Assessment Exam

Question 1

Cognitive-behavioral treatment for panic disorder involves interoceptive conditioning. This type of conditioning may include which of the following strategies?
Select one:

A.
Yelling “stop” whenever an undesirable thought occurs

B.
Maintaining a panic diary

C.
Focusing on a pleasant experience or fantasy

D.
Breathing through a thin straw

Answer 1

D.

Breathing through a thin straw

Question 2

The assumption underlying dialectical behavioral therapy (Linehan, 1993) as a treatment modality for borderline personality disorder is that the symptoms of this disorder are caused by:
Select one:

A.
pervasive emotion dysregulation.

B.
dysfunctional object relations.

C.
the depressive cognitive triad.

D.
a lack of response-contingent reinforcement.

Answer 2

A.

pervasive emotion dysregulation.

Question 3

The revised learned helplessness model proposed by Abramson, Metalsky, and Alloy (1989) identifies ____________ as the primary contributing factor for depression.
Select one:

A.
a high rate of self-punishment

B.
emotional oversensitivity

C.
the depressive cognitive triad

D.
hopelessness

Answer 3

d. hopelessness

Question 4

Desiree D., age 21, displays several active psychotic symptoms, including persecutory delusions, auditory hallucinations, incoherence, and loosening of associations. Her symptoms began suddenly three months ago, and she has no previous history of similar symptoms. Which of the following is the best diagnosis for her symptoms?
Select one:

A.
Schizophrenia

B.
Brief psychotic disorder

C.
Schizoaffective disorder

D.
Schizophreniform disorder

Answer 4

D.

Schizophreniform disorder

Question 5

The prognosis for a child with autism is best if the child:
Select one:

A.
does not have delays in motor development.

B.
displays some ability to communicate verbally by age five or six.

C.
has one or more savant abilities.

D.
does not have a family history of a mental disorder.

Answer 5

B.

displays some ability to communicate verbally by age five or six.

Question 6

The diagnosis of cyclothymic disorder for children and adolescents requires the presence of symptoms for at least:
Select one:

A.
six months.

B.
twelve months.

C.
twenty-four months.

D.
thirty-six months.

Answer 6

B.

twelve months.

Question 7

The DSM-5 diagnosis of bipolar II disorder requires which of the following?
Select one:

A.
One or more manic episodes

B.
One or more mixed episodes

C.
Manic and major depressive episodes

D.
Hypomanic and major depressive episodes

Answer 7

D.

Hypomanic and major depressive episodes

Question 8

Based on DSM-5 criteria, the diagnosis of attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) requires which of the following?
Select one:

A.
The onset of symptoms prior to 4 years of age

B.
Duration of symptoms of at least 6 months

C.
Markedly impaired academic performance

D.
Negativistic, hostile, and defiant behavior

Answer 8

B.

Duration of symptoms of at least 6 months

Question 9

According to the catecholamine hypothesis:
Select one:

A.
mania is due to a deficiency in norepinephrine.

B.
depression is due to a deficiency in norepinephrine.

C.
mania is due to excessive acetylcholine.

D.
depression is due to excessive acetylcholine.

Answer 9

B.

depression is due to a deficiency in norepinephrine.

Question 10

The prognosis for schizophrenia has been linked to several factors. Which of the following is NOT associated with a better prognosis?
Select one:

A.
Acute and late onset of the disorder

B.
The presence of a precipitating event

C.
Family history of a mood disorder

D.
Male gender

Answer 10

d. male gender

Question 11

The most effective treatment for obsessive-compulsive disorder is:
Select one:

A.
exposure therapy with response prevention.

B.
stress management with relaxation training.

C.
covert sensitization.

D.
stress inoculation training.

Answer 11

A.

exposure therapy with response prevention.

Question 12

A 45-year old woman exhibits several symptoms including autonomic hyperactivity, hand tremor, and nausea following cessation of prolonged and heavy alcohol use. A diagnosis of alcohol withdrawal delirium would be more appropriate than a diagnosis of alcohol withdrawal if the woman also exhibits:
Select one:

A.
psychomotor agitation.

B.
tonic-clonic seizures.

C.
impaired attention and awareness.

D.
tardive dyskinesia.

Answer 12

C.

impaired attention and awareness.

Question 13

According to Marlatt and Gordon (1985), which of the following result(s) from an “overlearned habit pattern”?
Select one:

A.
Parasuicidal behavior

B.
Addictive behavior

C.
Hypochondriasis

D.
Paraphilias

Answer 13

b. addictive behaviors

Question 14

Children with Tourette syndrome frequently exhibit significant problems in learning. This is most likely attributable to:
Select one:

A.
language disabilities.

B.
attention deficits and hyperactivity.

C.
lower-than-average IQ.

D.
peer and other social problems.

Answer 14

b. adhd

Question 15

A DSM-5 diagnosis of specific learning disorder requires the individual’s academic skills to be substantially below those expected for their:
Select one:

A.
chronological age.

B.
mental age.

C.
measured intelligence.

D.
academic aptitude.

Answer 15

A.

chronological age.

Question 16

As described in the DSM-5, a manic episode involves a period of abnormally and persistently elevated, expansive, or irritable mood plus:
Select one:

A.
inflated self-esteem or grandiosity.

B.
persistently increased activity or energy.

C.
involvement in activities that have a high potential for negative consequences.

D.
anxious distress.

Answer 16

B.

persistently increased activity or energy

Question 17

Ethel E., age 36, has just been offered a promotion at work. Although she wants the increase in salary and prestige of the new position, she is planning to turn down the job because it will require extensive speaking in front of large groups of employees. Ethel has avoided situations that require her to speak to groups for as long as she can remember because public speaking is a very embarrassing experience for her. Whenever she has to speak in front of others, she is extremely anxious, her heart races, her palms become sweaty, and she becomes preoccupied with the concern that she will forget what she has planned to say. Ethel’s symptoms are most suggestive of which of the following disorders?
Select one:

A.
Panic disorder

B.
Social anxiety disorder

C.
Avoidant personality disorder

D.
Obsessive-compulsive personality disorder

Answer 17

b. social anxiety disorder

Question 18

The prevalence rates of major depressive disorder are about equal for boys and girls before puberty. In adolescents and adults:
Select one:

A.
the rates for males and females remain about equal.

B.
the rate for females is about 1.5 to 3 times the rate for males.

C.
the rate for females is about 4 to 5 times the rate for males.

D.
the rate for males is about 2 to 3 times the rate for females.

Answer 18

B.

the rate for females is about 1.5 to 3 times the rate for males.

Question 19

A psychologist should not assign a diagnosis of disruptive mood dysregulation disorder for the first time if the individual is younger than _____ years of age or older than _____.
Select one:

A.
three; fifteen

B.
five; sixteen

C.
six; eighteen

D.
ten; eighteen

Answer 19

C.

six; eighteen

Question 20

Research outcomes have linked obsessive-compulsive disorder to overactivity in which of the following?
Select one:

A.
Caudate nucleus

B.
Hippocampus

C.
Suprachiasmatic nucleus

D.
Medulla oblongata

Answer 20

A.

Caudate nucleus

Question 21

A DSM-5 diagnosis of somatic symptom disorder requires the presence of one or more somatic symptoms that are distressing or cause significant disruption in daily life plus:
Select one:

A.
evidence that symptoms are not associated with a known medical condition.
Incorrect

B.
performance of excessive health-related behaviors or maladaptive avoidance of medical care.

C.
evidence that symptoms are not being feigned or voluntarily produced.

D.
excessive thoughts, feelings, or behaviors related to the symptoms.

Answer 21

D.

excessive thoughts, feelings, or behaviors related to the symptoms.

Question 22

In the DSM-5, sleep terror is included:
Select one:

A.
with the sleep-wake disorders as a separate diagnosis.

B.
as a type of rapid eye movement sleep behavior disorder.

C.
as a type of non–rapid eye movement sleep arousal disorder.

D.
as a specifier for nightmare disorder.

Answer 22

C.

as a type of non–rapid eye movement sleep arousal disorder.

Question 23

Drugs that interfere with the breakdown of ____________ are used to treat memory loss and other cognitive problems in individuals with mild to moderate Alzheimer’s disease.
Select one:

A.
norepinephrine

B.
cortisol

C.
acetylcholine

D.
dopamine

Answer 23

C.

acetylcholine

Question 24

The differential diagnosis of major depressive disorder and mild neurocognitive disorder in older adults can be difficult because of the overlap in cognitive symptoms. However, the presence of which of the following suggests that major depressive disorder is the appropriate diagnosis?
Select one:

A.
The onset of the patient’s cognitive symptoms was insidious.

B.
The severity of the patient’s cognitive symptoms increases in the evening.

C.
The patient seems unaware of their cognitive deficits.

D.
The patient is uncooperative during cognitive testing.

Answer 24

D.

The patient is uncooperative during cognitive testing.

Question 25

Rosita R., age 32, maintains systematized paranoid delusions despite a lack of evidence for her beliefs. However, she shows almost no impairment in daily functioning other than some problems that are directly related to her delusions. The symptoms began six months ago shortly after she was fired from her job. The most likely DSM-5 diagnosis for Rosita is:
Select one:

A.
paranoid schizophrenia.

B.
acute stress disorder.

C.
conversion disorder.

D.
delusional disorder.

Answer 25

D.

delusional disorder.

Question 26

A DSM-5 diagnosis of erectile disorder requires the presence of characteristic symptoms for a minimum duration of approximately _____ months.
Select one:

A.
two

B.
six

C.
ten

D.
twelve

Answer 26

b. 6

Question 27

A better prognosis for schizophrenia is associated with all of the following except:
Select one:

A.
female gender.

B.
an early onset of symptoms.

C.
a family history of a mood disorder.

D.
the presence of a precipitating event.

Answer 27

B.

an early onset of symptoms.

Question 28

In the DSM-5, the symptoms of oppositional defiant disorder are categorized into three groups. These groups are:
Select one:

A.
destruction of property, deceitfulness or theft, and serious violations of rules.

B.
negativistic, defiant, and hostile behavior.

C.
deceitfulness/dishonesty, irritability/aggressiveness, and failure to conform to social norms.

D.
angry/irritable mood, argumentative/defiant behavior, and vindictiveness.

Answer 28

D.

angry/irritable mood, argumentative/defiant behavior, and vindictiveness.

Question 29

In Berry’s bidirectional acculturation model (1993), ____________ is characterized by low involvement in one’s own minority culture and in the majority culture.
Select one:

A.
moratorium

B.
alienation

C.
separation

D.
marginalization

Answer 29

D.

marginalization

Question 30

Freud described countertransference as the analyst’s transference to the patient, which may interfere with the analyst’s functioning in therapy. More recently, psychoanalysts have begun to view countertransference as:
Select one:

A.
a detriment to the normal progression of therapy.

B.
a potential source of information about the client.

C.
an analyst’s distortion of the client’s behavior.

D.
an opportunity for the analyst to respond to the client in an authentic way.

Answer 30

B.

a potential source of information about the client.

Question 31

Researchers interested in evaluating the outcomes of psychotherapy distinguish between effectiveness and efficacy research. In contrast to effectiveness research, efficacy research:
Select one:

A.
has better internal validity but limited external validity.

B.
has limited internal validity but better external validity.

C.
has better internal and external validity.

D.
has limited internal and external validity.

Answer 31

A.

has better internal validity but limited external validity.

Question 32

Studies have shown that psychotherapy research participants in placebo control groups typically show:
Select one:

A.
greater improvement than those in no-treatment or wait-list control groups.

B.
less improvement than those in no-treatment or wait-list control groups.

C.
similar improvement to those in no-treatment or wait-list control groups.

D.
no improvement when compared to no-treatment or wait-list control groups.

Answer 32

A.

greater improvement than those in no-treatment or wait-list control groups.

Question 33

The belief that a child’s misbehavior has one of four goals—i.e., attention, revenge, power, or to display inadequacy—is most consistent with:
Select one:

A.
Beck’s cognitive-behavioral therapy.

B.
Adler’s individual psychology.

C.
Perls’s Gestalt therapy.

D.
Mahler’s object relations theory.

Answer 33

B.

Adler’s individual psychology.

Question 34

Asking the “miracle question” is an initial intervention in which type of therapy?
Select one:

A.
Transtheoretical

B.
Interpersonal

C.
REBT

D.
Solution-focused

Answer 34

D.

Solution-focused

Question 35

Solution-focused therapists utilize all of the following interventions except:
Select one:

A.
the miracle question.

B.
the exception question.

C.
reflective questioning.

D.
scaling questions.

Answer 35

C.

reflective questioning.

Question 36

For a Gestalt therapist, a primary goal of treatment is to help the client:
Select one:

A.
integrate the present with their past and future.

B.
integrate the various aspects of the self.

C.
develop a success identity.

D.
develop a healthy style of life.

Answer 36

B.

integrate the various aspects of the self.

Question 37

Research on Helms’s White Racial Identity Development Model suggests that a White therapist will usually be most successful when working with a client from an ethnic/racial minority group when the therapist is in which stage?
Select one:

A.
Reintegration

B.
Immersion-emersion

C.
Autonomy

D.
Integrative awareness

Answer 37

C.

Autonomy

Question 38

The primary goal of a newly developed community-based mental health program is to help people recently released from a psychiatric hospital adjust to life in the community. This is an example of:
Select one:

A.
primary prevention.

B.
secondary prevention.

C.
tertiary prevention.

D.
crisis intervention.

Answer 38

C.

tertiary prevention.

Question 39

Culturally sensitive approaches to psychotherapy vary from traditional approaches in that these approaches attempt to understand a client’s experience of an illness within the client’s cultural context. Thus, culturally sensitive approaches are rooted in an ____________ perspective.
Select one:

A.
emic

B.
etic

C.
emetic

D.
endogenous

Answer 39

A.

emic

Question 40

Margaret Mahler proposed that the development of a sense of self is related to:
Select one:

A.
separation-individuation.

B.
projective identification.

C.
pseudomutuality.

D.
assimilation-accommodation.

Answer 40

A.

separation-individuation.