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Peeb MCAT > Psych/Soc > Flashcards

Psych/Soc Flashcards

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1
Q

What are the 6 NT’s only in the CNS?

A

Dopamine, Serotonin, GABA, glycine, glutamate endorphins

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2
Q

What are the 2 NT’s only in the PNS?

A

Epinephrine, Norepinephrine

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3
Q

What NT is in both the CNS and PNS?

A

Acetylcholine

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4
Q

Dopamine

A

reward, smooth movements and steady posture

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5
Q

Serotonin

A

mood, eat, sleep, dream

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6
Q

GABA

A

brain “stabilizer”

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7
Q

Endorphins

A

painkillers

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8
Q

Epinephrine

A

flight or fight

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9
Q

Norepinephrine

A

awake/alert

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10
Q

Acetylcholine (PNS and CNS)

A

PNS - voluntary muscle control, CNS - attention and arousal

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11
Q

How does hypothalamus regulate the anterior pituitary?

A

hypophyseal portal system

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12
Q

Posterior pituitary hormones

A

ADH and oxytocin

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13
Q

Anterior pituitary hormones

A

FSH, LH, ACTH, TSH, prolactin, endorphins, GH

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14
Q

Adrenal medulla

A

secretes epi and norepi, above kidneys

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15
Q

Adrenal cortex

A

secrete cortisol and sex hormones, above kidneys

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16
Q

Nature vs Nurture

A

Innate vs Learned behavior

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17
Q

Self schema

A

Self given label with a set of qualities

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18
Q

Androgyny

A

Very masculine and very feminine

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19
Q

Undifferentiated

A

Low masculinity low femininity

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20
Q

Hierarchy of salience

A

Let the situation dictate the most important identity to us

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21
Q

Self discrepancy theory

A

3 selves(actual, ideal, ought)

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22
Q

Actual self

A

Way we see ourselves

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23
Q

Ideal self

A

Person we want to be

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24
Q

Ought self

A

Our representation of the way others think we should be

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25
Q

Self efficacy

A

Our belief in our ability to succeed

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26
Q

Locus of control

A

Way we characterize the influence in our lives (internal vs. external)

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27
Q

What is Sigmund Freud’s psychosexual development theory?

A

Libidinal energy creates internal tension, which we aim to reduce through certain behaviors

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28
Q

What are the five stages of Freud’s psychosexual development?

A

Oral, anal, phallic (mom envy or penis envy), latency(sublimated), genital (normal heterosexual relationships)

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29
Q

What are the 8 stages or Erickson’s psychosocial development?

A

Trust vs mistrust, autonomy vs shame and doubt initiative vs guilt, industry vs. inferiority, identity vs role confusion, intimacy vs isolation, generativity vs stagnation, ego integrity vs despair

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30
Q

What are the 3 phases of kohlberg’s moral reasoning?

A

Preconventional, conventional, postconventional

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31
Q

Preconventional morality age and stages

A

Preadolescent, obedience (avoid punishment) and self interest (gain rewards)

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32
Q

Conventional morality age and stages

A

Adolescent to adulthood, conformity(approval of others) and law and order (social order in high regard)

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33
Q

Postconventional morality age and stages

A

Adulthood, social contract (greater good) and universal human ethics(abstract principles)

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34
Q

Id

A

Pleasure principle, basic primal urges, obtain satisfaction now

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35
Q

Ego

A

Reality principle, postpone pleasure until it can actually be obtained

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36
Q

Superego

A

Personality’s perfectionist, conscience punishes and ego ideal rewards

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37
Q

What are the 8 defense mechanisms?

A

Repression, suppression, regression, reaction formation, projection, rationalization, displacement, sublimation

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38
Q

Repression

A

Unconsciously removing an idea or feeling from consciousness

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39
Q

Suppression

A

Conscious,y removing an idea or feeling from consciousness

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40
Q

Regression

A

Returning to an earlier stage in development

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41
Q

Reaction formation

A

An unacceptable impulse is transformed into its opposite

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42
Q

Projection

A

Attribution of wishes, desires,thoughts, or emotions to someone else

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43
Q

Rationalization

A

Justification of attitudes, beliefs, or behaviors

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44
Q

Displacement

A

Changing the target of an emotion, while the feelings remain the same

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45
Q

Sublimation

A

Channeling of an unacceptable impulse in a socially acceptable dire+toon

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46
Q

What are the 4 jungian archetypes?

A

Persona (our mask), anima (mans inner woman), animus (woman’s inner man), shadow (unpleasant thoughts)

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47
Q

What are the big five traits of personality?

A

OCEAN: Openness, conscientiousness, extraversion, agreeableness, neuroticism

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48
Q

Cardinal traits

A

Traits around which a person organizes their life

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49
Q

Central traits

A

Major characteristics in your life that are easy to infer

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50
Q

Secondary traits

A

Limited in occurrence, appear in certain situations

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51
Q

Self concept

A

Sum of the ways in which we describe ourselves in past, present and future

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52
Q

Identities

A

Individual components of our self concept related to the groups to which we belong

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53
Q

Self esteem

A

Our evaluation of ourselves

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54
Q

Zone of proximal development

A

Skills that a child has not yet master d and require a more knowledgeable other to accomplish

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55
Q

Humanistic perspective

A

Internal feelings of healthy individuals as they strive toward happiness and self realization

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56
Q

PEN

A

Psychoticism(nonconformity), neuroticism (arousal in stressful situations), extraversion(tolerance for social interaction and stimulation)

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57
Q

Social cognitive perspective

A

Individuals interact with their environment in a cycle of reciprocal determinism

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58
Q

Behaviorist perspective

A

Operant conditioning, personality based in prior rewards and punishments

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59
Q

Biological theorist

A

Behavior a result of genetics

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60
Q

Punishments

A

decrease the probability of behavior (operant conditioning(

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61
Q

Reinforcements

A

increase the probability of behavior (operant conditioning)

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62
Q

negative reinforcement

A

negative stimulus removed to increase behavior

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63
Q

Positive reinforcement

A

positive stimulus added to increase behavior

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64
Q

Conditioned stimulus

A

not initially associated with a response, but later it is (classical conditioning)

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65
Q

Unconditioned stimulus

A

naturally triggers a response (don’t need to be trained) (classical conditioning)

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66
Q

superior colliculus

A

eye movements and gaze

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67
Q

lateral geniculate nucleus

A

visual processing in spatial and temporal processing

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68
Q

primary visual cortex

A

major site of visual processing and for COLOR

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69
Q

Self-determination theory

A

a need-based motivational theory that places an
emphasis on competence (wanting to be good at something), autonomy (wanting to feel in
control), and relatedness (wanting to feel connected to others)

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70
Q

3 subdivisions of the brain

A

hindbrain, midbrain, forebrain

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71
Q

hindbrain

A

cerebellum, medulla oblongata, reticular formation, (balance, motor coordination, breath, digest, sleep/wake, vital functioning)

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72
Q

midbrain

A

inferior and superior colliculi (receives sensory and motor info, reflexes to auditory and visual stimuli)

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73
Q

forebrain

A

thalamus, hypothalamus, basal ganglia, limbic system, cerebral cortex (complex perceptual, cognitive, and behavioral processes, emotion and memory

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74
Q

thalamus

A

relay station for sensory info

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75
Q

hypothalamus

A

homestasis, connects to anterior pituitary

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76
Q

basal ganglia

A

smoothen movements, maintain posture

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77
Q

limbic system contains?

A

septal nuclei, amygdala, hippocampus, controls emotion and memory

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78
Q

septal nuclei

A

feelings of pleasure, pleasure-seeking, addition

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79
Q

amygdala

A

fear and aggression

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80
Q

hippocampus

A

consolidates memories and communicates with limbic system via fornix

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81
Q

4 lobes of cerebral cortex

A

frontal, parietal, occipital, temporal

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82
Q

frontal lobe

A

executive function, impulse control, long term planning, motor function, speech production

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83
Q

parietal lobe

A

sensations of touch, pressure, temperature, pain, spatial processing, orientation, manipulation

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84
Q

occipital lobe

A

visual processing

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85
Q

temporal lobe

A

sound processing, speech perception, memory and emotion

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86
Q

Which hemisphere is dominant in most people?

A

Left

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87
Q

glutamate

A

excitatory NT

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88
Q

glycine

A

brain stabilizer

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89
Q

family studies

A

look at relative frequency of a trait within a family compared to the general population

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90
Q

twin studies

A

compare concordance rates b/w monozygotic and dizygotic twins

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91
Q

adoption studies

A

compare similarities b/w adopted kids and their adopted parents vs biological parents

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92
Q

neurulation

A

notochord stimulates ectoderm to fold over and create neural tube topped with neural crest cells

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93
Q

neural tube

A

becomes CNS

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94
Q

neural crest cells

A

spread thru body and differentiate into many tissues

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95
Q

primitive reflexes

A

exist in infants and disappear with age,

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96
Q

rooting reflex

A

infant turns head toward anything that brushes their cheek

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97
Q

Moro reflex

A

infant extends arms then slowly retracts them, cries in response to falling sensation

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98
Q

Babinski reflex

A

big toe extended and other toes fan in response to brushing sole of foot

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99
Q

grasping reflex

A

infant grabs anything in their hand

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100
Q

Franz Gall

A

phrenology; development of a trait associated with growth of its relevant part in the brain

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101
Q

Pierre Flourens

A

extirpation/ablation; different brain regions have diff functions

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102
Q

William James

A

study adaptions of person to their environment

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103
Q

John Dewey

A

functionalism, look at whole organism

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104
Q

Paul Broca

A

speech area

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105
Q

Hermann von Helmoltz

A

measured speed of a nerve impulse

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106
Q

Sir Charles Sherrington

A

inferred existence of synapses

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107
Q

sensory receptors

A

nerves that respond to stimuli and trigger electrical signals

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108
Q

sensory ganglia

A

collections of cell bodies outside the CNS

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109
Q

threshold

A

minimum stimulus to cause change in signal transduction

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110
Q

absolute threshold

A

minimum stimulus energy to activate a sensory system

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111
Q

threshold of conscious perception

A

minimum of stimulus energy that is large and long enough to notice

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112
Q

jnd

A

just noticeable difference, minimum difference in magnitude b/w 2 stimuli before one can perceive this difference

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113
Q

weber’s law

A

jnd for a stimulus is proportional to the magnitude of the stimulus, proportion is constant

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114
Q

signal detection theory

A

effects of nonsensory factors (experiences, motives, expectations)

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115
Q

adaptation

A

decrease in response to a stimulus over time

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116
Q

eye

A

detect light in the form of photons

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117
Q

cornea

A

gather and focuses incoming light

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118
Q

iris

A

open and close pupil

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119
Q

lens

A

refracts incoming light, focus it on the retina

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120
Q

ciliary body

A

produces aqueous humor, drains through the canal of schlemm

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121
Q

retina

A

detects images, rods and cones (rods-light and dark, cones-colors)

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122
Q

what is the bulk of the eye supported by?

A

vitreous, sclera, choroid

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123
Q

what is the visual pathway?

A

cornea-pupil-lens-vitreous-retina (rods/cones-bipolar cells-ganglion cells)-optic nerves-optic chiasm-optic tracts-lateral geniculate nucleus of thalamus-visual radiations thru parietal and temporal lobes-visual cortex

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124
Q

where is the visual cortex?

A

occipital lobe

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125
Q

parallel processing

A

ability to simultaneously analyze and combine info on color, shape, and motion

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126
Q

parvocellular cells

A

detect shape

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127
Q

magnocellular cells

A

detect motion

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128
Q

Structures of outer ear

A

pinna (auricle), external auditory canal, tympanic membrane

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129
Q

Structures of middle ear

A

ossicles: malleus (hammer), incus (anvil), stapes (stirrup), oval window of cochlea, connected to nasal cavity by eustachian tube

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130
Q

Structures of inner ear

A

bony labyrinth (inside in membranous labyrinth), cochlea (detect sound), utricle and saccule (detect linear acceleration), semicircular canals (detect rotational acceleration)

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131
Q

what is the auditory pathway?

A

pinna-external auditory canal-tympanic membrane-malleus-incus-stapes-ovalwindow-perilymph in cochlea-basilar membrane-hair cells-vestibulocochlear nerve-brainstem-medial geniculate nucleus of thalamus-auditory cortex in temporal lobe

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132
Q

inferior colliculi

A

startle reflex, keep eyes fixed on a point when head is turned

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133
Q

olfactory chemoreceptors

A

detect smell

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134
Q

olfactory pathway

A

nostril-nasal cavity-olfactory nerves-olf bulb and olf tract-limbic system

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135
Q

5 modalities of taste

A

sweet, salty, sour, bitter, umami (savory)

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136
Q

4 modalities of somatosensation

A

pressure, vibration, pain, temperature

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137
Q

2-point threshold

A

minimum distance necessary b/w 2 points of stimulation on the skin so you feel 2 points

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138
Q

physiological zero

A

normal temperature of skin to which objects feel warm or cold

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139
Q

nociceptors

A

pain perception

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140
Q

proprioception

A

tell where one’s body is in 3D space

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141
Q

bottom-up processing

A

data driven, recognize objects by parallel processing and feature detection (slower, more accurate)

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142
Q

top-down processing

A

conceptually driven, recognize objects by memories and expectations, less attention to detail (fasther, less accurate)

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143
Q

Perceptual organization (integration of 4 concepts)

A

depth, form, motion, constancy

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144
Q

6 Gestalt principles

A

brain can infer missing parts of an incomplete picture, law of proximity (elements close together), law of similarity (appear similar), law of good continuation (follow same pathway), subjective contours (perceive nonexistent edges), law of closure (space closed by lines), law of pragnanz (perceptual organization will be simple and symmetric)

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145
Q

Habituation

A

become used to a stimulus

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146
Q

dishabituation

A

occur when a second stimulus intervenes, cause resnsitization to the original stimulus

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147
Q

encoding

A

put new info into memory (automatic or effortful)

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148
Q

semantic encoding vs auditory/visual

A

meaningful context stronger than auditory/visual

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149
Q

short-term memory

A

transient, based on NT activity

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150
Q

Working memory

A

requires short-term memory, attention and executive function to manipulate info

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151
Q

Long-term memory

A

elaborative rehearsal, result of increased neuronal connectivity (explicit memory:declarative, facts and stories. implicit memory: nondeclarative, store skills and conditioning effects)

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152
Q

semantic networks

A

store facts

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153
Q

long-term potentiation

A

responsible for the conversion of short-term to long term memory, strengthens neuronal connections resulting from increased NT release and adding of receptor sites

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154
Q

neuroplasticity

A

ability of brain to form new connections rapidly, most plastic in young children

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155
Q

information processing model

A

brain encodes, stores, retrieves info like a computer

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156
Q

4 stages of piaget’s stages of cognitive development

A

sensorimotor, preoperational, concrete operational, formal operational

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157
Q

sensorimotor stage

A

manipulate the environment to meet physical needs (circular or repeated reactions), ends with object permanence

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158
Q

preoperational stage

A

symbolic thinking, egocentrism (can’t imagine what other people think/feel), centration (focus on 1 aspect of a phenom)

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159
Q

concrete operational

A

focus on understanding feelings of others and manipulating physical (concrete) objects

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160
Q

formal operational

A

focus on abstract thought and problem solving

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161
Q

problem solving

A

identifying and understanding problems, generate solutions, test solutions and evaluate results

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162
Q

mental set

A

pattern of approach for a given problem (neg mental set can neg impact problem solving)

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163
Q

functional fixedness

A

tendency to use objects only in the way they are normally utilized, can create barriers to problem solving

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164
Q

4 types of problem solving

A

trial and error, algorithms, deductive (top/down reasoning, derive conclusions from general rules), inductive reasoning (bottom/up reasoning, derive generalizations from evidence)

165
Q

Heuristics

A

shortcuts or rules of thumb used to make decisions

166
Q

biases

A

decision maker unable to objectively evaluate info

167
Q

intuition

A

“gut feeling”

168
Q

Gardner’s theory of multiple intelligences (7 areas)

A

linguistic, logical-mathematical, musical, visual-spatial, bodily-kinesthetic, interpersonal, and intrapersonal

169
Q

4 states of consciousness

A

alertness, sleep, dreaming, and altered states of consciousness

170
Q

Alertness

A

being awake and thinking, perceiving, expressing info

171
Q

What type of waves on an EEG show alertness

A

alpha and beta

172
Q

what is most important for health of the brain and body

A

sleep

173
Q

Stage 1 of sleep

A

light sleep, theta waves

174
Q

Stage 2 of sleep

A

slightly deeper sleep, theta waves, sleep spindles, and K complexes

175
Q

Stage 3-4 of sleep

A

slow-wave sleep (SWS), delta waves, NREM, dreaming in SWS focuses on consolidating declarative memories

176
Q

REM sleep

A

paradoxical sleep (mind appears close to awake on EEG, but person is asleep), eye movement and body paralysis, dreaming focuses on consolidating procedural memories

177
Q

sleep cycle

A

90 minutes long, Stage 1-2-3-4-3-2-REM or 1-2-3-4-REM, REM more frequent towards morning

178
Q

pineal gland

A

release melatonin in the evening, release cortisol in the morning (circadian rhythm)

179
Q

sleep-wake disorders

A

dyssomnias (insomnia, narcolepsy, sleep apnea, sleep deprivation) and parasomnias (night terrors and sleepwalking)

180
Q

hypnosis

A

state of consciousness in which individuals appear in control but are in a highly suggestible state

181
Q

meditation

A

quieting of the mind and used for relief of anxiety

182
Q

consciousness-altering drugs

A

depressants, stimulants, opiates, and hallucinogens

183
Q

depressants

A

alcohol, barbiturates, benzodiazepines, mimic GABA activity in the brain

184
Q

stimulants

A

amphetamines, cocaine, ecstasy, increase dopamine, norepinephrine, and serotonine conc at synaptic cleft

185
Q

opiates and opiods

A

heroin, morphine, opium, and Rx meds like oxycodone of hydrocodone

186
Q

hallucinogens

A

LSD, peyote, mescaline, ketamine, and psilocybin-containing mushrooms

187
Q

marijuana

A

depressant, stimulant, hallucinogen (tetrahydrocannabinol)

188
Q

drug addiction is mediated by what system?

A

mesolimbic (nucleus accumbens, medial forebrain bundle, and ventral tegmental area)

189
Q

what is the NT of the mesolimbic pathway

A

dopamine

190
Q

selective attention

A

allows one to pay attention to a particular stimulus while determining if additional stimuli in the background require attention

191
Q

divided attention

A

automatic processing to pay attention to multiple activities at one time

192
Q

5 parts of language

A

phonology, morphology, semantics, syntax, pragmatics

193
Q

phonology

A

actual sound of speech

194
Q

morphology

A

building blocks of words

195
Q

semantics

A

meaning of words

196
Q

syntax

A

rules dictating word order

197
Q

pragmatics

A

changes in language delivery depending on context

198
Q

3 language development theories

A

nativist (biological) - language is acquired innately
learning (behaviorist) - language acquired by operant conditioning and reinforcement
Social interactionist - language acquired by motivation to communicate and interact with others

199
Q

whorfian hypothesis

A

lens through which we view and interpret the world is created by language

200
Q

broca’s aphasia

A

nonfluent aphasia, generating words requires great effort

201
Q

wernicke’s aphasia

A

fluent, nonsensical aphasia with lack of comprehension

202
Q

arcuate fasiculus

A

connects wernicke’s to broca’s area

203
Q

damage to arcuate fasiculus leads to

A

conduction aphasia - inability to repeat words heard despite intact speech generation and comprehension

204
Q

motivation

A

purpose, driving force behind our actions (intrinsic or extrinsic)

205
Q

instincts

A

innate, fixed patterns of behavior in response to stimuli

206
Q

instinct theory of motivation

A

people perform certain behaviors cuz of evolutionarily programmed instincts

207
Q

arousal theory

A

people perform actions to maintain arousal (being awake and reactive to stimuli)

208
Q

Yerkes Dodson law

A

performance optimal at a medium level of arousal

209
Q

drives

A

internal states of tension that beget particular behaviors focused on goals

210
Q

primary drives

A

bodily processes

211
Q

secondary drives

A

stem from learning, accomplishments and emotions

212
Q

drive reduction theory

A

motivation arises from the desire to eliminate drives

213
Q

Maslow’s hierarchy of needs (5 tiers)

A

physiological needs, safety and security, love and belonging, self-esteem, self actualization

214
Q

self-determination theory

A

emphasizes role of 3 universal needs: autonomy, competence, relatedness

215
Q

incentive theory

A

motivation as the desire to pursue rewards and avoid punishments

216
Q

expectancy-value theory

A

amount of motivation for a task is based on the individual’s expectation of success and the amount that success is valued

217
Q

opponent-process theory

A

motivation for drug-use: drug use increases, body counteracts its effects, leads to tolerance and uncomfortable withdrawal symptoms

218
Q

emotion

A

state of mind, feeling subjectively experienced based on circumstances, mood, relationships

219
Q

3 components of emotion

A

cognitive (subjective), behavioral (facial expressions and body language) and physiological (changes in the autonomic nervous system)

220
Q

7 universal emotions

A

happiness, sadness, contempt, surprise, fear, disgust, anger

221
Q

3 theories of emotion

A

james-lange: nervous system arousal leads to a cognitive response in which the emotion is labeled
Cannon-bard: simultaneous arousal of the nervous system and cognitive response lead to action
Schachter-singer: nervous system arousal and interpretation of context lead to a cognitive response

222
Q

body system involved in emotion

A

limbic system

223
Q

stress

A

physiological and cognitive response to challenges or life changes

224
Q

2 stages of stress appraisal

A

primary - classifying a potential stressor as irrelevant, benign positive, or stressful
secondary - evaluating if the organism can cope with the stress, based on harm, threat and challenge

225
Q

stressor

A

anything that leads to a stress response and can include environment, daily events, workplace or academic settings, social expectations, chemicals, and biological stressors (psychological stressors include pressure, control, predictability, frustration, and conflict)

226
Q

distress

A

experience unpleasant stressors

227
Q

eustress

A

stress in positive conditions

228
Q

3 stages of general adaptation syndrome

A

alarm, resistance, and exhaustion

229
Q

Optic nerve

A

Carries all info from associated eye

230
Q

Optic chiasm

A

Contains crossing nasal fibers (temporal vision field) from each eye and the temporal fibers (nasal visual field - down the nose) pass directly thru

231
Q

Optic tract

A

Carries all info from the opposite visual field

232
Q

Fovea

A

At center of retina contains on cones, best visual acuity, most sensitive in daylight, as you get farther away from fovea, there are more rods than cones

233
Q

Feature detection theory

A

We interpret objects by assessing specific characteristics (shapes, lines, motion etc) to identify something of importance or little value

234
Q

Parallel processing

A

Paired with feature detection theory, our analysis of different Attributes of an object through separate pathways before integrating them. requires the interpretation of color motion shape and depth as separate entities, which Are combined to create a cohesive view the world

235
Q

What neurotransmitter, when out of balance contributes to schizophrenia?

A

dopamine

236
Q

who is most likely to develop schizophrenia around a schizophrenic?

A

biological/first degree relatives

237
Q

What are schizophrenia risk factors?

A

trauma to the brain (at birth, specifically hypoxia), dopamine hypothesis (high levels) or genetics or structure changes

238
Q

Depression risk factors (6)

A

genetics, sociocultural factors, high cortisol, highly active amygdala, atrophied hippocampus, catecholamine hypothesis (decrease in serotonin, norepinephrine and dopamine)

239
Q

Bipolar disorder risk factors (3)

A

genetics, catecholamine hypothesis (increase in serotonin and norepinephrine, multiple sclerosis)

240
Q

Alzheimer’s risk factors (5)

A

age (more common in patients older than 65), gender (women higher risk), family hx, education (decreased risk in people with higher education), genetics (ApoE and down syndrome patients)

241
Q

biological markers of an alzheimer’s patient

A

brain atrophy (dark spaces on MRI), decreased levels ACTH and choline acetyl transferase and beta amyloid plaques, neurofibrillary tangles and tau protein

242
Q

Parkinsons symptoms

A

stooped posture, mask-like face, pill-rolling, decreased dopamine production, decreased dopamine

243
Q

psychological disorders

A

thoughts, feelings, and emotions that disrupts functioning in society

244
Q

biomedical approach

A

underlying neurological and genetic causes for disorders - treated with medicine

245
Q

biopsychosocial approach

A

environmental and lifestyle factors as cause for disorders - treated with medicine AND changing patient’s environment

246
Q

DSM

A

DSM-5 descriptions of symptoms to classify disorders

247
Q

schizphrenia (define 2 classes)

A

positive symptoms - behaviors, thoughts, or feelings added to normal behavior
negative symptoms - absence of normal or desired behavior

248
Q

positive schizophrenia symptoms

A

delusions - false beliefs discordant with reality
hallucinations - perceptions with a sense of reality
disorganized thought - loosening of associations
disorganized behavior - inability to carry out activities of daily living

249
Q

negative schizophrenia disorders

A

disturbance of affect - expression of emotion

avolition - decreased engagement in goal-directed actions

250
Q

major depressive disorder

A

episodic and severe enough to interfere with daily functions

251
Q

major depressive disorder symptoms (mnemonic)

A 
SIG E CAPS 
Sleep disturbances
loss of Interest in activities
excessive Guilt
decreased Energy
difficulty Concentrating
Appetite disturbances
Psychomotor symptoms
Suicidal thoughts
252
Q

Seasonal Affective Disorder

A

major depressive disorder with seasonal onset

253
Q

symptoms of seasonal affective disorder (3)

A

present in winter months, abnormal melatonin metabolism, bright light therapy

254
Q

bipolar disorder

A

rapid onset of mania (euphoria) and slow onset/long duration of depression - switch back and forth

255
Q

symptoms of manic episodes (mnemonic)

A 
DIG FAST
Distractable
Insomnia
Grandiosity
Flight of ideas
Agitation
pressured Speech
Thoughtlessness and risky behavior
256
Q

difference b/w bipolar I vs bipolar II disorders

A

I: manic episodes with or without major depressive disorders (classical)
II: hypomania with at least one major depressive episode

257
Q

hypomania

A

does not significantly impair functioning

258
Q

cyclothymic disorder

A

both mania and depression are less severe

259
Q

5 anxiety disorders

A

general anxiety, specific phobia, social anxiety, agoraphobia, panic disorder

260
Q

general anxiety disorder

A

persistent worry about many things (like mortgage payments)

261
Q

specific phobia

A

irrational fear of a specific object

262
Q

social anxiety disorder

A

fear or anxiety in social situations (being embarrassed)

263
Q

agoraphobia

A

fear of places where escape is difficult (uncomfy leaving home)

264
Q

panic disorder

A

sense of impending doom (activates sympathetic nervous system)

265
Q

OCD (2 characterizations)

A

obsessive-compulsive disorder, person has persistent irrational thoughts that person will obsess over in the face of evidence to the contrary, severe enough to impede daily life

  1. obsessions - persistant intrusive thoughts that raise stress levels
  2. compulsions - irrational repetitive actions person uses to remedy their stress
266
Q

body dismorphic disorder

A

type of OCD, person thinks a part of their body is awful and will do anything to fix it

267
Q

Dissociative disorders

A

avoidance of stressors by escape from identity and reality

268
Q

3 types of dissociative disorders

A
  1. amnesia - forget memories of the past because of psychological trauma
  2. dissoc. identity - 2 or more personalities that alternate/compete
  3. depersonalization/derealization - feel detached from mind and body
269
Q

somatic symptom disorder

A

affected person experiences pain, injury, or illness that cannot be explained by a medical condition

270
Q

3 types of somatic symptom disorder

A
  1. somatic symptom - sx not linked to medical condition
  2. illness anxiety - hypochondriac
  3. conversion disorder - motor or sensory sx linked to stress
271
Q

ego-syntonic

A

they don’t think their behavior is abnormal

272
Q

ego-dystonic

A

they realize their behavior is abnormal but can’t stop and sx are intrusive in their daily life (not part of their true personality)

273
Q

personality disorders

A

behavior that is inflexible and maladaptive, ego-syntonic

274
Q

personality disorder clusters mnemonic

A

A-B-C, weird-wild-worried

275
Q

personality cluster A disorders (3)

A

WEIRD

  1. paranoid - pervasive mistrust and suspicion of others
  2. schizotypal - odd/magical thinking
  3. schizoid - few interpersonal relationships
276
Q

personality cluster B disorders (4)

A

WILD

  1. antisocial - disregard for rights and laws, lack empathy
  2. borderline - instability in mood, identity, relationships, expecting everyone to disappoint them (abandonment issues)
  3. histrionic - needs to be center of attention
  4. narcissistic - needs to be loved and admired by others
277
Q

personality cluster C disorders (3)

A

WORRIED

  1. avoidant - extreme shyness and fear of rejection
  2. dependent - need for reassurance from others
  3. obsessive-compulsive - ego-syntonic, lack of desire to change, excessive stubbornness, careful routines
278
Q

What are 2 areas of the brain that provide the basis for aggression?

A

amygdala - activated in a threatening situation

prefrontal cortex- modulates impulsiveness

279
Q

What hormone increases aggressive behavior?

A

testosterone

280
Q

cognitive neoassociation model

A

aggression is linked to negative emotions

281
Q

Ainsworth study

A

infants require a consistent caregiver from first 6 months to 2 years of life

282
Q

4 types of attachment

A

secure, avoidant, ambivalent, disorganized

283
Q

secure attachment

A

caregiver - reliable and secure source of comfort

child explores world comfortably and prefers caregiver to strangers

284
Q

avoidant attachment

A

caregiver - doesn’t respond to distressed child

child shows no preference for caregiver

285
Q

ambivalent attachment

A

caregiver - inconsistent response to distressed child

child - distressed when caregiver leaves, mixed response upon return

286
Q

disorganized attachment

A

caregiver - erratic or socially withdrawn

child shows no consistent pattern of behavior toward caregiver

287
Q

5 types of support

A

emotional, esteem, material, informational, network

288
Q

emotional support

A

listening, affirming, empathizing (i’m so sorry to hear you lost your job”

289
Q

esteem support

A

affirming qualities and skills of a person (you’ve got a great resume, I’m sure you’ll get hired soon)

290
Q

material support

A

financial or material contribution (let me get the check this time)

291
Q

informational support

A

providing info that will help someone (i hear my company is looking to hire)

292
Q

network support

A

gives a sense of belonging (group hug!)

293
Q

3 mating systems

A

monogamy (man + woman)
polygamy (polygyny -man w/ mult women OR polyandry - woman w/ mult men)
promiscuity (anyone w/ anyone)

294
Q

mate choice

A

intersexual selection based on attraction

295
Q

genetic compatability

A

creation of mate pairs that have complementary genetics

296
Q

phenotypic benefits

A

observable traits that make a potential mate more attractive to the opposite sex

297
Q

indicator traits

A

trait that signifies overall good health and well being of an organism (dog’s shiny coat)

298
Q

fisherian (runaway) selection

A

particular trait has no effect on survival becomes more exaggerated over time (peacock plumage)

299
Q

Evolutionary Stable strategy (ESS)

A

natural selection will prevent other strategies from arising

300
Q

Inclusive fitness

A

an individual organisms’ success in the population (# offspring, success in supporting offspring, ability of the offspring to them support others)

301
Q

altruism

A

selflessness - organism gives up its resources for another, (evolution-wise its for passing on genes)

302
Q

Social perception/cognition

A

making judgements and impressions on others (need a perceiver, target, and situation to provide social context)

303
Q

impression bias (4 factors it relies on)

A

selection of cues to form interpretations of others

  1. reliance on central traits (smart, trustworthy, shy etc)
  2. primacy effect - first impressions most important
  3. recency effect - most recent encounter most important
  4. implicit personality theory - judgements on personality made quickly & subconsciously
304
Q

halo effect

A

judgement on specific aspect of individual can be affected by overall impression of individual

305
Q

just world hypothesis

A

karma, consequences due to universal restoring force (good things happen to good people, bad things happen to bad people)

306
Q

self-serving bias

A

self-identity and perception , our success due to internal factors like hard work, failures due to external factors

307
Q

attribution theory

A

what should i credit/blame for this person’s behavior? dispositional - internal behavior (beliefs, attitudes, personality)
situational - external, surroundings, social norm, money, etc

308
Q

3 cues to determine dispositional or situational attribution theory?

A

consistency - does it happen all the time? (dispositional)
consensus - does other people do it too? (situational)
distinctiveness - in between

309
Q

fundamental attribution error

A

biased toward dispositional rather than situational attributions, especially in negative context (team member didn’t do any work, so they’re lazy)

310
Q

individualist culture

A

high value on personal goals and independence (more dispositional)

311
Q

collectivist culture

A

high value on conformity and interdependence (more situational)

312
Q

stereotype

A

attitudes and impressions are based on limited and superficial info about a person or group, can have negative connotations

313
Q

self-fulfilling prophecy

A

person’s inaccurate expectations about another person’s behavior prompt them to act in stereotype consistent ways

314
Q

stereotype threat

A

people concerned/anxious about confirming a negative stereotype about their social group

315
Q

prejudice (3 influences)

A

irrational positive/negative attitude toward a person, group, thing prior to an actual experience with that entity

  1. power - achieve goals despite obstacles
  2. prestige - respect shown to a person/group
  3. class - socioeconomic status
316
Q

ethnocentrism

A

practice of making judgments about other cultures based on the values and beliefs of one’s own culture

317
Q

cultural relativism

A

opp of ethnocentrism - recognizing that cultures are different from our own and that the values/behaviors of that culture fit into that culture (not believing one culture is more superior, but that it’s just different)

318
Q

discriminiation

A

acting on prejudices, treating others differently based on prejudices

319
Q

individual discrimination

A

one person discriminates against a particular person/group

320
Q

institutional discrimination

A

institution/organization discriminates against a particular person or group

321
Q

social facilitation

A

people tend to perform better on simple tasks when in the presence of others

322
Q

Yerkes Dodson law

A

social facilitation - performing a simple task in front of others will make you better at it, performing a complex task in front of others will make you worse at it

323
Q

deindividuation

A

losing a sense of individuality, becoming an anonymous part of a group (ex. uniforms)

324
Q

bystander effect

A

more bystanders means a slower and smaller chance of response (in a mall, fewer people will help a stranger)

325
Q

social loafing

A

loaf - lazy, tendency of individuals to put in less effort (group project)

326
Q

peer pressure

A

social influence on an individual

327
Q

primary socialization

A

process of initially learning actions and attitudes thru observation
stage: CHILDHOOD
example (child learns to cover mouth when sneezing cuz mom does it)

328
Q

secondary socialization

A

based on learning the rules of specific social environments
Stage: ADOLESCENCE and ADULTHOOD
(ex.bell rings at school, time to leave(

329
Q

anticipatory socialization

A

process by which a person prepares for future changes
Stage: ADULTHOOD
(preggers couple babysits)

330
Q

resocialization

A

process by which one discards old behaviors in favor of new ones
Stage: ADULTHOOD
(ex joining the armed forces)

331
Q

norms

A

societal rules that define the boundaries of acceptable behavior (shaking hands after a sports game)

332
Q

deviance

A

any violation of norms, rules, or expectations within a society (jaywalking)

333
Q

status

A

position in society that is used to classify individuals

334
Q

ascribed status

A

one that is given involuntarily due to such factors as race, ethnicity, or gender

335
Q

achieved status

A

one that is gained as a result of one’s efforts or choices

336
Q

master status

A

the status by which a person is most identified

337
Q

role

A

.set of beliefs, values, attitudes, norms that define expectations for those who hold a status

338
Q

peer group

A

association of self selected equals around similar interests, ages, and statuses

339
Q

family group

A

not self-selected, but determined by birth, adoption, or marriage

340
Q

in group

A

group to which an individual belongs

341
Q

out group

A

group with which an individual is in opposition with

342
Q

primary group

A

interactions are direct, with close bonds providing warm, personal and intimate relationships, last a long time

343
Q

secondary groups

A

interactions are superficial, with few emotional bonds, last short period of time

344
Q

network

A

observable pattern of social relationships among individuals or groups

345
Q

immediate network

A

dense with strong ties, composed of friends

346
Q

distant network

A

loose and built on weaker ties, may include acquaintances

347
Q

organization

A

entities set up to achieve specific goals, has structure and culture

348
Q

direct therapy

A

treatment on individual (meds, periodic meetings with psychologist)

349
Q

indirect therapy

A

increases social support by educating and empowering the family and friends of the affected person

350
Q

PTSD

A

post traumatic stress disorder - intrusion symptoms (reliving the event, flashbacks, nightmares)
avoidance
negative mood and amnesia
arousal - startled

351
Q

Schizophrenia has high levels of

A

dopaminergic transmission

352
Q

Depression has high levels of and low levels of

A

glucocorticoids; norepi, serotonin and dopamine

353
Q

bipolar disorders have high levels of

A

serotonin

354
Q

group polarization

A

tend toward making decisions in a group that are more extremem than the thoughts of the individual group members

355
Q

group think

A

tend to make decisions based on ideas and solutions that arise within the group w/o considering outside ideas (ethics?)

356
Q

compliance

A

individuals change behavior based on requests of others (foot in the door, door in the face, lowball, thats not all)

357
Q

obedience

A

change in behavior based on a command from someone seen as an authority figure

358
Q

learning theory

A

states that attitudes are developed thru forms of learning: direct contact, direct interaction, direct instruction, and conditioning

359
Q

elaboration likelihood model

A

states that attitudes are formed and changed thru different routes of info processing based on the degree of elaboration

360
Q

social cognitive theory

A

states that attitudes are formed thru observation of behavior, personal factors and environment

361
Q

status

A

position in society used to classify individuals

362
Q

ascribed status

A

involuntarily assigned to an individual based on race, ethnicity, gender, etc

363
Q

achieved status

A

voluntarily earned by an individual

364
Q

master status

A

status by which an individual is primarily identified

365
Q

role

A

set of beliefs, values, and norms that define the expectations of a certain status in a social situation

366
Q

role performance

A

carrying out the behaviors of a given role

367
Q

role partner

A

another individual who helps define a specific role within the relationship

368
Q

role set

A

contains all diff roles associated with status

369
Q

role conflict

A

one has difficulty in satisfying the requirements of multiple rolese simultaneously

370
Q

role strain

A

occurs when one has difficulty satisfying multiple requirements of the same role simultaneously

371
Q

impression management

A

maintenance of a public image, which is accomplished thru various strategies

372
Q

self-disclosure

A

sharing factual info

373
Q

managing appearances

A

using props, appearance, emotional expression, or associations to create a positive image

374
Q

ingratiation

A

using flattery or conformity to win over someone else

375
Q

aligning actions

A

use of excuses to account for questions

376
Q

alter-casting

A

imposing an identity onto another person

377
Q

dramaturgical approach

A

individuals create images of themselves in the same way that actors perform a role in front of an audience

378
Q

front stage

A

individual is seen by the audience and strives to preserve his desired image

379
Q

back stage

A

individual is not in front of an audience and is free to act outside of his desired image

380
Q

Interpersonal attraction

A

what makes people like each other and is influenced by multiple factors

381
Q

self-disclosure

A

includes sharing fears, thoughts and goals with another person and being met with empathy and nonjudgement

382
Q

reciprocity

A

we like people who we think like us

383
Q

proximity

A

being physically close to someone

384
Q

game theory

A

attempts to explain decision-making between individuals as if they are participating in a game

385
Q

functionalism

A

focuses on the function of each component of society and how those components fit together

386
Q

manifest functions

A

deliberate actions that serve to help a given system

387
Q

latent functions

A

unexpected, unintended, or unrecognized positive consequences of manifest functions

388
Q

conflict theory

A

focuses on how power differentials are created and ow these differentials contribute to the maintenance of social order

389
Q

symbolic interactionism

A

study of the ways individuals interact thru a shared understanding of words, gestures and other symbols

390
Q

social constructionism

A

explores the ways in which individuals and gorups make decisions to agree upon a given social reality

391
Q

rational choice theory

A

individuals will make decisions that maximize potential benefit and minimize potential harm

392
Q

exchange theory

A

applies rational choice theory within social groups

393
Q

feminist theory

A

explores the ways in which one gender can be subordinated, minimized, or devalued compared to the other

394
Q

social institutions

A

well-established social structures that dictate certain patterns of behavior or relationships and are accepted as a fundamental part of culture (family, religion, government, etc)

395
Q

Beneficence

A

acting in the patient’s best interest

396
Q

nonmaleficence

A

refers to avoiding trx for which risk is larger than benefit

397
Q

autonomy

A

refers to respecting patient’s rights to make decisions about their own healthcare

398
Q

justice

A

trx similar patients similarly and distributing healthcare resources fairly

399
Q

cultural lag

A

idea that material culture changes more quickly than symbolic culture

400
Q

meritocracy

A

society in which advancement up the social ladder is based on intellectual talent and achievement

401
Q

social mobility

A

allows one to acquire higher-level employment opportunities by achieving required credentials and experience (positive upward direction or negative downard)

402
Q

absolute poverty

A

people do not have enough resources to acquire basic life necessities

403
Q

relative poverty

A

poor in comparison to the entire population

404
Q

spatial inequality

A

form of social stratification across territories and their populations and can occur along residential, environmental, and global lines

405
Q

prevalence

A

calculated as the number of cases of a disease per population in a given period of time

406
Q

incidence

A

number of new cases of a disease per population at risk in a given period of time

407
Q

morbidity

A

burden or degree of illness associated with a given diseases

408
Q

mortality

A

deaths caused by a given disease

Peeb MCAT (7 decks)

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