote of benzodiazepine overdose

A

flumazenil

167
Q

Who can be treated using ECT?

A
  • severe treatment resistant depression (catatonia)
  • prolonged and severe manic episodes
  • may be used in schizophrenia however evidence negates this from being recommended
168
Q

what is an absolute contraindication to ECT ?

A

increased intracranial pressure
- need to be careful in those with increased risk of a cardiovascular even

169
Q

What are some side effects of ECT?

A

headache
nausea
short term memory loss
cardiac arrhythmias

170
Q

How many sessions of ECT are usually used?

A

6-12 sessions given twice weekly

171
Q

how does ECT work>

A

electrodes are placed on a persons scalp and electrical activity is passed through the brain
this induced a generalised seizure
the patient is under general anaesthetic and muscle relaxants

the theory is that it changes the post-synaptic response to CNS neurotransmitters

172
Q

what are hypnotics

A

medications that induce sleep and treat insomnia
- most commonly benzodiazepines

173
Q

what are anxiolytics

A

medications that are used in the treatment of acute anxiety
- most commonly benzodiazepines

174
Q

what are some benzodiazepines that my be used as hypnotics

A

nitrazepam
flurazepam

175
Q

which type of benzodiazepines are more likely to cause behaviour disinhibition?

A

short acting.

176
Q

pathway of ADHD medication in children

A

1- methylphenidate
2- lisdexamphetamine
3- dexamphetamine (if positive response to 2 but SE)

177
Q

What three clusters of personality disorders are there?

A

cluster A- odd or eccentric
cluster B- Dramatic, Emotional or Erratic
cluster C- anxious and fearful

178
Q

what personality disorders make up cluster A

A

paranoids
schizoid
schizotypal

179
Q

what personality disorders make up cluster B

A

antisocial
borderline (emotionally unstable)
histrionic
narcissistic

180
Q

what personality disorders make up cluster c

A

obsessive-compulsive
avoidant
dependent

181
Q

describe paranoid personality disorder

A

-hypersensitivity and unforgiving attitude when insulted
-unwarranted tendency to question the loyalty of friends
-reluctance to confide in others
-preoccupation with conspirational beliefs and hidden meaning

182
Q

describe schizoid personality disorder

A
  • indifference to praise and criticism
  • preference for solitary activities
  • lack of interest in sexual interactions
  • few friends
  • emotional coldness
183
Q

describe schizotypal personality disorder

A

-ideas of reference (differ from delusions as some insight is retained)
- odds beliefs and magical thinking
- unusual perceptual disturbances
- paranoid ideation and suspiciousness
- odd eccentric behaviour
- lack of close friends other than family members
- inappropriate affect
- odd speech without being incoherent

184
Q

What makes up DSM 5’s definition of ADHD?

A

A disorder that incorporates features of inattention and or hyperactivity/impulsivity that are persistent.

If <16 then 6 features are required
If >17 then 5 features are required

Features:
inattention:
- doesn’t follow instructions
- reluctant to engage in mentally intense tasks
- easily distracted
- finds it difficult to sustain tasks
- finds it difficult to organise tasks
- often forgetful in daily tasts
- often looses things needed for tasks
- often does not seem to listen when spoken to

hyperactivity/impulsivity:
- unable to play quietly
- often talks excessively
- doesnt want to wait their turn
- will spontaneously leave their seat
- ‘on the go’
- interruptive or intrusive to others
- answers questions prematurely
- runs and climbs when not appropriate

185
Q

What are the key features of ICD-11s definition of personality disorders

A

persistent pattern - the persons patterns of behaviour are stable over time and span across various personal and social situations

Impairment- the devision results in significant problems or dysfunctions in the persons life

Duration- the characteristics are stable over time and are not transient

Distress or dysfunction= the impairment may result in distress or the individual or others

186
Q

what three clusters of personality disorders are there?

A

Cluster A- odd or eccentric

Cluster B- dramatic, emotional or erratic

Cluster C- anxious and fearful

187
Q

what personality disorders are including in cluster a?

A

paranoid
schizoid
schizotypal

188
Q

what personality disorders are included in cluster B

A

antisocial
borderline
histrionic
narcissistic

189
Q

what personality disorders are included in cluster c

A

obsessive-complusive
avoidant
dependent

190
Q

describe the features of paranoid personality disorder

A

hypersensitivity and an unforgiving attitude when insulted

unwanted tendency to question the loyalty of friends

reluctance to confide in others

preoccupation with conspirational beliefs and hidden meaning

unwarranted tendency to perceive attacks on their character

191
Q

describe features of schizoid personality disorder

A

indifference to praise or criticisms
preference for solitary activities
lack of interest in sexual interactions
lack of desire for companionship
emotional coldness
few interests
few friends or confidants other than family

192
Q

describe schizotypal personality disorder

A

ideas of reference
odd beliefs and magical thinking
unusual perceptual disturbance
paranoid ideation and suspiciousness
odd eccentric behaviour
lack of close friends other than family members
inappropriate affect
odd speech without being incoherent

193
Q

describe antisocial personality disorder

A

failure to conform to social norms with respect to the law
more common in men
deception
impulsiveness
irritability and aggressiveness
reckless disregard for safety of self or others
consistent irresponsibility - failure to sustain work
lack of remorse

194
Q

Describe histrionic personality disorder

A

inappropriate sexual seductiveness
need to be the centre of attention
rapidly shifting and shallow expression of emotions
suggestibility
physical appearance to seen attention from others

195
Q

describe narcissistic personality disorder

A

grandiose sense of self importance
preoccupation with fantasies of unlimited sucess
sense of entitlement
taking advantage of others
lack of empathy
chronic envy

196
Q

describe avoidant personality disorder

A

avoidance of occupational activities which involve significant interpesonal contact due to fears of criticism or rejection
preocccupied with ideas that they are being criticised or rejected in social situations

3A (42 decks)

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