Psychiatry Flashcards
1
Q
- A 36-year-old presents with a 16-year history of
schizophrenia and alcohol use disorder. Medication
was recently changed from haloperidol to aripiprazole
because of gynecomastia and sexual dysfunction.
Today, the patient is pacing in your office and
seems anxious and agitated. The patient has not
been sleeping well and feels uncomfortable in their
skin. Which medication would be most appropriate
to help relieve this patient’s symptoms?
A. Benztropine.
B. Dantrolene.
C. Lorazepam.
D. Propranolol.
A
- Answer: D
The patient’s symptoms most closely resemble akathisia.
The treatment of choice in this case is a lipophilic
β-blocker such as propranolol (Answer D is correct).
Benztropine is an anticholinergic agent that can be used
for other movement disorders such as dystonias or parkinsonian
symptoms, but it is not effective for akathisia
(Answer A is incorrect). Benzodiazepines are effective
for akathisia, but they are not the best choice, given this
patient’s history of alcohol use disorder (Answer C is
incorrect). Dantrolene, a skeletal muscle relaxant, is
used for NMS (Answer B is incorrect).
2
Q
- A 52-year-old (current BMI 35 kg/m2) with schizophrenia
presents for a routine follow-up. Abnormal,
uncontrollable repetitive chewing-type movements
in their jaw exist. These movements are bothersome
and interfere with eating ability. The patient
stays home because of shame about being seen in
public. Medication history includes perphenazine
for the past 8 years with good control of symptoms.
The patient is able to live independently and care
for themselves. Therapeutic trials of aripiprazole,
ziprasidone, and haloperidol have yielded subtherapeutic
results. A 22.7-kg (50 lb) weight gain and
development of type 2 diabetes occurred while taking
olanzapine. The diabetes resolved off olanzapine.
Which would be the best treatment?
A. Add benztropine.
B. Add lorazepam.
C. Change to quetiapine.
D. Add valbenazine.
A
- Answer: D
This patient has tardive dyskinesia, which involves
abnormal, repetitive, involuntary movements.
Involvement of the facial muscles, including the jaw, is
common. Until recently, very little treatment was available
for tardive dyskinesia. In patients with new-onset,
mild tardive dyskinesia, discontinuing the suspected
antipsychotic or changing to an agent with less likelihood
of causing tardive dyskinesia was an option.
Of the antipsychotics, clozapine is considered least
likely to cause tardive dyskinesia and is thus an agent
of choice in patients who develop tardive dyskinesia.
Clozapine is also the agent of choice in patients who do
not respond to at least two trials of other antipsychotics,
including both FGAs and SGAs. This patient’s condition
is stable on the current regimen (perphenazine),
but the patient has not responded to or has not tolerated
several other antipsychotics. The patient also
developed diabetes while taking olanzapine, which is
closely related to clozapine. For this reason, changing
to clozapine would not be best (Answer C is incorrect).
Treatments for other forms of EPS, including
benztropine and lorazepam, are ineffective for tardive
dyskinesias (Answers A and B are incorrect). On April
11, 2017, the FDA approved valbenazine for the treatment
of tardive dyskinesia. In a systematic review of its
effects, valbenazine had a number needed to treat of 4
to reduce the Abnormal Involuntary Movement Scale
by 50% or more, with a number needed to harm (somnolence)
of 15. In this patient, who is responding well to
the current antipsychotic treatment, valbenazine would
be the best choice (Answer D is correct).
3
Q
- A 67-year-old is admitted for new-onset tonic-
clonic seizures. Medical history is negative for
seizure disorders but positive for prediabetes and
schizophrenia. The patient has long-term, stable
schizophrenia controlled with clozapine 900 mg
daily. Additional medications include diphenhydramine
50 mg at bedtime, metformin 1000 mg twice
daily, and bupropion extended release (ER) 300
mg daily (for 2 months). Social history is negative
for alcohol and illicit drug use but positive for a
25 pack-year tobacco history, which was stopped
2 weeks ago. Which medication is most likely
responsible for the seizures?
A. Bupropion.
B. Clozapine.
C. Diphenhydramine.
D. Metformin.
A
- Answer: B
Clozapine is metabolized by 1A2, an enzyme that is
induced by smoking. Smoking cessation can reverse
this induction and cause supratherapeutic concentrations
of clozapine, resulting in dose-dependent seizures
(Answer B is correct). Although bupropion can also
cause seizures, the patient has been stable on this dose
for 1 month (Answer A is incorrect). Neither diphenhydramine
nor metformin is associated with druginduced
seizures at the current doses (Answers C and
D are incorrect).
4
Q
- A 25-year-old presents to your practice with a
depressed mood that has worsened during the past
few weeks. The patient finds it difficult to get out of
bed in the morning. When not sleeping, the patient
is eating. Weight has increased by 4.5 kg (10 lb) in
the past month. They are worried about their job
and do not feel that they are “pulling [their] weight,”
even though they recently received a glowing evaluation.
They have passive thoughts of harming
themselves but no definite plan. Medical history
includes anxiety, gastroesophageal reflux disease,
and hypothyroidism (thyroid-stimulating hormone
[TSH] within normal limits). Current medications
include levothyroxine 100 mcg daily, lansoprazole
30 mg every morning, and alprazolam 0.5 mg three
times daily for anxiety. Which medication would
best treat the current symptoms?
A. Desipramine.
B. Fluoxetine.
C. Mirtazapine.
D. Paroxetine.
A
- Answer: B
Of the agents listed, mirtazapine and the SSRIs fluoxetine
and paroxetine are considered first line.
Fluoxetine’s adverse effect profile most closely counteracts
the patient’s symptoms. Fluoxetine is activating
and can improve this patient’s ability to get out of bed.
This patient also has anxiety, and fluoxetine could concomitantly
relieve the symptoms of anxiety and allow
for discontinuation of the benzodiazepine (Answer B
is correct). Paroxetine can increase appetite and cause
somnolence (Answer D is incorrect), as can mirtazapine
(Answer C is incorrect). Although the suicidal ideation
is intermittent and passive, desipramine can be
fatal in an overdose situation (Answer A is incorrect).
5
Q
- A 56-year-old presents with a medical history significant
for recurrent major depression and type 2
diabetes with newly diagnosed neuropathy, obesity,
and coronary artery disease. Current medications
include citalopram 40 mg daily, carvedilol 25 mg
twice daily, lisinopril 40 mg daily, and metformin 1000 mg twice daily. The patient is tearful during
the appointment and continues to have symptoms
of depression despite initial improvement with citalopram.
The patient wants to change antidepressants.
Which would be most beneficial?
A. Bupropion.
B. Duloxetine.
C. Nortriptyline.
D. Sertraline.
A
- Answer: B
Duloxetine is the best choice because it is also indicated
for diabetic neuropathy (Answer B is correct).
Although nortriptyline is effective for neuropathy, it is
not a good choice in a patient with cardiovascular disease.
Nortriptyline can also cause weight gain (Answer
C is incorrect). Although bupropion is either weight
neutral or can lead to some weight loss, data are not
strong for its use in neuropathy (Answer A is incorrect).
Sertraline would be safe in this patient and could be
used as an alternative to citalopram, but it is not effective
for neuropathy (Answer D is incorrect).
6
Q
- A 45-year-old presents with agitation and diaphoresis
and an oral temperature of 38.5°C (101.3°F).
Their right eyelid began twitching about an hour
ago, and it will not stop. Cold symptoms developed
2 days ago, and the patient began taking
dextromethorphan and pseudoephedrine aroundthe-
clock. Medical history includes depression,
hypertension, and dyslipidemia. Current medications
include cetirizine 10 mg at bedtime, paroxetine
40 mg at bedtime, diltiazem extended release
(XR) 240 mg daily, and rosuvastatin 10 mg daily.
Which combination of medications is most likely
contributing to the current symptoms?
A. Cetirizine and paroxetine.
B. Dextromethorphan and pseudoephedrine.
C. Diltiazem and pseudoephedrine.
D. Paroxetine and dextromethorphan
A
- Answer: D
This patient has serotonin syndrome (myoclonus, agitation,
diaphoresis). The symptoms are probably caused
by adding dextromethorphan to paroxetine. In addition
to the serotonergic activity of both agents, paroxetine
inhibits 2D6, which is responsible for metabolizing
dextromethorphan. This further increases the serotonergic
activity (Answer D is correct). None of the other choices is a combination of serotonergic agents, nor do
they interact in a fashion that would increase serotonergic
activity (Answers A–C are incorrect).
7
Q
- A 31-year-old presents with a 5-year history of type
I bipolar disorder, which is treated with lithium
300 mg twice daily. The patient has been adherent
to treatment. A lithium serum concentration,
obtained yesterday before the morning lithium
dose, is 1.0 mEq/L. There have been no manic
symptoms for the past few years. Current admission
is for a suicide attempt using acetaminophen.
For the past few weeks, they have lost interest in
their job and isolated themselves from other people.
Which medication would best help the acute
symptoms?
A. Aripiprazole.
B. Lamotrigine.
C. Quetiapine.
D. Venlafaxine
A
- Answer: C
This patient is having an acute depressive episode.
The patient has taken lithium for 5 years, which is
long enough to derive any antidepressant effects. The
lithium concentration is also within therapeutic range.
Quetiapine is FDA indicated for depression associated
with bipolar disorder (Answer C is correct). Lithium’s
onset of action is more rapid than that of lamotrigine,
which requires a slow titration to reach therapeutic
doses (Answer B is incorrect). Unlike data for aripiprazole
in unipolar depression, data analyses for aripiprazole
suggest it is not effective for bipolar depression
(Answer A is incorrect). The efficacy of antidepressants
in treating type I bipolar disorder is questionable, and
treatment with an SNRI could lead to a switch to mania
(Answer D is incorrect).
8
Q
- A 28-year-old woman (height 61 inches, weight
74.8 kg, up from 68 kg 2 months ago) presents with
a history of type I bipolar disorder. She has taken
lithium 450 mg twice daily for the past 6 months.
Her last lithium serum concentration (3 months
ago) was 0.7 mEq/L. She presents today for an
annual examination. Her laboratory test results
include sodium 138 mEq/L, potassium 4.7 mEq/L,
serum creatinine 0.9 mg/dL, glucose 124 mg/dL,
and TSH 24 mIU/mL. Additional medications
include olanzapine 10 mg at bedtime (for 1 year),
ethinyl estradiol/drospirenone daily, and a multivitamin.
Which laboratory finding is most closely
associated with her current medication regimen?
A. Glucose.
B. SCr.
C. Na.
D. TSH.
A
- Answer: D
This patient has hypothyroidism, as indicated by the
increased TSH concentrations. The hypothyroidism was
probably induced by lithium (Answer D is correct). The
glucose is likely elevated secondary to lithium-induced
hypothyroidism and is not directly related to lithium
therapy (Answer A is incorrect). Even though lithium
can “look like” sodium to the body, lithium does not
commonly affect sodium concentrations. This patient’s
sodium concentrations are within the normal range
(Answer C is incorrect). Although lithium can impair
renal function, this patient’s serum creatinine concentration
is within the normal range (Answer B is incorrect).
9
Q
- A 43-year-old presents with right upper quadrant
abdominal pain with rebound tenderness, nausea,
and vomiting. Medical history is significant for rapid-
cycling bipolar disorder, hypertension, obesity,
and asthma. Current medications include divalproex
sodium 500 mg twice daily, lamotrigine 150
mg twice daily, aripiprazole 30 mg daily, ramipril
10 mg daily, albuterol hydrofluoroalkane (HFA) 2
puffs every 6 hours, and fluticasone/salmeterol dry
powder inhaler 250/50 mcg twice daily. A prednisone
taper was initiated 3 days ago for an asthma
exacerbation. Laboratory test results include
sodium 141 mEq/L, potassium 3.3 mEq/L, chloride
95 mEq/L, carbon dioxide 26 mmol/L, SCr 1.0 mg/
dL, glucose 72 mg/dL, total cholesterol 165 mg/dL,
triglycerides 188 mg/dL, aspartate aminotransferase
(AST) 27 U/L, alanine aminotransferase (ALT)
21 U/L, amylase 456 U/L, lipase 387 U/L, and valproic
acid trough concentration 56 mg/dL. Which
medication is most likely to be impacted with her
current medication regimen?
A. Aripiprazole.
B. Divalproex sodium.
C. Lamotrigine.
D. Prednisone.
A
- Answer: B
This patient’s presentation and laboratory results are
consistent with acute pancreatitis. Although the incidence
of pancreatitis is rare, divalproex can cause this
condition. Patients who develop pancreatitis while
taking divalproex that resolves when the patient is no
longer taking the agent should not be rechallenged
(Answer B is correct). Neither aripiprazole nor lamotrigine
is associated with pancreatitis (Answers A and C
are incorrect). This patient’s lamotrigine dose should be
lowered to prevent Stevens-Johnson syndrome. Despite
lamotrigine’s temporal relationship with prednisone,
it is probably not contributing to the current clinical
picture (Answer D is incorrect).
10
Q
- A 20-year-old presents to the emergency department
after experiencing trembling, sweating,
chest pain, and shortness of breath accompanied
by intense fear. A myocardial infarction has been
ruled out. The patient is diagnosed with panic disorder.
In addition to a medication for acute symptoms,
which medication would provide the best
long-term control?
A. Alprazolam.
B. Buspirone.
C. Hydroxyzine.
D. Paroxetine.
A
- Answer: D
This patient has panic disorder. Benzodiazepines more
rapidly treat the acute physical symptoms and fear that
occur with panic disorder, but they are not the agents
of choice for long-term symptom control (Answer A is
incorrect). Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors such
as paroxetine are first line for preventing panic attacks.
Although they take time to achieve full efficacy, they
are the most effective for maintenance control of symptoms
(Answer D is correct). Buspirone is not effective
acutely for panic attacks (Answer B is incorrect).
Hydroxyzine might offer some sedation, but it would
not treat the underlying anxiety disorder (Answer C is
incorrect).
11
Q
- A 55-year-old woman presents with uncontrolled
generalized anxiety disorder (GAD). Concomitant
medical conditions include a history of breast
cancer, dyslipidemia, osteoarthritis, vasomotor
symptoms, and osteopenia. She takes tamoxifen,
simvastatin, ibuprofen, lorazepam, and alendronate.
Her physician would like her to have better
control of her anxiety symptoms. He would also
like to taper off lorazepam. Her GAD has not been
controlled with paroxetine, sertraline, or duloxetine.
Which agent would be best?
A. Bupropion.
B. Fluoxetine.
C. Pregabalin.
D. Venlafaxine.
A
- Answer: C
Although SSRIs and SNRIs are the first-line treatment
for GAD, the patient has not responded to several
antidepressants. Although it does not carry an FDA
indication, pregabalin is also effective against GAD.
Several guidelines list it as first- or second-line agent.
Pregabalin is similar to antidepressants and benzodiazepines,
so it might be a good choice in this patient
(Answer C is correct). Venlafaxine has proven efficacy
for GAD, but given this patient’s lack of response to
other antidepressants, it might be suboptimal compared
with pregabalin (Answer D is incorrect). Fluoxetine is
effective for GAD but is a strong inhibitor of 2D6, which
would decrease the efficacy of tamoxifen (Answer B is
incorrect). Bupropion is also an inhibitor of 2D6 and is
ineffective against most anxiety disorders (Answer A
is incorrect).
12
Q
- A 74-year-old has difficulty getting to sleep. Once
asleep, rest is comfortable throughout the night.
The patient has struggled with keeping a consistent
bedtime for the past few months. There are
no identifiable contributing factors. Concomitant
medical conditions include hypertension, arthritis,
and mild cognitive impairment. Diphenhydramine
helped for only a few nights and “made me loopy.”
They would like a medication with the least risk of
hangover effect. Which medication is best?
A. Eszopiclone.
B. Ramelteon.
C. Suvorexant.
D. Zolpidem.
A
- Answer: B
This patient primarily has difficulty with sleep onset
and would benefit from an agent that decreases sleep
latency and does not prolong sleep. Ramelteon is the
only listed agent that produces these effects. Older
adults can have difficulty with circadian rhythm, which
a melatonin analog may help regulate. Ramelteon is
also indicated for chronic insomnia if needed for a prolonged
period (Answer B is correct). Although eszopiclone
decreases time to sleep, its longer half-life may
result in hangover effects (Answer A is incorrect).
Suvorexant also treats sleep maintenance, but it can
also cause a hangover effect (Answer C is incorrect).
Zolpidem received recent labeling changes for reduced
doses and has reduced metabolism in older adults
(Answer D is incorrect).
13
Q
- A 23-year-old has a history of heroin addiction and
has successfully been maintained on methadone
40 mg daily for 1 year. The patient would like an
option that does not require a visit to a daily opioid
treatment program to get their methadone dose.
The patient is taking no other medications or substances
of abuse. Which treatment regimen is most
appropriate?
A. Initiate supervised buprenorphine/naloxone.
B. Change to buprenorphine × 2 days; then take
buprenorphine/naloxone.
C. Change to naltrexone.
D. Taper to methadone 30 mg; then change to
buprenorphine.
A
- Answer: D
To avoid withdrawal symptoms, patients taking
long-acting opioids should have doses tapered to the
equivalent of methadone 30 mg/day or less before
being changed to a buprenorphine regimen (Answer
D is correct). Initiating a patient on buprenorphine at
higher methadone doses could precipitate withdrawal
because of the higher binding affinity of buprenorphine
for the mu-opioid receptor with less activity and the
added antagonism at the kappa receptor (Answer B is
incorrect). Patients taking long-acting opioids such as
methadone should be changed to buprenorphine monotherapy
before being advanced to buprenorphine/naloxone
(Answer A is incorrect). Naltrexone monotherapy
is inappropriate because it can precipitate withdrawal
(Answer C is incorrect).
14
Q
- A 55-year-old has a 30-year history of alcohol
dependence. Daily intake is 1 pint of vodka.
Several quit attempts have been unsuccessful.
They recently reconciled with their estranged son
and want to be sober so that they can be present
in their son’s life. Medical history includes heroin
use, depression, and posttraumatic stress disorder
(PTSD). Concomitant medications include methadone
maintenance (which they wish to continue)
and sertraline (currently nonadherent). Liver function
test results include AST 143 U/L, ALT 74 U/L,
albumin 4.0 g/dL, alkaline phosphatase 75 U/L,
total bilirubin 0.3 mg/dL, prothrombin time 15.1
seconds, international normalized ratio (INR) 0.9,
platelet count 370,000/mm3, and creatinine clearance
40 mL/minute/1.73 m2. After alcohol detoxification,
which maintenance treatment is most
appropriate?
A. Acamprosate 333 mg three times daily.
B. Chlordiazepoxide 25 mg four times daily.
C. Disulfiram 500 mg daily.
D. Naltrexone 50 mg daily.
A
- Answer: A
This patient has alcoholic hepatitis, as indicated by
the AST and ALT values. Presumably, these would
improve with abstinence. Liver function is intact, as
evidenced by albumin, prothrombin time, and platelet
values. Naltrexone might be indicated in this patient,
but opioids (methadone) are concomitantly present. Use
of naltrexone in patients on methadone maintenance
would precipitate withdrawal (Answer D is incorrect),
though it could be considered once liver function
tests correct. Disulfiram should be used with caution
in patients with active liver disease. Disulfiram also
requires a strong commitment on the patient’s part to
abstain from drinking and may be less effective. This
patient has a history of several failed attempts (Answer
C is incorrect). Chlordiazepoxide is used during acute
alcohol detoxification but plays no role in maintenance
therapy (Answer B is incorrect). The acamprosate dose
should be reduced to 333 mg orally three times daily for
a CrCl of 30–50 mL/minute/1.73 m2 and is thus the most
appropriate choice in this patient (Answer A is correct).
15
Q
- A 44-year-old is preparing to be discharged from
the hospital after a myocardial infarction. They
have a 25 pack-year history of smoking cigarettes
and currently smokes 1½ packs/day. Two unsuccessful
quit attempts exist, including quitting
“cold turkey” the first time about 5 years ago.
Smoking resumed 6 months later after a job loss.
Another attempt occurred 6 months ago using the 2-mg strength of nicotine gum. Seven pieces
were chewed daily in an effort to save money. The
patient has just been given a diagnosis of depression.
Which regimen would be best?
A. Bupropion suspended release (SR).
B. Nicotine gum.
C. Nicotine patch.
D. Varenicline.
A
- Answer: A
This patient’s previous quit attempt with nicotine gum
was probably unsuccessful because the gum strength
(2 mg) and frequency of use (fewer than 9 pieces/day)
were too low to manage the nicotine cravings. Thus, the
previous use of nicotine gum is not a true treatment failure.
The two cardinal symptoms suggestive of depression
(sad affect and anhedonia) are present, making
bupropion a reasonable choice (Answer A is correct).
The myocardial infarction is not a contraindication to the use of nicotine products; thus, nicotine gum could
be added to bupropion if monotherapy fails (Answers
B and C are incorrect). Coronary artery disease is not
a contraindication to varenicline therapy, but given this
patient’s likely concomitant depression, bupropion is a
better fit (Answer D is incorrect).
