Neurology

Question 1

1. E.S. is a 25-year-old electrician. He has had several
   episodes of memory lapses. His wife reports
   lip smacking and chewing movements during these
   spells. An electroencephalogram (EEG) reveals
   focal epileptiform spike waves. Which medication
   would be best for E.S.?
   A. Ethosuximide.
   B. Levetiracetam.
   C. Phenobarbital.
   D. Clobazam.

Answer 1

1. Answer: B
   This patient most likely has focal epilepsy, given the
   description of his spells and the EEG. Ethosuximide
   (Answer A) has a very narrow spectrum of generalized
   nonmotor seizures, making it incorrect. Phenobarbital
   (Answer C) has common or severe adverse effects,
   making it less than optimal as initial pharmacotherapy.
   Clobazam (Answer D) is indicated only for Lennox-
   Gastaut syndrome. Levetiracetam (Answer B) is indicated
   for monotherapy for focal seizures and has fewer
   adverse effects than phenobarbital and clobazam.

Question 2

2. B.V. is a 48-year-old woman brought to your ED for
   the treatment of status epilepticus. Her blood glucose
   is 50 mg/dL on fingerstick. Which medication
   would be the best next treatment for B.V.?
   A. Lorazepam.
   B. Dextrose.
   C. Thiamine.
   D. Diazepam

Answer 2

2. Answer: C
   With a blood glucose of less than 60 mg/dL, hypoglycemia
   could be a cause of this patient’s status epilepticus.
   Although lorazepam (Answer A) and diazepam
   (Answer D) are appropriate for treating seizures not
   caused by hypoglycemia, a possible hypoglycemic
   episode must be treated first. Because the patient’s
   nutritional status is unknown, she could be thiamine
   deficient. Administering dextrose (Answer B) in the
   face of thiamine deficiency could precipitate an encephalopathy.
   Thiamine (Answer C) should be administered
   before dextrose

Question 3

3. J.H. is a 42-year-old man with focal-onset seizures
   with loss of awareness for which he was prescribed
   levetiracetam. He comes to the clinic with concerns
   of agitation. He says his wife is also concerned
   because he is very irritable and, at times,
   depressed. Which best assesses J.H.’s condition?
   A. Discontinue levetiracetam; he is having
   adverse effects.
   B. Increase the levetiracetam dose; he is having
   focal seizures.
   C. Continue levetiracetam; it is controlling his
   seizures.
   D. Obtain a levetiracetam serum concentration;
   he is probably supratherapeutic.

Answer 3

3. Answer: A
   Agitation and depression are common adverse effects
   of levetiracetam. Because of the patient’s wife’s concerns
   for his irritability and depression, it is probably
   advisable to discontinue levetiracetam (Answer A) and
   change to a different ASM. Increasing the dose (Answer
   B) could worsen his symptoms, and his symptoms are
   probably not the result of ongoing seizures. Continuing
   levetiracetam (Answer C) might be an alternative, but
   given that he and his spouse have concerns for adverse
   effects, it is a less-than-optimal approach. No clear
   correlation has been established between efficacy or
   toxicity and levetiracetam concentrations (Answer D).
   Therefore, a concentration would not help guide therapeutic
   decisions.

Question 4

Questions 4 and 5 pertain to the following case.
T.O. is a 68-year-old man who suddenly lost consciousness
at home. His partner calls 911, and emergency medical
technicians arrive within 10 minutes. According
to the medical record, he experienced slurred speech
and right arm weakness about 30 minutes before losing
consciousness. He is treated for hypertension.
4. Which test would be best before initiating pharmacotherapy
for T.O.?
A. Cerebral angiogram.
B. CT scan of head.
C. Coagulation panel.
D. Echocardiogram

Answer 4

4. Answer: B
   The most critical test before initiating treatment for
   stroke is head imaging. A CT scan of the head (Answer
   B) allows the clinician to distinguish between an
   ischemic stroke and a hemorrhagic stroke. A cerebral
   angiogram (Answer A) may be helpful later to determine whether there is a lesion in the cerebral vasculature,
   but it is not essential in the acute setting. A
   coagulation panel (Answer C) is not necessary to determine
   whether to initiate alteplase in the acute setting.
   Similarly, an echocardiogram (Answer D) may be useful
   in a patient’s diagnostic workup after a stroke, but it
   is not necessary in the acute care setting.

Question 5

5. T.O. is diagnosed with a major ischemic stroke and
   treated with alteplase. He regains consciousness
   and is transferred to rehabilitation. Which treatment
   would be best for 3 months to prevent another
   stroke?
   A. Aspirin and clopidogrel.
   B. Aspirin and dipyridamole.
   C. Apixaban.
   D. Warfarin.

Answer 5

5. Answer: A
   A combination of aspirin and clopidogrel is indicated
   for 90 days after a major ischemic stroke (Answer A).
   A combination of aspirin and dipyridamole (Answer B)
   is a possible treatment for long-term stroke prophylaxis
   (after the 90-day DAPT with aspirin and clopidogrel).
   Apixaban (Answer C) is only indicated for prophylaxis
   in the setting of atrial fibrillation, which this patient
   does not have. Warfarin (Answer D) is only indicated
   for prophylaxis of stroke in atrial fibrillation or mechanical
   mitral valve replacement.

Question 6

Questions 6 and 7 pertain to the following case.
P.P. is a 75-year-old woman who was diagnosed with
Parkinson disease 8 years ago. During this visit to the
clinic, she notes that her movements are slower and she
feels stiffer. She has also experienced a worsening gait
with two or three falls in the past 6 months. Her writing
has also become small and illegible. She takes carbidopa/
levodopa 25/100 mg 2 tablets four times daily.
6. Which of P.P.’s symptoms would best be controlled
by pharmacotherapy?
A. Gait disturbances.
B. Falls.
C. Handwriting.
D. Rigidity.

Answer 6

6. Answer: D
   Gait disturbances (Answer A), falls (Answer B), and
   handwriting (Answer C) are not improved by use of
   levodopa or a dopamine agonist. Rigidity (Answer D)
   is improved with levodopa or a dopamine agonist.

Question 7

7. P.P. notes that her symptoms seem worse before
   her next dose of carbidopa/levodopa. Which agent
   would best be added at this visit?
   A. Istradefylline.
   B. Entacapone.
   C. Apomorphine.
   D. Quetiapine.

Answer 7

7. Answer: B
   This patient is experiencing wearing-off before the next
   dose. A COMT inhibitor, entacapone (Answer B), slows
   the degradation of dopamine in the synaptic cleft and
   extends the effectiveness of levodopa. Istradefylline
   (Answer A) is adenosine receptor antagonist that may
   be used as an adjunct to carbidopa/levodopa and treats
   off-episodes. Apomorphine (Answer C) is indicated
   for on-off phenomenon but is not indicated for wearing-
   off before the next dose. Quetiapine (Answer D) is
   a preferred antipsychotic to manage hallucinations secondary
   to Parkinson disease itself or adverse effects of
   dopamine agonists.

Question 8

8. W.S. is a 70-year-old man with newly diagnosed
   Parkinson disease who is initiated on carbidopa/
   levodopa. His symptoms are well controlled, but
   he has concerns of nausea and vomiting. Which
   intervention would be best to reduce his nausea
   and vomiting?
   A. Initiate promethazine.
   B. Initiate metoclopramide.
   C. Decrease carbidopa/levodopa.
   D. Initiate trimethobenzamide.

Answer 8

8. Answer: D
   Many medications used for nausea, including metoclopramide
   (Answer B) and promethazine (Answer
   A), are dopamine antagonists and potentially worsen
   nausea and vomiting. Reducing carbidopa/levodopa
   (Answer C) would likely worsen Parkinson symptoms.
   Trimethobenzamide (Answer D) is a selective antagonist for the D2 receptor, making it less likely to
   worsen Parkinson symptoms.

Question 9

Questions 9 and 10 pertain to the following case.
R.M. is a 42-year-old man with headaches, which he
describes as a tight band around his head. The headaches
occur three or four times a week.
9. Which medication would be the best acute treatment
for R.M. to use for his headaches?
A. Naproxen.
B. Sumatriptan.
C. Dihydroergotamine.
D. Lithium.

Answer 9

9. Answer: A
   This patient most likely has tension headaches, given
   his description of the headaches. The most effective
   medication for acute treatment of tension headaches
   is naproxen (Answer A). Sumatriptan (Answer B)
   and dihydroergotamine (Answer C) are indicated for
   acute treatment of migraine-type headaches. Lithium
   (Answer D) is only used to prevent cluster headaches.

Question 10

10. R.M is requesting a preventive medication to help
    reduce his headache frequency. Which agent would
    be best to recommend?
    A. Amitriptyline.
    B. Valproate.
    C. Topiramate.
    D. Frovatriptan

Answer 10

10. Answer: A
    This patient most likely has a tension-type headache.
    Amitriptyline (Answer A) is effective for preventing
    tension-type headaches. Valproate (Answer B) and
    topiramate (Answer C) are not used to prevent tension-
    type headaches. Frovatriptan (Answer D) is only
    indicated for the acute treatment of migraine

Question 11

Questions 11–13 pertain to the following case.
L.M. is a 43-year-old man diagnosed with relapsing-
remitting multiple sclerosis (MS) 2 years ago. He
has taken glatiramer acetate since then. However, his
exacerbations have not discernibly decreased. He has
spasticity in his legs, which has caused several falls
in the past month, and fatigue that worsens as the day
progresses.
11. Which medication would be best for L.M.’s MS?
A. Cyclophosphamide.
B. Methylprednisolone.
C. Azathioprine.
D. Fingolimod.

Answer 11

11. Answer: D
    Fingolimod (Answer D) is the only choice with an FDA
    indication for the treatment of MS. In addition, fingolimod
    has the best clinical trial evidence of efficacy.
    Methylprednisolone (Answer B) is used for acute MS
    exacerbations. Cyclophosphamide (Answer A) and azathioprine
    (Answer C) have been studied in progressive
    forms of MS, but their data are not as robust as those
    for fingolimod.

Question 12

12. Which medication would be best for L.M.’s
    spasticity?
    A. Diazepam.
    B. Baclofen.
    C. Carisoprodol.
    D. Metaxalone.

Answer 12

12. Answer: B
    Treatment of spasticity in MS requires a centrally acting
    agent. Of the choices, only diazepam (Answer A)
    and baclofen (Answer B) are centrally acting. Because
    of the significant fatigue and drowsiness that occur
    with diazepam, baclofen is usually a first-line therapy.
    Carisoprodol (Answer C) and metaxalone (Answer D)
    are indicated for muscle spasms, but not spasticity

Question 13

13. Which medication would be best for L.M.’s fatigue?
    A. Propranolol.
    B. Lamotrigine.
    C. Amantadine.
    D. Ropinirole.

Answer 13

13. Answer: C
    Amantadine (Answer C) is used in MS for fatigue.
    Propranolol (Answer A), lamotrigine (Answer B), and
    ropinirole (Answer D) are not used in MS.

Question 14

Questions 14 and 15 pertain to the following case.
B.T. is a 62-year-old man with obesity (weight 122 kg)
who comes to the clinic with concerns of burning in
the soles of his feet. These symptoms began about 3
months ago. They are worse at night and keep him from
sleeping. On examination, he has decreased sensation
in both feet up to the ankles bilaterally and good
strength throughout his feet and legs. His ankle reflexes
are decreased. He has hypertension treated with lisinopril
10 mg/day.
14. Which most likely caused B.T.’s pain and decreased
sensation?
A. Diabetic neuropathy.
B. Chronic inflammatory demyelinating
polyneuropathy.
C. Entrapped nerve.
D. Genetic neuropathy.

Answer 14

14. Answer: A
    Diabetic neuropathy (Answer A) is the most common
    cause of peripheral neuropathy and may occur even
    before a patient is diagnosed with diabetes. Chronic
    inflammatory demyelinating polyneuropathy (Answer B) and genetic neuropathy (Answer D) are much less
    common, and symptoms are not consistent with this
    presentation. An entrapped nerve (Answer C) would
    typically be unilateral.

Question 15

15. Which treatment would be best for B.T.’s symptoms?
    A. Carbamazepine 600 mg at bedtime.
    B. Lidocaine 5% patch applied to soles of feet at
    bedtime and removed in the morning.
    C. Acetaminophen 325 mg every 4 hours as
    needed.
    D. Valproate 250 mg twice daily.

Answer 15

15. Answer: B
    Carbamazepine (Answer A) and valproate (Answer
    D) are considered third-line medications for diabetic
    neuropathy pain. Acetaminophen (Answer C) would
    unlikely relieve symptoms. Lidocaine (Answer B)
    would be best for initial treatment of the patient’s neuropathic
    pain.

Question 16

Patient Cases
Questions 1–3 pertain to the following case.
T.M. is a 23-year-old woman with newly diagnosed generalized motor myoclonic-type seizures. She is in good
health and takes oral contraceptives.
1. Which is the best medication for T.M.’s seizures?
A. Valproate.
B. Phenytoin.
C. Phenobarbital.
D. Levetiracetam

Answer 16

1. Answer: D
   Generalized motor myoclonic-type seizures can be
   treated in several ways; the best option in this case is
   levetiracetam (Answer D), which is effective for generalized
   motor myoclonic-type epilepsy and has much less
   risk of teratogenic effects. Phenytoin (Answer B) and
   phenobarbital (Answer C) are considered second-line
   treatments for generalized motor myoclonic-type seizures
   and can reduce the effectiveness of oral contraceptives.
   Although valproate (Answer A) is effective
   for generalized motor myoclonic-type seizures, it is
   associated with several teratogenic effects. Because
   this patient is a woman of childbearing potential, it is
   advisable to avoid valproate even though she takes oral
   contraceptives.

Question 17

2. T.M. is concerned about the impact of levetiracetam on her oral contraceptives. Which response is best?
   A. Levetiracetam does not alter the effectiveness of your oral contraceptives.
   B. You should use alternative forms of birth control because levetiracetam decreases oral contraceptive
   effectiveness.
   C. You may have breakthrough bleeding, but the effectiveness of the oral contraceptive is not changed.
   D. Oral contraceptives decrease the effectiveness of levetiracetam, so you need another form of birth control.

Answer 17

2. Answer: A
   Interactions with oral contraceptives are a concern
   with several ASMs. In these cases, alternative forms of
   birth control (Answer B) may be necessary. Decreased
   effectiveness of oral contraceptives may be associated
   with breakthrough bleeding (Answer C). In addition,
   oral contraceptives can alter the effectiveness of ASMs
   (Answer D). However, no evidence supports that levetiracetam
   alters oral contraceptive effectiveness or that
   oral contraceptives change the effectiveness of levetiracetam,
   making Answer A correct.

Question 18

3. Three months later, T.M.’s seizures are reduced in frequency, but continue despite medication adherence and
   maximized dosing. Which would be the best alternative?
   A. Lamotrigine.
   B. Rufinamide.
   C. Cannabidiol.
   D. Valproate

Answer 18

3. Answer: A
   Rufinamide (Answer B) is not first line for treating
   generalized motor myoclonic-type seizures; instead, it
   is indicated for first-line treatment of Lennox-Gastaut
   syndrome. Cannabidiol (Answer C) has only been
   shown effective in Dravet syndrome and Lennox-
   Gastaut syndrome. Valproate (Answer D) should be
   avoided in this patient because of its teratogenic adverse
   effects. Lamotrigine (Answer A) is a reasonable alternative
   that is first line for treating generalized motor
   myoclonic-type seizures and is not associated with an
   increased risk of teratogenic adverse effects; however,
   the potential for reduced oral contraceptive effectiveness
   should be discussed.

Question 19

4. J.G. is a 34-year-old patient who presents to the ED in status epilepticus. All of her laboratory values are normal.
   Which medication is best to use first?
   A. Valproate.
   B. Lorazepam.
   C. Phenytoin.
   D. Phenobarbital.

Answer 19

4. Answer: B
   Lorazepam (Answer B) is the drug of choice for status
   epilepticus. Lorazepam is less lipophilic than diazepam
   (Answer A); therefore, lorazepam does not redistribute from the CNS as quickly. Phenytoin (Answer C) and
   phenobarbital (Answer D) should be held in reserve for
   maintenance therapy or refractory status epilepticus.

Question 20

5. S.R. is a 37-year-old patient who began taking phenytoin 100 mg 3 capsules orally at bedtime 6 months ago. He
   has had several seizures since then, the most recent of which occurred 7 days ago. At that time, his phenytoin
   serum concentration was 8 mcg/mL. The treating physician increased his phenytoin dose to 100 mg 3 capsules
   orally twice daily. Today, which best represents his expected serum concentration?
   A. 10 mcg/mL.
   B. 14 mcg/mL.
   C. 16 mcg/mL.
   D. 24 mcg/mL

Answer 20

5. Answer: D
   Phenytoin has nonlinear pharmacokinetics. A small
   increase in dose may result in a large increase in serum
   concentration. Therefore, without doing any calculations,
   we can surmise that an increase from 300 mg/day
   to 600 mg/day would more than double the serum concentration
   (Answer D). Lower increases (Answers A–C)
   would be unlikely with an increase in dose this large.

Question 21

6. S.S. is a 7-year-old girl. Her teacher contacts the girl’s parents because of concern about the girl’s “daydreaming”
   in class. After an evaluation, S.S. is diagnosed with generalized nonmotor (absence) seizures. Which
   agent is best to treat this type of epilepsy?
   A. Phenytoin.
   B. Valproate.
   C. Carbamazepine.
   D. Ethosuximide.

Answer 21

6. Answer: D
   Phenytoin (Answer A) and carbamazepine (Answer
   C) can increase absence seizure frequency. Valproate
   (Answer B), though an alternative, is less desirable
   because of its adverse effect profile. Ethosuximide
   (Answer D) is useful for absence seizures and had fewer
   adverse effects than valproate in a randomized study.

Question 22

7. J.B. is a 25-year-old man with a history of seizure disorder. He has been treated with carbamazepine for 1 year,
   and his current carbamazepine concentration is 12 mcg/mL. Which adverse effect is J.B. most likely to have
   with carbamazepine at this concentration?
   A. Hepatotoxicity.
   B. Acne.
   C. Gingival hyperplasia.
   D. Diplopia.

Answer 22

7. Answer: D
   Although hepatotoxicity (Answer A) is a possible
   adverse effect of carbamazepine, it is most likely to occur
   within the first few months of starting carbamazepine.
   Acne (Answer B) and gingival hyperplasia (Answer C)
   are adverse effects associated with phenytoin. Diplopia
   (Answer D) is a common adverse effect associated with
   higher concentrations of carbamazepine.

Question 23

8. M.G. has been prescribed levetiracetam. On which adverse effect is it best to counsel M.G.?
   A. Hepatoxicity.
   B. Renal stones.
   C. Depression.
   D. Word-finding difficulties.

Answer 23

8. Answer: C
   Hepatoxicity (Answer A) is associated with several
   ASMs but not with levetiracetam. Alopecia (Answer
   D) is a common adverse effect of valproate. Depression
   (Answer C) and agitation are common adverse effects
   of levetiracetam. Zonisamide is associated with a 1%
   increase in the risk of renal stones (Answer B).

Question 24

Questions 9 and 10 pertain to the following case.
G.Z., a 26-year-old woman, presents with a 6-month history of “spells.” The spells are all the same, and all begin
with a feeling in the abdomen that is difficult for her to describe. This feeling rises toward the head. The patient
believes that she will then lose awareness. After a neurologic workup, she is diagnosed with focal seizures
evolving to a bilateral, convulsive seizure. The neurologist is considering initiating either carbamazepine or
oxcarbazepine.

9. Which is the most accurate comparison of carbamazepine and oxcarbazepine?

A. Oxcarbazepine causes more liver enzyme induction than carbamazepine.
B. Oxcarbazepine does not cause rash.
C. Oxcarbazepine does not cause hyponatremia.
D. Oxcarbazepine does not form an epoxide intermediate in its metabolism.

Answer 24

9. Answer: D
   Carbamazepine forms an active epoxide intermediate
   (carbamazepine-10,11-epoxide), whereas oxcarbazepine
   does not (Answer D). Carbamazepine induces
   more liver enzymes than oxcarbazepine (Answer A).
   However, hyponatremia is more closely associated
   with oxcarbazepine than with carbamazepine (Answer
   C). Both carbamazepine and oxcarbazepine can cause
   allergic rashes (Answer B).

Question 25

10. When you see G.Z. 6 months later for a follow-up, she tells you she is about 6 weeks pregnant. She has had
    no seizures since starting oxcarbazepine. Which strategy is best for G.Z.?
    A. Discontinue her seizure medication immediately.
    B. Change her seizure medication to topiramate.
    C. Continue her seizure medication.
    D. Change her seizure medication to lamotrigine.

Answer 25

10. Answer: C
    Immediate discontinuation of oxcarbazepine (Answer A)
    would likely increase seizures. Topiramate (Answer B) is
    associated with an increased risk of teratogenic adverse
    effects. Lamotrigine (Answer D) is considered safe
    during pregnancy, but changing medications increases
    the risk of seizures. In addition, lamotrigine pharmacokinetics
    change during pregnancy, complicating its management.
    Continuing the patient’s current medication
    (Answer C) is the best approach during pregnancy.

Question 26

Questions 11–15 pertain to the following case.
L.R. is a 78-year-old woman who presents to the ED for symptoms of right-sided paralysis. She states these symptoms
began about 6 hours ago and have not improved. She also has hypertension, breast cancer, diabetes, minimal
cognitive impairment, and osteoarthritis. L.R. is diagnosed with a minor stroke by the neurology team.
11. Which is the most accurate list of L.R.’s risk factors for stroke?
A. Breast cancer, age, osteoarthritis.
B. Sex, diabetes, osteoarthritis.
C. Minimal cognitive impairment, diabetes, age, sex.
D. Age, diabetes, hypertension.

Answer 26

11. Answer: D
    Nonmodifiable risk factors for stroke include age, race,
    and male sex. Somewhat modifiable risk factors include
    hypercholesterolemia and diabetes. Modifiable stroke
    risk factors include hypertension, smoking, and atrial
    fibrillation. Less well-documented risk factors include
    obesity, physical inactivity, alcohol abuse, hyperhomocystinemia,
    hypercoagulability, hormone replacement
    therapy, and oral contraceptives. Minimal cognitive
    impairment (Answer C) and osteoarthritis (Answers A
    and B) are not risk factors for stroke. Answer D is the
    only option that includes only risk factors for stroke.

Question 27

12. Which best describes whether L.R. is a candidate for tissue plasminogen activator (Alteplase) for the treatment
    of stroke?
    A. Yes.
    B. No, because of advanced age.
    C. No, her stroke symptoms began too long ago.
    D. No, her breast cancer is a contraindication for tissue plasminogen activator.

Answer 27

12. Answer: C
    There are many contraindications to administering tissue
    plasminogen activator for stroke, mainly focused on
    bleeding risk. There is no upper limit on age (Answer
    B). Breast cancer (Answer D) is not a contraindication
    for tissue plasminogen activator. The patient’s symptoms
    began 6 hours ago, placing her outside the window
    for alteplase use (Answer C is correct; Answer A
    is incorrect).

Question 28

13. L.R. previously took no home medications. Which is the best treatment at this time for her?

A. Metformin and aspirin.
B. Celecoxib and clopidogrel.
C. Aspirin and clopidogrel.
D. Warfarin.

Answer 28

13. Answer: C
    Warfarin (Answer D) is only indicated for stroke
    prevention with atrial fibrillation. Other than modifying
    a partly modifiable risk factor for stroke, metformin
    (Answer A) has no benefit in preventing stroke.
    Celecoxib (Answer B) also has no benefit in preventing
    stroke and, according to some studies, may increase
    the risk of stroke. Aspirin and clopidogrel (Answer C)
    should be used together for 21 days after a minor acute
    stroke to reduce the risk of another stroke.

Question 29

14. L.R. presents to her community pharmacy to pick up her medication refills (lisinopril, aspirin, clopidogrel,
    atorvastatin) 2 months after her discharge from the hospital. Which best assesses her dual antiplatelet therapy
    (DAPT)?

A. Appropriate, continue for 90 days after stroke.
B. Appropriate, continue as chronic therapy.
C. Inappropriate, single antiplatelet therapy should be initiated for 90 days.
D. Inappropriate, single antiplatelet therapy should be initiated indefinitely.

Answer 29

14. Answer: D
    This patient was diagnosed with a minor stroke,
    according to the neurology team. Dual antiplatelet
    therapy should be initiated within 24 hours of a minor
    stroke and continued for 21 days. After the 21 days of
    DAPT, the patient should be transitioned to single antiplatelet
    therapy, which should be continued indefinitely.
    Answer A is incorrect; DAPT should be continued for
    21 days, not 90 days, after a (minor) stroke. Answer B
    is incorrect; DAPT should not be continued as chronic
    therapy because the patient has been receiving it for
    60 days, which exceeds the 21-day recommendation.
    Single antiplatelet therapy should be continued indefinitely,
    not just for 90 days, making Answer C incorrect
    and Answer D correct.

Question 30

15. L.S. is a 42-year-old woman with a medical history of hypertension, type 2 diabetes, renal failure, and mitral
    valve replacement. She presents to the anticoagulation clinic for her initial visit. Which best reflects her target
    INR?
    A. 1.5.
    B. 2.0.
    C. 2.5.
    D. 3.0.

Answer 30

15. Answer: D
    With a mitral valve replacement, the target INR is 2.5–
    3.5, making 3 (Answer D) an optimal target. An INR of
    1.5 (Answer A) or 2 (Answer B) is too low for a valve
    replacement. An INR of 2.5 (Answer C) is at the bottom
    of the acceptable target range, making it difficult to
    consistently keep her INR in the range.

Question 31

Questions 16 and 17 pertain to the following case.
L.T. takes carbidopa/levodopa 25 mg/100 mg orally four times daily and trihexyphenidyl 2 mg orally three times daily
for Parkinson disease. L.T.’s wife reports that his movements are very slow and that he is having trouble walking.
16. Given these symptoms, which change seems most reasonable?
A. Increase carbidopa/levodopa, discontinue trihexyphenidyl.
B. Continue carbidopa/levodopa, increase trihexyphenidyl.
C. Decrease carbidopa/levodopa, continue trihexyphenidyl.
D. Decrease carbidopa/levodopa, increase trihexyphenidyl

Answer 31

16. Answer: A
    Anticholinergic drugs like trihexyphenidyl only control
    tremor – not other symptoms of Parkinson disease.
    Increasing the trihexyphenidyl dose (Answers B and D)
    would not improve control of his symptoms and would
    increase anticholinergic adverse effects. Decreasing
    the carbidopa/levodopa dose (Answer C) would worsen
    his Parkinson disease symptoms. Increasing the carbidopa/
    levodopa dose and discontinuing trihexyphenidyl
    (Answer A) should improve all of his symptoms and
    reduce any anticholinergic adverse effects.

Question 32

17. Six months later, L.T. returns to the clinic concerned that his carbidopa/levodopa dose is wearing off before
    his next dose is due, because his tremor and slow movements are worse before the next dose of carbidopa/
    levodopa. Which recommendation is best?
    A. Increase the carbidopa/levodopa dose.
    B. Decrease the carbidopa/levodopa dose.
    C. Increase the dosing interval.
    D. Decrease the dosing interval.

Answer 32

17. Answer: D
    Wearing-off phenomenon is the return of Parkinson disease
    symptoms before the next dose. This problem can
    be resolved by administering doses more often (Answer
    D), administering the controlled-release formulation
    of carbidopa/levodopa, or adding a COMT inhibitor.
    Increasing the dosing interval (Answer C) means that
    doses are administered further apart. Increasing the
    dose (Answer A) would not address wearing-off at the
    end of a dosing interval and would place the patient
    at risk of developing dyskinesia. Decreasing the dose
    (Answer B) would cause the patient’s Parkinson symptoms
    to worsen.

Question 33

18. P.J. is a 57-year-old man with an 8-year history of Parkinson disease. His current medications include carbidopa/
    levodopa 50 mg/200 mg orally four times daily, entacapone 200 mg orally four times daily, and amantadine
    100 mg three times daily. He presents to the clinic with concerns of reddish orange urine. He fears he has
    blood in his urine. Which most likely caused this condition?
    A. Carbidopa/levodopa.
    B. Entacapone.
    C. Amantadine.
    D. Hemorrhagic cystitis.

Answer 33

18. Answer: B
    Entacapone (Answer B) can cause a reddish orange
    discoloration of the urine. Amantadine (Answer C) can cause a reddish brown skin discoloration, but not
    changes in the urine. Carbidopa/levodopa (Answer A)
    does not cause changes in the urine. Cystitis (Answer
    D) is a possibility, but entacapone more likely caused
    the change in urine color.

Question 34

19. L.L. is a 47-year-old man with Parkinson disease. He takes carbidopa/levodopa 50 mg/200 mg orally four
    times daily. His wife states that he cannot sit still during the day. He is constantly moving, and she fears his
    disease is worsening. Which is the best therapy for L.L.?
    A. Add ropinirole.
    B. Add selegiline.
    C. Increase the carbidopa/levodopa dose.
    D. Decrease the carbidopa/levodopa dose.

Answer 34

19. Answer: D
    Ropinirole (Answer A) helps with the initial treatment
    of Parkinson disease, but adding it to the patient’s current
    regimen without adjusting the carbidopa/levodopa
    dose would worsen his dyskinesia. Selegiline (Answer
    B) would not address his dyskinesia and could make
    it worse by decreasing the breakdown of levodopa.
    Increasing the carbidopa/levodopa dose (Answer C)
    would make his dyskinesia worse. Decreasing the carbidopa/
    levodopa dose (Answer D) will improve the
    dyskinesia.

Question 35

20. C.A. is a 70-year-old man with tremors in his right hand that have progressively worsened for the past 6
    months. He has difficulty walking. He also has backaches and no longer plays golf. In addition, he is losing his
    sense of taste. His wife notes that he is moving more slowly and that his handwriting has deteriorated. He is
    diagnosed with Parkinson disease. Which is the best treatment for C.A.?
    A. Trihexyphenidyl.
    B. Apomorphine.
    C. Carbidopa/levodopa.
    D. Istradefylline

Answer 35

20. Answer: C
    Trihexyphenidyl (Answer A) is only effective for tremors
    in Parkinson disease and has anticholinergic adverse
    effects. In this patient, it would not treat the other symptoms
    of the disease, and anticholinergic adverse effects
    are not advisable in an older individual. Carbidopa/
    levodopa (Answer C) is efficacious as monotherapy for
    symptomatic Parkinson disease. Istradefylline (Answer
    D) is an adjunct to carbidopa/levodopa. Apomorphine
    (Answer B) is for the acute treatment of off-episodes
    and not clinically useful for symptomatic Parkinson
    disease as monotherapy.

Question 36

21. M.R., a 29-year-old woman, has throbbing right-sided headaches. She experiences nausea, phonophobia, and
    photophobia with these headaches but no aura. She usually has headaches twice a month. She has hypertension
    and morbid obesity. She takes hydrochlorothiazide 25 mg/day orally for hypertension, which is the only
    medication she is taking. Which medication is best for prophylaxis of her headaches?
    A. Propranolol.
    B. Indomethacin.
    C. Topiramate.
    D. Sumatriptan

Answer 36

21. Answer: A
    A β-blocker (Answer A) is a good choice for a patient
    with coexisting hypertension. Indomethacin (Answer
    B) can be used for migraine, but it is held in reserve
    because of serious adverse effects. Although topiramate
    (Answer C) might decrease the patient’s weight,
    it has an increased risk of teratogenic adverse effects.
    Sumatriptan (Answer D) is for the acute treatment of
    migraine headaches, not for prophylaxis.

Question 37

22. S.R. is a 54-year-old businessman with squeezing, band-like headaches that occur three or four times weekly.
    He rates the pain of these headaches as 7/10 and finds acetaminophen, aspirin, ibuprofen, naproxen, ketoprofen,
    and piroxicam only partly effective. He wants to take a prophylactic drug to prevent his headache disorder.
    Which medication would be best for prophylaxis of his headaches?
    A. Propranolol.
    B. Topiramate.
    C. Amitriptyline.
    D. Rizatriptan.

Answer 37

22. Answer: C
    Amitriptyline (Answer C) is effective as prophylaxis
    for tension headaches. Propranolol (Answer A) and
    topiramate (Answer B) are usually used for migraine
    headache prophylaxis. Rizatriptan (Answer D) is an
    acute treatment for migraine headaches

Question 38

23. D.S. is a 49-year-old male computer programmer who describes piercing right-eye pain and lacrimation several
    times a day for 2–3 days in a row. He will have no episodes for 2–3 weeks but will then have recurrent
    episodes. In the office, he receives oxygen by nasal cannula during an episode, and his pain is relieved. Which
    medication would be best for prophylaxis of his headaches?
    A. Atenolol.
    B. Valproate.
    C. Nortriptyline.
    D. Lithium.

Answer 38

23. Answer: D
    Lithium (Answer D) is a prophylactic agent for cluster
    headaches. Atenolol (Answer A) and valproate (Answer
    B) are usually used for migraine headache prophylaxis.
    Nortriptyline (Answer C) is useful for migraine and
    tension headaches.

Question 39

24. M.K. is a 44-year-old woman with right-sided headaches of moderate intensity that are accompanied by severe
    nausea and vomiting. Which medication would be best for M.K.’s migraine headaches?
    A. Almotriptan.
    B. Naratriptan.
    C. Promethazine.
    D. Sumatriptan.

Answer 39

24. Answer: D
    Sumatriptan (Answer D) is available as both an injectable
    and a nasal spray and would be appropriate to use in
    a patient with severe nausea and vomiting. Almotriptan
    (Answer A) and naratriptan (Answer B) only come in
    oral dosage forms and would not be optimal in the face
    of nausea and vomiting. Promethazine (Answer C)
    might reduce nausea and vomiting but would not treat
    the patient’s migraine headache

Question 40

25. T.C. is a 30-year-old woman with migraine headaches. Sumatriptan 100 mg provides immediate relief.
    However, about 2 hours later, her headache symptoms return. Which would be best for her?
    A. Rizatriptan 5 mg.
    B. Frovatriptan 2.5 mg.
    C. Naproxen 250 mg.
    D. Topiramate 25 mg

Answer 40

25. Answer: B
    Topiramate (Answer D) is used as a prophylactic drug
    and not in the acute treatment of a migraine. Naproxen
    (Answer C) would be less likely to relieve her headache
    without being combined with a triptan. Rizatriptan
    (Answer A) has a short half-life, making it less effective
    2 hours later. Frovatriptan (Answer B) has a longer
    half-life, making it more likely to prevent the headache
    from returning 2 hours later.

Question 41

Questions 26–28 pertain to the following case:
S.F. is a 36-year-old woman with a history of MS. This morning, her left arm became progressively weaker over
about 3 hours. She was previously healthy except for a broken radius when she was 13 years old and a case of optic
neuritis when she was 25. Her current medications include metoprolol 100 mg orally twice daily and fluoxetine 10
mg orally daily.
26. Which would be best for treating S.F.’s exacerbation?
A. Interferon beta-1a.
B. Glatiramer acetate.
C. Methylprednisolone.
D. Fingolimod.

Answer 41

26. Answer: C
    Methylprednisolone (Answer C) is the only option used
    for acute exacerbations. Interferon beta-1a (Answer A),
    glatiramer acetate (Answer B), and fingolimod (Answer
    D) are all used as disease-modifying therapies

Question 42

27. Which would be best for S.F. to prevent further exacerbations?
    A. Methylprednisolone.
    B. Baclofen.
    C. Glatiramer acetate.
    D. No treatment.

Answer 42

27. Answer: C
    Glatiramer acetate (Answer C) is an appropriate
    initial choice for disease-modifying therapy.
    Methylprednisolone (Answer A) is only for exacerbations.
    Baclofen (Answer B) is only for spasticity and
    does not have disease-modifying properties. Providing
    no treatment (Answer D) would be unacceptable
    because of the patient’s many episodes of exacerbations.

Question 43

28. S.F. elects to start fingolimod. Which would be best to monitor every 6 months while she is taking fingolimod?
    A. ECG.
    B. Sodium.
    C. Pulmonary function tests.
    D. Renal function tests.

Answer 43

28. Answer: A
    Fingolimod (Answer A) is associated with cardiac
    arrhythmias, and the ECG should be monitored at
    least every 6 months. Sodium (Answer B), pulmonary
    function tests (Answer C), and renal function tests
    (Answer D) do not need to be routinely monitored with
    fingolimod.

Question 44

29. B.B. is a 33-year-old woman with recently diagnosed MS. Her neurologist wants you to discuss with her the
    potential medications to prevent exacerbations. During the discussion, you find that she and her husband are
    planning to have a child in the next few years and that she is frightened of needles. Which would be best for
    B.B.?
    A. Glatiramer acetate.
    B. Mitoxantrone.
    C. Teriflunomide.
    D. Dimethyl fumarate.

Answer 44

29. Answer: D
    Glatiramer (Answer A) is not the best option because
    the patient is frightened of needles and glatiramer is an
    injectable; also, glatiramer should be avoided in pregnancy,
    if possible. Mitoxantrone (Answer B) has significant
    toxicities and is contraindicated in pregnancy.
    Teriflunomide (Answer C) is also contraindicated in
    pregnancy. Dimethyl fumarate (Answer D) is a pregnancy
    category C drug. However, this patient should
    carefully plan her conception and can discontinue the
    medication before pregnancy.

Question 45

Questions 30 and 31 pertain to the following case.
S.B. is a 55-year-old man referred to a neurologist for numbness, burning, and tingling in his feet that have progressively
worsened over the past year. On neurologic examination, he has decreased sensations bilaterally to the
mid-calf. He takes no medications except for nonprescription analgesics as needed for pain. His BMI is 32 kg/m2.

30. Which laboratory test would best determine the cause of S.B.’s neuropathy?
    A. Potassium.
    B. A1C.
    C. Serum creatinine.
    D. WBC.

Answer 45

30. Answer: B
    The most likely cause of peripheral neuropathy in this
    patient is diabetes, even if this was not previously diagnosed.
    Therefore, A1C (Answer B) is the most useful
    laboratory value for determining the potential cause.
    Potassium (Answer A), serum creatinine (Answer C),
    and WBC (Answer D) do not help determine the cause
    of neuropathy.

Question 46

31. Which therapy would be best for S.B.?
    A. Naproxen.
    B. Tramadol.
    C. Nortriptyline.
    D. Prednisone.

Answer 46

31. Answer: C
    Naproxen (Answer A) would unlikely be beneficial
    because the patient has been taking nonprescription
    analgesics without symptom relief. Although tramadol
    (Answer B) is a possibility, it is usually considered second
    line for peripheral neuropathy. Prednisone (Answer
    D) is not typically used for the initial treatment of
    neuropathy. Prednisone can be used in very specific
    immunologic neuropathies, but these are unlikely in
    this scenario. Nortriptyline (Answer C) is considered
    a first-line treatment for peripheral neuropathy. Given
    that the patient has not previously been treated, it is the
    best initial treatment.

Question 47

32. A meta-analysis of treatments for neuropathic pain included data from 26 clinical trials (MedGenMed
    2007;9:36). The results of the review included the following data.
    Treatment No. Needed to Treat
    Tricyclic antidepressants 2.1
    SNRIs 5.1
    SSRIs 7

Given these data, which would be most effective for neuropathic pain?
A. Duloxetine.
B. Sertraline.
C. Amitriptyline.
D. Venlafaxine

Answer 47

32. Answer: C
    Number needed to treat (NNT) is an estimate of the
    number of patients who would need to receive treatment
    for one patient to benefit. Therefore, the lower the NNT,
    the more likely a treatment is to be effective. Tricyclic
    antidepressants, including amitriptyline (Answer C),
    have the lowest NNT value in this comparison, so they
    are most likely to be effective. Duloxetine (Answer A)
    and venlafaxine (Answer D) are less likely to effective.
    Sertraline (Answer B) is the least likely to be effective

Question 48

EPILEPSY

Benzodiazepines

Answer 48

Benzodiazepines
i. Mechanism of action: Augment γ-aminobutyric acid (GABA)-mediated chloride influx
ii. Tolerance may develop: Usually used as adjunctive, short-term therapy
iii. Most commonly used agents: Clorazepate (Tranxene), clobazam (Onfi, Sympazan), clonazepam
(Klonopin), diazepam (Valium), and lorazepam (Ativan)
iv. All benzodiazepines are controlled substances, scheduled as C-IV.
v. For acute repetitive seizures: Intranasal midazolam (Nayzilam), intranasal diazepam (Valtoco),
rectal diazepam (Diastat)
vi. Nonepileptic indications: Clorazepate (anxiety disorders, anxiety), clonazepam (panic disorder
with or without agoraphobia), lorazepam (anxiety disorders, anxiety, alcohol withdrawal)

Question 49

Brivaracetam (Briviact)

Answer 49

i. Mechanism of action: Unknown mechanism, but has high affinity for synaptic vesicle protein 2A
ii. Adverse effects: Somnolence, sedation, dizziness, fatigue
iii. Drug interactions: Carbamazepine, phenobarbital, phenytoin

Question 50

Cannabidiol (Epidiolex)

Answer 50

i. The only FDA-approved cannabis product for epilepsy
ii. Approved for seizures caused by Dravet syndrome, tuberous sclerosis, and Lennox-Gastaut
syndrome
iii. Adverse effects: Sedation, drowsiness, diarrhea, intestinal cramping, increased liver transaminase
(11% of patients); cannabidiol for 3% of patients is discontinued because of increased liver
function tests
iv. Metabolized by CYP2C19 and CYP3A4
v. Inhibitor of UGT1A9, UGT2B7, CYP2C8, CYP2C9, CYP2C19
vi. Possible inhibitor of CYP1A2, CYP2B6
vii. Inhibits metabolism of desmethylclobazam, the active metabolite of clobazam
viii. Increased hepatotoxicity with concomitant valproate
ix. Maintenance dose: 10–20 mg/kg/day in two divided doses; initiate with 5 mg/kg/day in two
divided doses and titrate to optimal dose

Question 51

Carbamazepine (Carbatrol, Epitol, Equetro, Tegretol, Teril)

Answer 51

i)Mechanism of action: Fast sodium channel blocker
ii. Pharmacokinetics: Enzyme inducer, autoinduction
iii. Adverse effects: Rash (occurs after a delay of 2–8 weeks), syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic
hormone release, aplastic anemia, thrombocytopenia, anemia, leukopenia, hyponatremia
iv. Extended-release tablets (Tegretol XR) 100, 200, and 400 mg; extended-release capsules
(Carbatrol) 100, 200, and 300 mg available. Dosing is still twice daily. Do not crush or chew.
Extended-release capsules (Carbatrol) can be opened and sprinkled on food. Ghost tablets can
occur in the stool with the extended-release tablets (Tegretol XR).
v. Patients with the HLA-B1502 allele have a 10-fold elevated risk of Stevens-Johnson syndrome.
(a) Testing is recommended for Asian populations (including Asian Indian populations).
(b) More than 15% of populations in Hong Kong, Malaysia, the Philippines, and Thailand
have this allele.
vi. Patients with the HLA-A3101 allele have a 12-fold elevated risk of hypersensitivity syndrome
and a 3-fold elevated risk of maculopapular exanthema.
(a) Prevalence of this allele is 2%–5% in northern European populations and 9.1% in Japanese
populations.
(b) No recommendations have been issued for testing for this allele.
vii. Nonepileptic indication: Trigeminal neuralgia

Question 52

Cenobamate (Xcopri)

Answer 52

i. Mechanism of action: Inhibits voltage-gated sodium channels, modulates GABA receptors
ii. Titrate slowly because of DRESS (drug rash with eosinophilia and systemic symptoms).
iii. Contraindications: Familial short QT syndrome
iv. Adjust dosing with renal function.
v. CYP3A4 inducer; CYP2C19 inhibitor
vi. Schedule V drug

Question 53

Eslicarbazepine acetate (Aptiom)

Answer 53

i. Mechanism of action: Fast sodium channel blocker
ii. Prodrug for eslicarbazepine, with active metabolites; R-licarbazepine 5%, oxcarbazepine 1%
iii. Adverse effects: Similar to those of carbamazepine; possibly reduced risk of rash, aplastic
anemia, thrombocytopenia, and leukopenia
iv. Adjust dose if CrCl is less than 50 mL/minute/1.73 m2.

Question 54

Ethosuximide (Zarontin)

Answer 54

i. Mechanism of action: T-type calcium current blocker
ii. Useful only for absence seizures
iii. Adverse effects: Anorexia, gastric upset, nausea, vomiting, epigastric/abdominal pain, drowsiness,
leukopenia, agranulocytosis, pancytopenia

Question 55

Felbamate (Felbatol)

Answer 55

i. Mechanism of action: Blocks glycine site on N-methyl-d-aspartate receptor
ii. Serious adverse effects: Hepatotoxicity, aplastic anemia. Patient or guardian must sign consent
form.
iii. Uses: Only when seizures are severe and refractory to other medications and when the benefit
clearly outweighs the potential adverse effects

Question 56

Fenfluramine (Fintepla)

Answer 56

i. Mechanism of action for seizures: Unknown
ii. Indication: Seizures caused by Dravet syndrome in individuals older than 2 years
iii. Warnings: Valvular heart disease, pulmonary arterial hypertension
iv. Only available through a Risk Evaluation and Mitigation Strategies (REMS) program
v. Increased risk of serotonin syndrome when used in combination with other serotonergic agents

Question 57

Fosphenytoin (Cerebyx)

Answer 57

i. Mechanism of action: Prodrug for phenytoin; fast sodium channel blocker
ii. Uses: Parenteral formulation for loading or maintenance dosing in place of phenytoin; status
epilepticus
iii. Pharmacokinetics: Enzyme inducer, nonlinear kinetics
iv. Dosing: Phenytoin equivalents (PE) (1.5 mg of fosphenytoin is equivalent to 1 mg of phenytoin
sodium or 1 PE) are used. Loading dose: 10–20 mg of PE/kg intravenous or intramuscular dosing
is appropriate. Maintenance dosage: Begin with 4–6 mg PE/kg/day in divided doses after
administration of the loading dose.
v. Adverse effects: Hypotension, perianal itching, other adverse effects of phenytoin
vi. Advantages over phenytoin
(a) Intramuscular or intravenous dosing
(b) Phlebitis is minimized.
(c) Infusion can be up to 150 mg PE per minute. In status epilepticus, infusion should be at
100–150 mg PE per minute. Maximum infusion rate is not to exceed 150 mg PE per minute
because of the risk of severe hypotension and cardiac arrhythmias.
(d) Can deliver in normal saline solution or 5% dextrose in water injection

Question 58

Gabapentin (Neurontin)

Answer 58

i. Mechanism of action: Inhibition of α2δ subunit of voltage-dependent calcium channels
ii. Pharmacokinetics: Not metabolized, eliminated renally; adjustments may be necessary for
renal dysfunction and hemodialysis
iii. Nonepileptic indication: Postherpetic neuralgia pain
iv. Doses often exceed product information maximum of 3600 mg/day.
v. Extended-release tablets (Gralise) 300 and 600 mg are available. Their indication is for postherpetic
neuralgia, not epilepsy.
vi. Gabapentin enacarbil (Horizant) extended-release tablets 300 and 600 mg are available. This
is a prodrug for gabapentin and is indicated for postherpetic neuralgia and restless legs syndrome,
not epilepsy.
vii. Increased risk of sedation and respiratory depression when used in combination with other
sedating medications or opioids

Question 59

Ganaxolone (Ztalmy)

Answer 59

i. Indicated for the treatment of seizures associated with cyclin-dependent kinase-like deficiency
disorder in patients 2 years and older
ii. Mechanism of action: Positive modulation of the GABAA receptor in the CNS
iii. Dosage form: Oral suspension 50 mg/mL
iv. Dosing: Orally three times daily with food, titrated slowly
(a) Dosage for patients weighing 28 kg or less:
(1) The starting dosage is 6 mg/kg three times daily (18 mg/kg/day) for days 1–7; then:
(2) 11 mg/kg three times daily (33 mg/kg/day) for days 8–14; then
(3) 16 mg/kg three times daily (48 mg/kg/day) for days 15–21; then
(4) Maximum dosage is 21 mg/kg three times daily (63 mg/kg/daily) on day 22 to
ongoing.
(b) Dosage for patients weighing over 28 kg:
(1) The starting dosage is 150 mg three times daily (450 mg daily) for days 1–7; then
(2) 300 mg three times daily (900 mg daily) for days 8–14; then
(3) 450 mg three times daily (1350 mg daily) for days 15–21; then
(4) Maximum dosage is 600 mg three times daily (1800 mg daily) on day 22 to ongoing.
v. Adverse reactions: Somnolence, pyrexia, salivary hypersecretion, and seasonal allergy
vi. Controlled substance scheduled C-V because of euphoric effects
vii. Drug interactions: CYP3A4 inducers will decrease ganaxolone exposure. It is recommended
to avoid concomitant use with strong or moderate CYP3A4 inducers; if unavoidable,
consider a dosage increase, but do not exceed the maximum recommended dosage.

Question 60

Lacosamide (Vimpat)

Answer 60

i. Mechanism of action: Slow sodium channel blocker
ii. Maximum dose is 300 mg/day with a CrCl of 30 mL/minute/1.73 m2 or less or with mild to
moderate hepatic impairment.
iii. Adverse effects: PR interval prolongation or first-degree atrioventricular block; baseline and
steady-state ECG recommended in patients with known cardiac conduction problems, taking
medications known to induce PR interval prolongation, or with severe cardiac disease
iv. Controlled substance scheduled C-V because of euphoric effects
v. Parenteral formulation: Has an FDA indication only for replacement of oral formulation; however,
may be used for status epilepticus

Question 61

Lamotrigine (Lamictal)

Answer 61

i. Mechanism of action: Decreases glutamate and aspartate release, delays repetitive firing of
neurons, blocks fast sodium channels
ii. Adverse effects: Rash is a primary concern because of concern for progression to Stevens-
Johnson syndrome or toxic epidermal necrolysis; lamotrigine must be titrated slowly to avoid
a rash.
iii. Valproic acid decreases lamotrigine metabolism (increases the serum concentration of lamotrigine);
this interaction requires lower starting and final doses.
iv. Estrogen-containing oral contraceptives increase lamotrigine clearance, so twice the amount
of lamotrigine may be necessary. Lamotrigine toxicity has been reported during the end of
placebo week of oral contraceptive use.
v. Extended-release tablets (Lamictal XR) are available (25 mg, 50 mg, 100 mg, 200 mg, 250 mg,
300 mg).
vi. Nonepileptic indications: Maintenance treatment of type I bipolar disorder

Question 62

Levetiracetam (Keppra)

Answer 62

i. Mechanism of action: May prevent hypersynchronization of epileptiform burst firing and
propagation of seizure activity through binding at SV2A receptor
ii. Pharmacokinetics: Not metabolized extensively; adjust dose in renal dysfunction; no drug
interactions with other seizure medications
iii. Adverse effects: Drowsiness, behavioral changes, depression, agitation, and coordination
difficulties
iv. Parenteral use: Currently FDA indicated only for replacement of oral dosing; however, may be
used for status epilepticus
v. Extended-release tablets (500 mg, 750 mg) are available for once-daily dosing.

Question 63

Oxcarbazepine (Trileptal)

Answer 63

i. Mechanism of action: Fast sodium channel blocker
ii. Pharmacokinetics: Active metabolite 10-monohydroxy oxcarbazepine; enzyme inducer, no
autoinduction
iii. Drug interactions: Enzyme inducer, decreases effectiveness of hormonal contraceptives
iv. Adverse effects: Hyponatremia more common than with carbamazepine (increased dose and
advanced age increase risk of hyponatremia); blood dyscrasias less common than with carbamazepine;
25%–30% of patients with hypersensitivity to carbamazepine will have hypersensitivity
to oxcarbazepine; rash
v. Extended-release tablets (Oxtellar XR) are available (150 mg, 300 mg, 600 mg).

Question 64

Perampanel (Fycompa)

Answer 64

i. Mechanism of action: Noncompetitive antagonist of the inotropic α-amino-3-hydroxy-
5-methyl-4-isoxazole propionic acid (AMPA) glutamate receptor
ii. Pharmacokinetics: 95%–96% protein bound to albumin and α1-acid glycoprotein; metabolized
by CYP3A4 and CYP3A5; 105-hour half-life
iii. Adverse effects: Neuropsychiatric effects (irritability, aggression, anger, anxiety), dizziness,
gait disturbance, weight gain
iv. Perampanel is a schedule III controlled substance

Question 65

Phenobarbital (Luminal)

Answer 65

i. Mechanism of action: Increases GABA-mediated chloride influx
ii. Pharmacokinetics: Enzyme inducer
iii. Adverse effects: Hyperactivity, cognitive impairment
iv. Phenobarbital is a schedule IV controlled substance.
v. Nonepileptic use: Anxiety, severe alcohol withdrawal

Question 66

Phenytoin (Dilantin, Phenytek)

Answer 66

i. Mechanism of action: Fast sodium channel blocker
ii. Pharmacokinetics: Enzyme inducer, nonlinear kinetics
Administration considerations
(a) Intravenous formulation: Very basic product. Phlebitis and extravasation are concerns;
hypotension; maximal infusion rate of 50 mg/minute because of risk of cardiac arrhythmias
and hypotension. Can prepare only in normal saline solution
(b) Oral suspension: Must be shaken well; adheres to feeding tubes and is bound by enteral
nutrition products
iv. Dose-related adverse effects: Nystagmus, ataxia, drowsiness, cognitive impairment
v. Non–dose-related adverse effects: Gingival hyperplasia, hirsutism, acne, rash, hepatotoxicity,
coarsening of facial features

Question 67

Pregabalin (Lyrica)

Answer 67

i. Mechanism of action: Inhibition of α2δ subunit of voltage-dependent calcium channels
ii. Pharmacokinetics: Not metabolized, renally excreted; reduce dose in renal dysfunction
iii. Adverse effects: Drowsiness, blurred vision, weight gain, edema, angioedema, CK elevations
(three reports of rhabdomyolysis), rash
iv. Schedule V controlled substance: Insomnia, nausea, headache, diarrhea reported after abrupt
discontinuation; gradually discontinue over at least 1 week
v. Nonepileptic indications: Neuropathic pain associated with diabetic neuropathy, postherpetic
neuralgia, spinal cord injury, generalized anxiety disorder, and fibromyalgia
vi. Increased risk of sedation and respiratory depression when used in combination with other
sedating medications or opioids

Question 68

first choice only

FOCAL EPILEPSY

Answer 68

Carbamazepine
Gabapentin
Lacosamide
Lamotrigine
Levetiracetam
Oxcarbazepine
Topiramate
Zonisamide

Question 69

first choice only

GENERALIZED MOTOR

Answer 69

Carbamazepine
Lamotrigine
Levetiracetam
Oxcarbazepine
Topiramate
Valproic acid

Question 70

first line only

Absence seizure

Answer 70

Ethosuximide
Vaproic acid

Question 71

Atonic seizure

Answer 71

Clonazepam
Valproic acid

Question 72

Myoclonic seizure

Answer 72

Topiramate
Valproic acid

Question 73

Infantile spasm

Answer 73

Valproic acid

Question 74

first line only

Dravet’s syndrome

Answer 74

Levetiracetam

Question 75

Lennox-
Gastaut
Syndrome

Answer 75

Clobazam
Clonazepam
Lamotrigine
Rufinamide

Question 76

Primidone (Mysoline)

Answer 76

i. Mechanism of action: Increases GABA-mediated chloride influx
ii. Metabolized to phenobarbital and phenylethylmalonamide
iii. Adverse effects: Sedation, drowsiness, ataxia, rash
iv. Primidone, phenobarbital, and phenylethylmalonamide all have antiepileptic action.
v. Pharmacokinetics: Enzyme inducer
vi. Also used for essential tremor

Question 77

Rufinamide (Banzel)

Answer 77

i. Mechanism of action: Fast sodium channel blocker
ii. Pharmacokinetics: Absorption increased by food (should be administered with food); metabolized
by hydrolysis rather than through CYP enzymes
iii. Adverse effects: Headache, dizziness, fatigue, somnolence, nausea
iv. Decreases concentrations of ethinyl estradiol and norethindrone
v. Has an FDA indication only for Lennox-Gastaut syndrome
vi. Slightly shortens the QT interval and therefore should not be used in patients with familial
short QT syndrome
vii. Available as an oral solution

Question 78

Stiripentol (Diacomit)

Answer 78

i. Indicated for Dravet syndrome in combination with clobazam
ii. Dose: 50 mg/kg/day in two or three divided doses
iii. Adverse effects: Somnolence, decreased appetite, agitation, ataxia, weight loss, hypotonia,
nausea, tremor, dysarthria, insomnia
iv. Pharmacokinetics: Inhibits CYP 1A2, 2C19, 2D6, and 3A4

Question 79

Tiagabine (Gabitril)

Answer 79

i. Mechanism of action: Blocks GABA reuptake in the presynaptic neuron
ii. Associated with new-onset seizures and status epilepticus in patients without epilepsy
iii. Adverse effects: Dizziness, asthenia, somnolence, nervousness, tremor, diarrhea

Question 80

Topiramate (Topamax)

Answer 80

i. Mechanism of action: Fast sodium channel blocker, enhances GABA activity and antagonizes
AMPA/kainate activity, weak carbonic anhydrase inhibitor
ii. Pharmacokinetics: Not extensively metabolized, eliminated in urine
iii. Adverse effects: Drowsiness, paresthesias, psychomotor slowing (titrate slowly), weight loss,
nephrolithiasis, acute angle-closure glaucoma, metabolic acidosis, hyperthermia (associated
with decreased perspiration, or oligohidrosis), and decreased cognition, including word-finding
difficulties
iv. Extended-release formulations (Trokendi XR, Qudexy XR)
v. Nonepileptic indication: Prophylaxis of migraine headaches, weight loss secondary to antipsychotic
use

Question 81

Valproic acid

Answer 81

Valproic acid, divalproex sodium, valproate (Depacon, Depakene, Depakote, Stavzor)
i. Mechanism of action: Blocks T-type calcium currents, blocks sodium channels, increases
GABA production
ii. Pharmacokinetics: Enzyme inhibitor
ii. Parenteral use: Has FDA indication only for replacement of oral dosing; however, sometimes
used for status epilepticus, especially if absence status epilepticus
iv. Adverse effects: Hepatotoxicity, nausea and vomiting, weight gain, interference with platelet
aggregation, pancreatitis, alopecia, tremor Available in immediate-release (valproic acid [Depakene]) capsules for three- or four-timesdaily
dosing; delayed-release (enteric coated) (divalproex sodium [Depakote], valproic acid
[Stavzor]) capsules and tablets for twice-daily dosing (if patient is taking an enzyme inducer,
agent is dosed more often); and extended-release (divalproex sodium [Depakote ER]) tablets
for once-daily dosing
vi. Nonepileptic indications: Manic episodes associated with bipolar disorder, prophylaxis of
migraine headaches

Question 82

Vigabatrin

Answer 82

Vigabatrin (Sabril)
i. Mechanism of action: Irreversible inhibition of GABA transaminase
ii. Pharmacokinetics: Induces CYP2C9; renal elimination; dose adjustment required for CrCl
less than 60 mL/minute/1.73 m2
iii. Adverse effects: Fatigue, somnolence, nystagmus, tremor, blurred vision, vision impairment,
weight gain, arthralgia, abnormal coordination, and confusional state
iv. Serious adverse effect: Vision loss; increased risk with higher total dose and duration; periodic
vision testing necessary; restricted distribution program; only used for refractory complex
partial seizures and infantile spasms
v. Only available through a REMS program
vi. Available as oral powder for solution

Question 83

Zonisamide (Zonegran)

Answer 83

i. Mechanism of action: Fast sodium channel blocker, blocks T-type calcium currents, weak
carbonic anhydrase inhibitor
ii. Non-arylamine sulfonamide: Avoid in patients with sulfa sensitivity; sometimes used in
patients with nonserious sulfa allergies, particularly when non-acrylamides (i.e., sulfonylureas)
have been used successfully
iii. Pharmacokinetics: Long half-life, renal elimination
iv. Adverse effects: Depression, rash, psychomotor slowing, paresthesias, kidney stones, blood
dyscrasias, hyperthermia (associated with decreased perspiration, or oligohidrosis), metabolic
acidosis

Question 84

ASM which decreases OC, vaginal ring, progestogen implant

Answer 84

Brivaracetam
Carbamazepine
Cenobamate
Clobazam
Eslicarbazepine
Felbamate
Lamotrigine
Oxcarbazepine
Perampanel
Phenobarbital
Phenytoin
Primidone
Rufinamide
Topiramate more than 200mg/day

Question 85

The following criteria can be used to determine the possibility of withdrawal from ASM therapy

Answer 85

i. Patient should be seizure free for 2–5 years on seizure medication.
ii. Patient should have a single type of focal or generalized seizures.
iii. Patient should have a normal neurologic examination and normal IQ.
iv. Patient’s EEG should have normalized with seizure medication treatment.
b. If a medication is discontinued, it is usually tapered for several months; a typical regimen would
reduce the dose by one-third for 1 month, reduce it by another one-third for 1 month, and then discontinue
it.