Pharmacokinetics: A Refresher Flashcards

1
Q
  1. J.H., a 65-year-old woman (weight 65 kg), was
    recently initiated on tobramycin and piperacillin/
    tazobactam for the treatment of hospital-acquired
    pneumonia.Afterthefirsttobramycindoseof120mg
    (infused from noon to 1:00 p.m.), serum tobramycin
    concentrations are obtained. They are 4.4 mg/L at
    3:00 p.m. and 1.2 mg/L at 7:00 p.m. Which is the
    best assessment regarding the calculation of tobra-
    mycin pharmacokinetic parameters in this patient?
    A. Data are sufficient to determine the half-life
    but not the volume of distribution (Vd).
    B. Data are sufficient to determine both the half-
    life and the Vd.
    C. Data are insufficient to determine either the
    half-life or the Vd.
    D. Data are sufficient to determine the Vd but not
    the half-life.
A
  1. Answer: B
    With two concentrations, data are sufficient to calculate
    an elimination rate constant and, therefore, a half-life
    (Answers C and D are incorrect; Answer B is correct).
    In addition, the Vd can be calculated by back extrap-
    olation to the Cmax and use of appropriate equations
    (because this was the first dose, and therefore it is
    known that the tobramycin concentration was 0 mg/L
    before the dose was given) (Answer A is incorrect and
    Answer B is correct).
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2
Q
  1. P.L. is a 60-year-old woman (60 kg) recently initi-
    ated on gentamicin and clindamycin. After the first
    gentamicin dose of 110 mg (infused from 6:00 p.m.
    to 6:30 p.m.), serum gentamicin concentrations
    are obtained. They are 3.6 mg/L at 7:30 p.m. and
    0.9 mg/L at 11:30 p.m. Which is the best assess-
    ment of this patient’s gentamicin pharmacokinetic
    parameters?
    A. The half-life is about 2 hours.
    B. The half-life is about 3 hours.
    C. The maximum concentration (Cmax) is about
    3.8 mg/L.
    D. The Vd is about 11.6 L.
A
  1. Answer: A
    The elimination rate constant equals (ln 3.6 mg/L
    − ln 0.9 mg/L)/4 hours = 0.35/hour. The half-life is
    0.693/0.35 = 2 hours. The concentration at the end of
    the infusion equals 3.6 mg/L/e – (0.35 * 1) = 5.1 mg/L.
    The patient’s Vd = dose/change in concentration, or
    110 mg/5.1 mg/L = 21.5 L (Answer A is correct;
    Answers B, C, and D are all incorrect)
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3
Q
  1. R.O. is a 74-year-old woman initiated on gentamicin
    100 mg intravenously every 24 hours for pyelone-
    phritis. On admission, her serum creatinine (SCr)
    is 1.8 mg/dL. She has heart failure and is fluid over-
    loaded because of her diminished renal function,
    and she is nonadherent to her angiotensin-converting
    enzyme inhibitor and diuretic. A few days into
    her hospitalization, her SCr is down to 1.1 mg/dL,
    and she is reinitiated on furosemide and enalapril.
    Which most likely happened to the gentamicin
    half-life in R.O. during her hospitalization?
    A. Her clearance increased, which increased her
    Vd and decreased her half-life.
    B. Her clearance increased, which increased her
    elimination rate constant and decreased her
    half-life.
    C. Her Vd decreased, which increased her clear-
    ance and decreased her half-life.
    D. Her Vd decreased, which increased her elimi-
    nation rate constant and increased her half-life.
A
  1. Answer: B
    Her clearance increased because of the improvement
    in renal function, which increased her elimination rate
    constant and decreased her half-life (Answer B is cor-
    rect). The Vd would not be altered by changes in clear-
    ance (they are independent) (Answer A is incorrect).
    With the diuresis and angiotensin-converting enzyme
    inhibitor, her Vd probably decreased, but clearance
    would not be altered by changes in Vd (they are inde-
    pendent) (Answer C is incorrect). In addition, if her Vd
    decreased, her half-life would decrease, not increase
    (Answer D is incorrect).
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4
Q
  1. A patient receives vancomycin 1000 mg intrave-
    nously every 24 hours and has a trough concentra-
    tion, obtained 30 minutes before the next dose, of
    6 mg/L, with an estimated vancomycin 24-hour
    AUC of 210 mg * hour/L. Which regimen is best
    for this patient if the goal AUC/MIC is 400–600
    (assuming an MIC of 1 mg/L)?
    A. Maintain the dosage at 1000 mg intravenously
    every 24 hours.
    B. Lower the dosage to 500 mg but keep the inter-
    val at every 24 hours.
    C. Keep the dosage at 1000 mg but shorten the
    interval to every 12 hours.
    D. Lower the dosage to 500 mg and shorten the
    interval to every 12 hours.
A
  1. Answer: C
    Because the trough and AUC/MIC are too low, the inter-
    val will have to be shortened to increase the concentra-
    tion (Answers A and B are incorrect). Maintaining the
    total daily dose will not increase the AUC/MIC to the
    appropriate range (Answer D is incorrect). Vancomycin
    largely has linear PK. In the absence of changes to clear-
    ance and volume, doubling the dose in a 24-hour period
    will double the exposure (AUC). Therefore, increasing
    from 1000 mg daily to 1000 mg every 12 hours will
    increase the AUC/MIC from 210 to 420 (Answer C is
    correct).
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5
Q
  1. R.K., a 39-year-old man who is HIV positive,
    receives a diagnosis of cryptococcal meningitis
    and begins taking amphotericin B and flucytosine. You want to keep flucytosine peak concentrations
    at 50–100 mg/L. Assuming a steady-state trough
    concentration of 25 mg/L, dosing every 6 hours,
    and 100% bioavailability, which is the best dosage
    to achieve a peak concentration within the desired
    range (flucytosine volume of distribution of 0.7 L/
    kg and half-life of 3 hours)?
    A. 12.5 mg/kg.
    B. 37.5 mg/kg.
    C. 75 mg/kg.
    D. 150 mg/kg.
A
  1. Answer: B
    To achieve flucytosine peak concentrations of 50–100
    mg/L. (assuming a trough concentration of 25 mg/L.,
    dosing every 6 hours, and 100% bioavailability; flucy-
    tosine volume of distribution of 0.7 L/kg; half-life of
    3 hours), the concentration must be changed by 25–75
    mg/L. Using the equation ΔCp = dose/V, a dosage of
    12.5 mg/kg would increase the concentration by only
    17.8 mg/L. A dosage of 75 mg/kg would increase the
    concentration by 107 mg/L., whereas a dosage of
    150 mg/kg would increase the concentration by 214
    mg/L. The correct dosage is 37.5 mg/kg because it would
    increase the concentration by 53.6 mg/L. (Answer B is
    correct; Answers A, C, and D are all incorrect).
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6
Q
  1. L.R. is a 49-year-old patient with diabetes mellitus
    and renal failure on hemodialysis. He was recently
    in a car accident and sustained a head trauma. He
    currently receives phenytoin 100 mg intravenously
    three times a day, and his most recent concentra-
    tion was 5.6 mg/L. You are asked to suggest a new
    dosage to achieve a concentration within the ther-
    apeutic range. Laboratory results include sodium
    145 mEq/L, potassium 3.9 mEq/L, chloride 101
    mEq/L, carbon dioxide 26 mEq/L, blood urea
    nitrogen (BUN) 95 mg/dL, SCr 5.4 mg/dL, glucose
    230 mg/dL, and albumin (Alb) 2.8 g/dL. Which is
    the best recommendation?
    A. Increase the dosage to 200 mg intravenously
    three times a day.
    B. Increase the dosage to 200 mg intravenously
    two times a day.
    C. Decrease the dosage to 100 mg intravenously
    two times a day.
    D. Keep the dosage the same.
A
  1. Answer: D
    Because of the patient’s renal failure and low Alb, the
    total concentration must be corrected. The patient’s cor-
    rected phenytoin concentration is 14.9 mg/L (Cp = 5.6/
    {[0.48 x 0.9 x (2.8/4.4)] + 0.1} = 14.9 mg/L). Therefore,
    no changes should be made to the dosage (Answer D is
    correct; Answers A, B, and C are all incorrect).
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7
Q
  1. You are asked how the fluorescence polariza-
    tion immunoassay (TDx) and enzyme multiplied
    immunoassay technique (EMIT) assays compare
    with each other. Which statement is most accurate?
    A. Although both are immunoassays, one uses
    antibodies to bind the molecule of interest,
    whereas the other uses antigens.
    B. Although both are immunoassays, one uses an
    enzyme label, whereas the other uses a radio-
    isotope label.
    C. Although both are immunoassays, one uses an
    enzyme label, whereas the other uses a fluo-
    rescent label.
    D. They are both names for the same assay
    technique.
A
  1. Answer: C
    Both of these are immunoassays but they are different
    (Answer D is incorrect). Because they are both immu-
    noassays, they both use antibodies to bind the molecule
    of interest (Answer A is incorrect). A brand name for
    the Abbott fluorescence polarization immunoassay is
    TDx, which uses a fluorescent label. The term EMIT
    stands for enzyme multiplied immunoassay technique,
    which is an immunoassay that uses an enzyme label
    (Answer C is correct). Neither of them use radioiso-
    topes (Answer B is incorrect).
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8
Q
  1. An older adult is seen in the morning medicine
    clinic for a routine follow-up. Medication history
    includes digoxin 0.25 mg/day by mouth, furose-
    mide 40 mg/day by mouth, and potassium chloride
    10 mEq/day by mouth. All doses were last taken
    at 8:00 a.m. today at home. The patient has vague
    complaints of stomach upset, which began 2 days
    ago, but is otherwise in no apparent distress. A
    serum digoxin concentration obtained today at
    10:00 a.m. is 2.5 mcg/L. Which statement best
    describes what should be done next?
    A. Admit the patient for administration of digoxin
    Fab.
    B. Tell the patient to skip tomorrow’s dose of
    digoxin and begin 0.125 mg/day by mouth.
    C. Administer a dose of activated charcoal.
    D. Do nothing today with the digoxin.
A
  1. Answer: D
    The digoxin concentration was obtained too close to the
    8:00 a.m. dose. The digoxin had not yet had a chance
    to complete its distribution phase. Once distribution
    is complete (generally 6–12 hours after the dose), the
    concentration will be lower and probably within the
    therapeutic range (Answer D is correct). Therefore,
    there is no need for the digoxin antibody (Answer A is
    incorrect), activated charcoal (Answer C is incorrect),
    or lowering of the dosage (Answer B is incorrect).
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9
Q
  1. A research group is analyzing the relationship
    between various independent patient demograph-
    ics (e.g., age, height, weight, albumin, creatinine
    clearance [CrCl]) and phenytoin pharmacokinetics.
    Which is the best statistical test to use in assessing
    the relationship?
    A. One-way analysis of variance.
    B. Analysis of covariance.
    C. Multiple regression.
    D. Spearman rank correlation.
A
  1. Answer: C
    The correct statistical test is multiple regression.
    Multiple regression is used to describe the relationship
    between a dependent variable and two or more inde-
    pendent variables when both the dependent and inde-
    pendent variables are numeric (Answer C is correct).
    Analysis of variance is used to describe the relationship
    between a dependent variable and two or more indepen-
    dent variables when the dependent variable is numeric
    and the independent variables are nominal (Answer A
    is incorrect). Likewise, analysis of covariance is used to
    describe the relationship between a dependent variable
    and two or more independent variables when the depen-
    dent variable is numeric and the independent variables
    are nominal with confounding factors (Answer B is
    incorrect). Spearman rank correlation is a nonparamet-
    ric test used to describe the relationship between one
    dependent and one independent variable when the data
    are ordinal or numeric and not normally distributed
    (Answer D is incorrect).
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10
Q
  1. N.T. is a 24-year-old woman receiving valproic acid
    for tonic-clonic seizures. Her most recent trough
    valproic acid concentration was 22 mg/L. Her
    most recent albumin concentration was 4.1 g/dL.
    Given this albumin, which recommendation is best
    regarding her dosage?
    A. Continue with the current dosage; the concen-
    tration is close enough to the therapeutic range.
    B. Assess adherence and increase her dosage; the
    concentration is below the therapeutic range.
    C. Decrease her dosage; the concentration is
    slightly above the therapeutic range.
    D. Assess adherence and then check a free valproic
    acid concentration and adjust accordingly.
A
  1. Answer: B
    Assessing adherence and increasing her dosage is the
    best recommendation, because the concentration is
    below the therapeutic range (Answer B is correct). The
    valproic acid therapeutic range is 50–100 mg/L, and
    she is well below this concentration. Although some
    patients are controlled at lower concentrations, this
    concentration is probably too low (Answer A is incor-
    rect). She definitely does not need a decrease in dosage
    (Answer C is incorrect). Although total valproic acid
    concentrations are affected by changes in Alb, her Alb
    is normal, and obtaining a free concentration is unnec-
    essary (Answer D is incorrect).
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11
Q
  1. N.G. is a 54-year-old woman with a recent head
    injury. She comes to your pharmacy with com-
    plaints about the prescription for acetaminophen
    with codeine you dispensed to her yesterday. She
    says that it does not seem any stronger than when
    she uses acetaminophen alone. On her profile, you
    notice results from pharmacogenomics testing per-
    formed 3 years ago that shows she is a CYP2D6
    poor metabolizer. In addition to acetaminophen
    and codeine, she is receiving aspirin, clopidogrel,
    omeprazole, lisinopril, citalopram, metoprolol
    succinate, docusate, and trazodone. Which is the
    best explanation why N.G. does not seem to benefit
    from codeine?
    A. Omeprazole inhibited CYP2C19, causing less
    codeine activation.
    B. Codeine is not as active in N.G. because of her
    genetic profile.
    C. Codeine is metabolized faster in N.G., leading
    to lower concentrations.
    D. Metoprolol inhibited CYP2C9, causing less
    codeine activation.
A
  1. Answer: B
    Codeine’s activity is due primarily to its metabolism
    to morphine by CYP2D6 after administration. Because
    this patient is a CYP2D6 poor metabolizer, less of
    the codeine will be metabolized to its active metabo-
    lite (Answer B is correct and Answer C is incorrect).
    Omeprazole does inhibit CYP2C19, but this enzyme
    does not metabolize codeine (Answer A is incorrect).
    Metoprolol is a substrate of CYP2D6 but is not an
    inhibitor or inducer of CYP2C9 Answer D is incorrect).
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12
Q
  1. At your hospital you are responsible for making
    dosing adjustments in patients with poor renal
    function. While working with you, a student asks
    why you are using the Cockcroft-Gault method for
    estimating CrCl instead of the newer Modification
    of Diet in Renal Disease (MDRD) or Chronic
    Kidney Disease Epidemiology Collaboration
    (CKD-Epi) equations. Which is the best response
    to provide to this student?
    A. MDRD and CKD-Epi are not as good esti-
    mates of renal function and may lead to inap-
    propriate changes in drug dosing.
    B. MDRD and CKD-Epi were developed in an
    ambulatory care population and cannot be
    used for hospitalized patients.
    C. The Cockcroft-Gault estimate of CrCl has
    units that are different from the glomerular
    filtration rate estimates calculated using the
    MDRD and CKD-Epi equations.
    D. Recommendations for renal dosing adjust-
    ments in package inserts are usually based
    on CrCl estimates using the Cockcroft-Gault
    equation.
A
  1. Answer: D
    The MDRD and CKD-Epi are actually better esti-
    mates of renal function because they directly esti-
    mate GFR instead of CrCl (Answer A is incorrect).
    Although the Cockcroft-Gault equation was developed
    in hospitalized patients and the MDRD and CKD-
    Epi equations were developed in ambulatory patients,
    this does not affect the setting where they can be
    used (Answer B is incorrect). Moreover, although the
    equations do have different units (mL/minute vs. mL/
    minute/1.73 m2
    ), this can easily be corrected by con-
    verting the result of the MDRD or CKD-Epi equation to
    milliliters per minute (Answer C is incorrect). The best
    reason for not using MDRD or CKD-Epi for drug dos-
    ing is that renal dosing adjustment recommendations
    published in package inserts are almost always based
    on CrCl estimates using the Cockcroft-Gault equation
    (Answer D is correct).
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13
Q
  1. An assay used for therapeutic drug monitoring at
    your institution has a low sensitivity and low preci-
    sion. Which is the best statement about the impact
    of this assay on drug monitoring?
    A. The assay may be unable to detect concentra-
    tions that are therapeutic, and it will report
    highly variable values when repeatedly run on
    the same sample.
    B. The assay may be unable to detect concen-
    trations that are therapeutic, and it will con-
    sistently over- or under-measure the true
    concentration.
    C. The assay will be unable to differentiate
    between like substances, and it will con-
    sistently over- or under-measure the true
    concentration.
    D. The assay will be unable to differentiate
    between like substances, and it will report
    highly variable values when repeatedly run on
    the same sample.
A
  1. Answer: A
    Assays with low sensitivity will not be able to detect
    low drug concentrations, which may still be therapeutic
    (Answer A is correct). Assays that cannot differentiate
    between like substances have low specificity (Answers
    C and D are incorrect). Assays that report highly vari-
    able values when repeatedly run on the same sample
    have low precision (Answer A is correct). Assays that
    consistently over- or under-measure the true concentra-
    tion have low accuracy (Answers B and C are incorrect).
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