Psy 0

Question 1

What is the treatment for methemoglobinemia?

Answer 1

Methylene blue and Vitamin C.

Question 2

What is the hallmark sign of COPD?

Answer 2

Decreased FEV1 to FVC ratio.

Question 3

What structural motifs allow for proteins to bind to DNA?

Answer 3

There are four: Helix-loop-helix, helix-turn-helix, Zinc finger motif, and Leucine zipper protein.

Question 4

What are the different RNA polymerases in eukaryotes?

Answer 4

[rmt is easy as 1,2,3.] RNA polymerase I: makes rRNA. RNA polymerase II: makes mRNA. RNA polymerase III: tRNA,

Question 5

What is the hallmark sign of a restrictive lung disease?

Answer 5

Decrease in total lung capacity and normal FEV1 to FVC ratio.

Question 6

What enzyme is responsible for tRNA charging? What enzyme catalyzes peptide bond formation?

Answer 6

Enzyme responsible for tRNA charging: Aminoacyl tRNA synthetase charges tRNA.
Enzyme responsible for catalyzing peptide bond formation: Peptidyl transferase.

Question 7

How does the emphysema caused by smoking differ from the emphysema caused by alpha1-antitrypsin deficiency?

Answer 7

Smoking causes centrilobular emphysema. Alpha1-antitrypsin deficiency causes panacinar emphysema.

Question 8

What are the causes of causes of a transudative pleural effusion?

Answer 8

CHF, Cirrhosis, nephrotic syndrome, pulmonary embolus and fluid overload.

Question 9

What are the different RNA polymerases in prokaryotes?

Answer 9

Prokaryotes only has 1 type of RNA polymerase that makes the 3 types of RNA.

Question 10

What enzyme is deficient in Lesh-Nyhan syndrome what is the treatment?

Answer 10

Hypoxanthine-guanine phosphoribosyltransferase (HGPRT). Treatment is allopurinol.

Question 11

What are the causes of an exudative pleural effusion?

Answer 11

Pneumonia, infection, TB, cancer, uremia, and connective tissue disease.

Question 12

What are the mRNA stop codons?

Answer 12

UGA, UAG, UAA. [Universidad Autonoma de Guadalajara, Universidad Autonoma de Aguascalientes, Universidad de Georgia].

Question 13

What is the differences between carbamoyl phosphate synthetase (CPS) I and CPS II?

Answer 13

CPS I: location is mitochondria, pathway is Urea cycle, and nitrogen source is ammonia. CPS II: location is cytosol, pathway is pyrimidine synthase and nitrogen source is glutamine.

Question 14

How is hnRNA processed before it leaves the nucleus?

Answer 14

5’ cap and poly-A tail added. Then the introns are removed.

Question 15

What enzyme catalyzes peptide bond formation during protein synthesis?

Answer 15

Peptidyltransferase which is a ribozyme.

Question 16

Where is the Zenker diverticulum located along the GI tract?

Answer 16

Immediately above the upper esophageal sphincter.

Question 17

Where is the Traction diverticulum located along the GI tract?

Answer 17

Near the midpoint of the esophagus.

Question 18

Where is the Epiphrenic diverticulum located along the GI tract?

Answer 18

Immediately above the Lower esophageal spincter (LES).

Question 19

What substance is important for relaxing the lower esophageal sphincter?

Answer 19

Nitric oxide.

Question 20

What is the artery of the foregut? Of the midgut? Of the rectum and distal third of the colon?

Answer 20

Foregut: celiac artery. Midgut: Superior mesenteric artery. Rectum and distal third of the colon: Inferior mesenteric artery.

Question 21

What disorder is characterized by an excess of gastrin?

Answer 21

Zollinger-Ellison syndrome.

Question 22

What characteristic finding would you see on electron microscopy of a dendritic cell with Langerhans cell histiocytosis?

Answer 22

Birbeck granules which has the appearance of tennis rackets.

Question 23

What would you expect to see under the microscope in the joint aspirate of a patient with gout? And in pseudogout?

Answer 23

Pseudogout: Positively birefringent rhomboid-shaped crystals. Gout: Negatively birefringent needle-shaped crystals.

Question 24

Where is Virchow’s node located?

Answer 24

Left supraclavicular lymph node.

Question 25

What are 3 cell types that are known for presenting antigens to T cells?

Answer 25

B-cells, dendritic cells, and macrophages.

Question 26

How do cytotoxic T cells kill virus-infected cells and neoplastic cells?

Answer 26

Induce apoptosis by releasing cytotoxic granules that have preformed proteins such as perforin and granzyme. Apoptosis can also be induced by Fas-Ligand interaction.

Question 27

A patient suffers from recurrent Neisseria infections. What complement proteins are most likely deficient?

Answer 27

Membrane-attack complex complements: C5 to C9.

Question 28

What medications are used in the treatment of an acute gout exacerbation?

Answer 28

NSAIDS: Indomethacin, ibuprofen, naproxen. Colchicine. Corticosteroids.

Question 29

What type of infection is a patient with IL-12 receptor deficiency at highest risk of developing?

Answer 29

Mycobacterial infections.

Question 30

What drugs an be used in the treatment of chronic gout?

Answer 30

Allopurinol, Probenecid, Colchicine, NSAIDs.

Question 31

What are the classic symptoms of Sjogren syndrome?

Answer 31

Xerophthalmia, Xerostomia, Arthritis.

Question 32

What are some common triggers of an acute gout exacerbation?

Answer 32

Large meals, alcohol consumption.

Question 33

What are the seronegative spondyloarthropathies?

Answer 33

[PAIR]

Psoriatic arthritis, Ankylosing spondylitis, Inflammatory bowel disease, Reactive arthritis (Reiter syndrome).

Question 34

What receptors found on gastric parietal cells regulate acid secretion?

Answer 34

H2 histamine receptors. Cholecystokinin-B receptor; responds to gastrin. M3 muscarinic receptor; responds to acetylcholine. Prostaglandin receptors and somatostatin receptor.

Question 35

What are the toxic side effects of tricyclic antidepressant use?

Answer 35

[Tricyclic Triple C]

Convulsions, coma, cardiotoxicity.

Question 36

What are some of the characteristics of polymyositis that distinguish it from polymyalgia rheumatica?

Answer 36

In polymyositis: muscle weakness, increase CK, increase aldolase, (+) ANA, (+) anti-Jo-1. In polymyalgia rheumatica, there is joint pain but no muscle pain or weakness, normal CK and aldolase.

Question 37

What drug category is often used in the treatment of myasthenia gravis?

Answer 37

Acetylcholinesterase inhibitors: pyridostigmine and physostigmine.

Question 38

What is the characteristic DNA sequence of the promotor region? What does a mutation in the sequence cause?

Answer 38

There are two DNA sequence promotors: -25 TATA box (Hogness box) and -75 CAAT box. Mutation in the promotor sequence cause less transcription of genes.