Psych Assessment Flashcards

1
Q

Traumatic brain injury (TBI) is likely to have the most detrimental effect on which of the following WAIS-IV Indexes?
Select one:

A.
Working Memory

B.
Processing Speed

C.
Perceptual Reasoning

D.
Verbal Comprehension

A

b. processing speed

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2
Q

The _______________ is useful for tracking a patient’s level of consciousness during the first hours to days after experiencing a severe head trauma.
Select one:

A.
Glasgow Coma Scale

B.
Global Deterioration Scale

C.
Trail Making Test

D.
Neuropsychiatric Inventory Questionnaire

A

a. glasgow coma scale

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3
Q

A new study involves providing a new medication to participants, then two weeks later the participants fill out a survey on any side effects that they encountered. What type of data collection procedure was used?
Select one:

A.
Psychophysiological measures

B.
Direct observation

C.
Self-report

D.
Structured interview

A

c. self report

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4
Q

Which of the following is an advantage of using technology during the assessment process?
Select one:

A.
Clients are more familiar with technology and find it easier to use

B.
Costs are decreased and data collection can be streamlined

C.
Technology is less likely to be breached

D.
Everyone has access to a computer, so assessment is more easily accessible

A

b. costs are decreased and data collection can be streamlined

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5
Q

A high score on which of the following MMPI-2 scales indicates a high degree of defensiveness or denial, a desire to “fake good,” or responding “false” to all items and is associated with resistance and poor treatment prognosis?
Select one:

A.
F (Frequency)

B.
K (Correction)

C.
L (Lie)

D.
F Back (Fb)
A

b. K (correction)

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6
Q

Which of the following are the two routing subtests for the Stanford-Binet Intelligence Scales-Fifth Edition (SB5)?
Select one:

A.
Digit Span and Vocabulary

B.
Symbol Search and Block Design

C.
Object Series/Matrices and Vocabulary

D.
Procedural Knowledge and Delayed Response

A

C.

Object Series/Matrices and Vocabulary

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7
Q

The primary investigator of a study utilizes a cross-sectional designed to assess the effects of age on reaction time. The investigator asks adults belonging to different age groups to respond to visual stimuli on a computer screen. A colleague of the investigator suggests the results might be confounded because older participants may have less experience using computers than younger participants. This potential source of error is best described as a:
Select one:

A.
Rosenthal effect

B.
Hawthorne effect

C.
carryover effect

D.
cohort effect

A

d. cohort effect

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8
Q

Raven’s Progressive Matrices are:
Select one:

A.
measures of simultaneous and sequential processing

B.
measures of inductive and deductive reasoning

C.
nonverbal measures of general intelligence

D.
culture-fair measures of academic achievement

A

c. nonverbal measures of general intelligence

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9
Q

In the context of cognitive ability tests, “testing the limits” refers to:
Select one:

A.
readministering the test to an examinee using standardized procedures after a period of formal instruction or training

B.
readministering the test (or portions of it) to an examinee while modifying the standardized procedures

C.
determining the accuracy of test results for predicting academic or job performance

D.
determining the accuracy of test results for a highly heterogeneous group of examinees

A

B.

readministering the test (or portions of it) to an examinee while modifying the standardized procedures

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10
Q

An examinee whose highest clinical scale scores on the MMPI-2 are on scales ________ may have a history of alcohol and drug abuse, antisocial behavior, and/or sex offenses.
Select one:

A.
2 and 6

B.
4 and 9

C.
9 and 0

D.
2 and 1

A

b. 4 and 9

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11
Q

A test developer would most likely administer test items to samples of people who vary in terms of age, gender, race/ethnicity, and socioeconomic status for the purpose of:
Select one:

A.
standardization

B.
assessing incremental validity

C.
establishing criterion-related validity

D.
domain-referenced testing

A

a. standardization

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12
Q

When administering the Rorschach Inkblot Test, the purpose of the inquiry phase is to:
Select one:

A.
find out what the examinee sees in the inkblot

B.
obtain information needed to score the test

C.
determine what questions to ask during the free association phase

D.
give the examinee an opportunity to ask questions about the test’s purpose and procedures

A

b. obtain information needed to score the test

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13
Q

A psychologist is designing a study that will investigate the impact of age on intelligence. The results of the psychologist’s study will most likely indicate that intelligence test scores begin to decline in early adulthood if they use which of the following research designs?
Select one:

A.
Cross-sequential

B.
Cross-sectional

C.
Longitudinal

D.
Analogue

A

b. cross sectional

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14
Q

Dynamic assessment is most useful for:
Select one:

A.
identifying an examinee’s ability to recall specific information from a well-defined content domain

B.
identifying the antecedents and consequences that are maintaining a behavior

C.
determining if test items accurately predict performance on an external criterion

D.
determining if an examinee would benefit from assistance or instruction

A

d. determining if n examinee would benefit from assistance or instruction

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15
Q

A school psychologist will administer which of the following tests to evaluate the intelligence of a 13-year old who received a diagnosis of intellectual disability when she was 6 years old?
Select one:

A.
Wechsler Primary and Preschool Scale of Intelligence

B.
Wechsler Adult Intelligence Scale

C.
Stanford-Binet Intelligence Scales

D.
Columbia Mental Maturity Scale

A

c. stanford binet intelligence scales

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16
Q

Longitudinal studies have generally found that scores on infant intelligence tests administered prior to the age of 24 months have what relation to later IQ test scores?
Select one:

A.
They have high validity for predicting childhood and adolescent IQ scores.

B.
They have moderate validity for predicting childhood, adolescent, and adult IQ scores.

C.
They have little validity for predicting adult IQ scores.

D.
They tend to overestimate adolescent and adult IQ scores.

A

c. they have little validity for predicting adult iq scores

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17
Q

When an interest test yields ipsative scores, this means that scores indicate:
Select one:

A.
the absolute strengths of an examinee’s interests

B.
the relative strengths of an examinee’s interests

C.
the occupational group that an examinee most closely resembles

D.
the consistency of an examinee’s interests

A

b. the relative strengths of an examinee’s interests

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18
Q

In regard to examiner qualifications, Level B tests refer to those that:
Select one:

A.
may be administered and interpreted by nonpsychologists

B.
require psychologists to have one year of experience to administer

C.
require some technical knowledge of test construction as well as the completion of supporting psychological and educational subjects

D.
should be administered only by individuals with a Master’s degree in psychology and supervised experience

A

C.
require some technical knowledge of test construction as well as the completion of supporting psychological and educational subjects

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19
Q

An examinee whose highest score on the Self-Directed Search is on the realistic scale would probably be least interested in pursuing a career as a:
Select one:

A.
farmer

B.
administrative assistant

C.
biologist

D.
social worker

A

d. social worker

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20
Q

Which of the following Wechsler subtests is incorrectly described in terms of the abilities it measures?
Select one:

A.
Comprehension: practical knowledge and social judgment

B.
Similarities: abstract reasoning and auditory comprehension

C.
Symbol Search: visual perception and attention

D.
Block Design: mental manipulation, concentration, and attention

A

D.

Block Design: mental manipulation, concentration, and attention

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21
Q

A criticism of the Scholastic Assessment Test (SAT) is that it is a relatively poor predictor of the college grades of students who:
Select one:

A.
score in the lower third

B.
score in the upper third

C.
score in the lower and upper thirds

D.
score in the mid-range

A

d. score in the mid range

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22
Q

According to Sternberg (1996), “successful intelligence” consists of:
Select one:

A.
eight intelligences (e.g., linguistic, spatial, interpersonal)

B.
g (general intelligence) plus specific cognitive abilities related to the task

C.
three abilities (analytical, creative, and practical)

D.
a combination of fluid and crystallized intelligence

A
C.
three abilities (analytical, creative, and practical)
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23
Q

In general, interest inventories are least useful for predicting:
Select one:

A.
job choice

B.
job satisfaction

C.
job persistence

D.
job performance

A

d. job performance

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24
Q

Some experts argue that achievement tests can be used as substitutes for aptitude tests because:
Select one:

A.
achievement and “aptitude” are essentially synonymous

B.
both types of tests measure past learning in controlled situations

C.
future accomplishments are largely the result of innate capacities

D.
past accomplishments are a good indicator of what can be expected in the future

A

D.

past accomplishments are a good indicator of what can be expected in the future

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25
Q

: A psychologist would use the Mini Mental State Exam (MMSE) to:
Select one:

A.
determine if a child has a learning disability

B.
evaluate level of consciousness following brain injury

C.
evaluate cognitive recovery during the first weeks to months following a head injury

D.
evaluate the cognitive functioning of an older adult

A

D.

evaluate the cognitive functioning of an older adult

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26
Q

Computation of the FSIQ for the Wechsler Intelligence Scale for Children, Fifth Edition requires a score on which subtest?
Select one:

A.
Comprehension

B.
Information

C.
Figure Weights

D.
Arithmetic

A

c. figure weights

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27
Q

When empirical criterion keying is used to develop a test, items chosen for inclusion are those that:
Select one:

A.
are consistent with the constructs identified by a specific theory or model

B.
distinguish between preselected groups or subgroups

C.
have been identified as representative of the content domain by subject matter experts

D.
accurately rank people from low to high on a predefined criterion

A

B.

distinguish between preselected groups or subgroups

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28
Q

To determine a student’s instructional needs in terms of current course content, you would be best advised to use:
Select one:

A.
a norm-referenced test

B.
a standardized achievement test

C.
a functional behavioral analysis

D.
a curriculum-based measurement

A

D.

a curriculum-based measurement

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29
Q

Which of the following WAIS-IV indexes is least sensitive to (least adversely affected by) Alzheimer’s dementia?
Select one:

A.
Processing Speed

B.
Working Memory

C.
Perceptual Reasoning

D.
Verbal Comprehension

A

d. verbal comprehension

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30
Q

Which of the following describes a requirement of the Individuals with Disabilities Act (IDEA)?
Select one:

A.
Children and adolescents with disabilities must be provided with education in the least restrictive environment.

B.
Parents have the right to request a school to amend their minor child’s school records if they believe the record is inaccurate or misleading.

C.
Employers must make reasonable accommodations when testing examinees with disabilities.

D.
Tests used to make selection and other employment decisions must have evidence of adequate criterion-related validity.

A

A.

Children and adolescents with disabilities must be provided with education in the least restrictive environment.

31
Q

The Cattell-Horn-Carroll (CHC) model can be used to interpret an examinee’s scores on which of the following tests?
Select one:

A.
KABC-II

B.
PPVT-4

C.
Cognitive Assessment System

D.
Slosson Intelligence Test

A

A.

KABC-II

32
Q

Which of the following methods was used to identify the “big five” personality traits?
Select one:

A.
Empirical criterion keying

B.
Homogeneous keying

C.
Actuarial approach

D.
Atheoretical lexical approach

A

D.

Atheoretical lexical approach

33
Q

To determine if a predictor is biased against members of a particular group, you would compare:
Select one:

A.
the means of the different groups on the predictor

B.
the means of the different groups on the criterion

C.
the regression lines for the different groups

D.
the Y-intercepts for the different groups

A

c. the regression lines for the different groups

34
Q

The Occupational Scales of the Kuder Occupational Interest Survey:
Select one:

A.
are appropriate only for individuals considering careers that do not require a college education

B.
provide information on the similarity of the examinees interests with those of satisfied workers in different occupations

C.
provide an overview of the examinees occupational interests in terms of ten broad areas that are similar to Hollands themes

D.
indicate the degree to which the examinees personal characteristics match the work environments of particular jobs

A

B.
provide information on the similarity of the examinees interests with those of satisfied workers in different occupations

35
Q

Scores on the MMPI-2’s clinical scales are most commonly interpreted:
Select one:

A.
by considering each clinical scale score separately

B.
in terms of a profile analysis

C.
by referring to expectancy tables

D.
in terms of percentile bands

A

b. in terms of a profile analysis

36
Q

An examinee’s score on the Benton Visual Retention Test (BVRT) reflects their ability to:
Select one:

A.
reproduce geometric figures from memory

B.
copy and recall geometric figures

C.
move disks, one at a time, so that they end up in a particular goal configuration

D.
verbally describe visual stimuli

A

A.

reproduce geometric figures from memory

37
Q

Factor analyses of tests designed to measure psychomotor skills have found that these skills:
Select one:

A.
are relatively independent

B.
reflect an underlying g (general) factor

C.
represent three interdependent factors (speed, strength, and coordination)

D.
are strongly related to intelligence

A

a. are relatively independent

38
Q

A person who received a Level IV rating on the Rancho Scale of Cognitive Functioning:
Select one:

A.
is nonresponsive to visual or auditory stimuli and seems to be in a state of deep sleep

B.
is confused and incoherent, may exhibit bizarre behavior, and is unable to care of themselves

C.
is alert and oriented and can remember and integrate remote and recent events but may have some impairment in judgment, planning, and abstract reasoning

D.
is functioning at an intellectual level that is superior for their age, education, and demographic background

A

B.

is confused and incoherent, may exhibit bizarre behavior, and is unable to care of themselves

39
Q

Which of the following is the best conclusion that can be drawn from the research comparing actuarial and clinical approaches to test score interpretation?
Select one:

A.
The actuarial and clinical methods are equivalent in terms of accuracy.

B.
The clinical method is more accurate than the actuarial method.

C.
The actuarial method is more accurate than the clinical method.

D.
A strategy that combines actuarial and clinical methods is substantially more accurate than is either method alone.

A

C.

The actuarial method is more accurate than the clinical method.

40
Q

The Leiter-3 would be most useful for measuring the intelligence of:
Select one:

A.
adults with visual impairments

B.
children under the age of two

C.
children with hearing impairments

D.
adults who have received a diagnosis of Intellectual Disability

A

c. children with hearing impairments

41
Q

As defined by Horn and Cattell (1966) intellectual ability consists of:
Select one:

A.
analytical, creative, and practical components

B.
two general components, fluid and crystallized

C.
a (general) factor plus specific factors unique to the task

D.
eight distinct abilities (e.g., linguistic, musical, logical-mathematical, spatial, body-kinesthetic, interpersonal, intrapersonal, and naturalistic)

A

b. 2 general components, fluid and crystallized

42
Q

Which of the following best describes the Flynn effect (Flynn, 1998)?
Select one:

A.
IQ scores gradually decline over the lifespan.

B.
Performance IQ declines more than Verbal IQ over the lifespan.

C.
IQ test scores have gradually increased in industrialized nations in recent decades.

D.
IQ test scores have gradually decreased in industrialized nations in recent decades.

A

C.

IQ test scores have gradually increased in industrialized nations in recent decades.

43
Q

Which of the following are the routing subtests for the Stanford-Binet, 5th Edition?
Select one:

A.
Object Series/Matrices and Vocabulary

B.
Quantitative Reasoning and Memory for Sentences

C.
Vocabulary and Quantitative Reasoning

D.
Picture Absurdities and Verbal Absurdities

A

a. object series/matrices and vocabulary

44
Q

The Slosson Intelligence Test - Revised 3rd Edition for Children and Adults was developed to be a:
Select one:

A.
screening test for crystallized intelligence

B.
screening test for analytical, creative, and practical intellectual abilities

C.
measure of receptive language

D.
culture-fair measure of aptitude

A

a. screening test for crystallized intelligence

45
Q

The ____________ provides information on the four cognitive abilities identified by Luria (1980) - i.e., planning, attention, simultaneous processing, and sequential processing.
Select one:

A.
Slosson Intelligence Test Primary

B.
Cognitive Assessment System

C.
Kuhlman-Anderson Test

D.
Woodcock-Johnson IV

A

b. cognitive assessment system

46
Q

The Wonderlic Personnel Test is a:
Select one:

A.
measure of psychomotor skills

B.
measure of clerical skills

C.
brief measure of cognitive ability

D.
brief interest inventory

A

c. brief measure of cognitive ability

47
Q

Administration of the ________________ involves asking the examinee to make up stories about pictures that include one or more human figures in order to obtain information about unconscious aspects of the examinee’s personality.
Select one:

A.
Thematic Apperception Test

B.
Myers-Briggs Type Indicator

C.
Rorschach Inkblot Test

D.
Bender-Gestalt Test

A

a. thematic apperception test

48
Q

Development of which of the following personality tests was based on Murray’s 15 needs (e.g., achievement, autonomy, exhibitionism)?
Select one:

A.
16 PF

B.
MBTI

C.
EPPS

D.
NEO-PI-3

A

c. epps

49
Q

A score of 50 on the Beck Depression Inventory-II suggests:
Select one:

A.
no or minimal depression

B.
mild depression

C.
moderate depression

D.
severe depression

A

d. severe depression

50
Q

The Wisconsin Card Sorting Test is most useful for assessing _____ lobe functioning.
Select one:

A.
parietal

B.
temporal

C.
occipital

D.
frontal

A

d. frontal

51
Q

When administering the __________, the examinee is presented with a list of color names that are printed in a color that differs from the name (e.g., the name red might be printed in blue or green ink) and the examinee is asked to go through the list and say the ink color rather than read the color name.
Select one:

A.
Beery-Buktenica Developmental Test of Visual-Motor Integration

B.
Benton Visual Retention Test

C.
Stroop Color-Word Association Test

D.
Glasgow Coma Scale

A

c. stroop color word association test

52
Q

Which of the following MMPI-2 scales is considered to be a “suppressor” variable?
Select one:

A.
Cannot Say (?) Scale

B.
L (Lie) Scale

C.
F (Frequency) Scale

D.
K (Correction) Scale

A

d. K correction scale

53
Q

The use of anatomically correct dolls to determine if children have been sexually abused:
Select one:

A.
may be helpful for children who are too embarrassed to talk about their experience or who have limited verbal skills

B.
may be helpful for eliciting repressed memories from children who have been sexually abused

C.
is contraindicated because it increases sexual responses to both leading and non-leading questions from abused and non-abused children

D.
is contraindicated for younger children because the dolls can be confusing or frightening

A

A.

may be helpful for children who are too embarrassed to talk about their experience or who have limited verbal skills

54
Q

Crystallized intelligence refers to:
Select one:

A.
skills and abilities that are relatively “culture-free”

B.
skills and knowledge derived from formal and informal education

C.
abilities that are relatively independent from specific instruction

D.
abilities needed to solve novel problems

A

B.

skills and knowledge derived from formal and informal education

55
Q

Which of the following is NOT one of Gardner’s (1998) multiple intelligences?
Select one:

A.
Spatial

B.
Bodily-kinesthetic

C.
Logical-mathematical

D.
Practical

A

d. practical

56
Q

The concordance rate for IQ for fraternal twins reared together is approximately:
Select one:

A.
.39

B.
.67

C.
.58

D.
.24

A

d. 0.58

57
Q

The Seattle Longitudinal Study (Schaie, 1994) examined age-related changes in six mental abilities and found that, of these abilities, only __________ declines substantially prior to age 60.
Select one:

A.
verbal ability

B.
numeric ability

C.
inductive reasoning

D.
perceptual speed

A

d. perceptual speed

58
Q

The subtests of the Stanford-Binet, 5th Edition (e.g., vocabulary, verbal analogies, quantitative reasoning) have a mean of ___ and a standard deviation of ___.
Select one:

A.
10; 3

B.
12; 5

C.
20; 6

D.
25; 8

A

a. 10 3

59
Q

Which of the following is NOT one of the cognitive factors assessed by the Stanford Binet, 5th Edition (SB5)?
Select one:

A.
Fluid Reasoning

B.
Quantitative Reasoning

C.
Verbal Comprehension

D.
Working Memory

A

c. verbal comprehension

60
Q

The Fagan Test of Intelligence assesses which of the following?
Select one:

A.
Sensorimotor skills

B.
Visual-motor problem-solving

C.
Selective attention to novel stimuli

D.
Personal self-sufficiency

A

c. selective attention to novel stimuli

61
Q

Which of the following tests would be useful for confirming a diagnosis of Intellectual Disability?
Select one:

A.
Vineland-II

B.
Beery

C.
Wonderlic

D.
WRAT4

A

a. vineland-ii

62
Q

The Differential Aptitude Test (DAT) is used to:
Select one:

A.
assist in evaluating the creativity of children and adolescents

B.
assist in educational and career counseling for adolescents

C.
evaluate the intelligence of students with learning disabilities

D.
evaluate the intelligence of gifted children and adolescents

A

B.

assist in educational and career counseling for adolescents

63
Q

An examinee answers all items on the MMPI-2 randomly. This will produce which of the following score patterns?
Select one:

A.
High scores on the F, L, and K scales and low scores on most or all clinical scales

B.
A low score on the F scale, high scores on the L and K scales, and elevated scores on most or all clinical scales

C.
A high score on the K scale and a “sawtooth” pattern on the clinical scales

D.
A very high score on the F scale and elevated scores on most or all clinical scales

A

D.

A very high score on the F scale and elevated scores on most or all clinical scales

64
Q

The Myers-Briggs Type Indicator was derived from:
Select one:

A.
Freud’s personality theory

B.
Jung’s personality theory

C.
Murray’s 15 needs

D.
Allport’s list of personality traits

A

b. jungs personality theory

65
Q

Administration of the __________ involves two phases – the copy phase and the recall phase.
Select one:

A.
Bender-Gestalt

B.
Stroop

C.
ITPA

D.
Slosson

A

a. bender gestalt

66
Q

Development of the Illinois Test of Psycholinguistic Abilities, Third Edition (ITPA-3) was based on:
Select one:

A.
Horn and Cattell’s fluid-crystallized theory

B.
Osgood’s model of communication

C.
Sternberg’s model of “successful intelligence”

D.
Luria’s distinction between simultaneous and sequential processing

A

B.

Osgood’s model of communication

67
Q

the Embedded Figures Test is a measure of:
Select one:

A.
visual-motor integration

B.
cognitive flexibility

C.
field dependence/independence

D.
ability to alter cognitive strategies

A

C.

field dependence/independence

68
Q

The General Occupational Themes (GOT) scale of the current version of the Strong Interest Inventory provides information on which of the following?
Select one:

A.
Five personal styles

B.
30 basic occupational interests

C.
Super’s major life roles

D.
Holland’s occupational themes

A

D.

Holland’s occupational themes

69
Q

A “general representative sample” was used to develop which of the following Strong Interest Inventory scales?
Select one:

A.
General Occupational Themes

B.
Basic Interest Scales

C.
Occupational Scales

D.
College Major Scales

A

C.

Occupational Scales

70
Q

To assess the reading, spelling, and arithmetic skills of an elementary-school child who may have a learning disability, you would use which of the following?
Select one:

A.
WRAT

B.
DAT

C.
PPVT

D.
CAS

A

a. wrat

71
Q

Research on the universality of the “Big Five” personality traits has generally found that the traits are cross-culturally valid. However, of the five traits, empirical evidence for the universality of __________ is least compelling.
Select one:

A.
openness to experience

B.
neuroticism

C.
conscientiousness

D.
extraversion

A

a. openness to experience

72
Q

High scores on Scales 1 and 3 of the MMPI with a low score on Scale 2 are most suggestive of which of the following?
Select one:

A.
A somatoform disorder

B.
A psychotic disorder

C.
Alcohol abuse

D.
Schizoid reactions

A

a. somatoform disorder

73
Q

Which of the following was developed to assess the Big Five personality traits?
Select one:

A.
NEO Personality Inventory-3 (NEO-PI-3)

B.
Myers-Briggs Type Indicator (MBTI)

C.
Rorschach Inkblot Test

D.
Sixteen Personality Factor Questionnaire (16 PF)

A

A.

NEO Personality Inventory-3 (NEO-PI-3)

74
Q

A child with Autism Spectrum Disorder would most likely obtain a higher score than a peer without autism on which of the following?
Select one:

A.
Embedded Figures Test

B.
Wisconsin Card Sorting Test

C.
Tower of London Test

D.
WISC-V Arithmetic subtest

A

a. embedded figures test