Psy 0 Flashcards
What is the treatment for methemoglobinemia?
Methylene blue and Vitamin C.
What is the hallmark sign of COPD?
Decreased FEV1 to FVC ratio.
What structural motifs allow for proteins to bind to DNA?
There are four: Helix-loop-helix, helix-turn-helix, Zinc finger motif, and Leucine zipper protein.
What are the different RNA polymerases in eukaryotes?
[rmt is easy as 1,2,3.] RNA polymerase I: makes rRNA. RNA polymerase II: makes mRNA. RNA polymerase III: tRNA,
What is the hallmark sign of a restrictive lung disease?
Decrease in total lung capacity and normal FEV1 to FVC ratio.
What enzyme is responsible for tRNA charging? What enzyme catalyzes peptide bond formation?
Enzyme responsible for tRNA charging: Aminoacyl tRNA synthetase charges tRNA.
Enzyme responsible for catalyzing peptide bond formation: Peptidyl transferase.
How does the emphysema caused by smoking differ from the emphysema caused by alpha1-antitrypsin deficiency?
Smoking causes centrilobular emphysema. Alpha1-antitrypsin deficiency causes panacinar emphysema.
What are the causes of causes of a transudative pleural effusion?
CHF, Cirrhosis, nephrotic syndrome, pulmonary embolus and fluid overload.
What are the different RNA polymerases in prokaryotes?
Prokaryotes only has 1 type of RNA polymerase that makes the 3 types of RNA.
What enzyme is deficient in Lesh-Nyhan syndrome what is the treatment?
Hypoxanthine-guanine phosphoribosyltransferase (HGPRT). Treatment is allopurinol.
What are the causes of an exudative pleural effusion?
Pneumonia, infection, TB, cancer, uremia, and connective tissue disease.
What are the mRNA stop codons?
UGA, UAG, UAA. [Universidad Autonoma de Guadalajara, Universidad Autonoma de Aguascalientes, Universidad de Georgia].
What is the differences between carbamoyl phosphate synthetase (CPS) I and CPS II?
CPS I: location is mitochondria, pathway is Urea cycle, and nitrogen source is ammonia. CPS II: location is cytosol, pathway is pyrimidine synthase and nitrogen source is glutamine.
How is hnRNA processed before it leaves the nucleus?
5’ cap and poly-A tail added. Then the introns are removed.
What enzyme catalyzes peptide bond formation during protein synthesis?
Peptidyltransferase which is a ribozyme.
Where is the Zenker diverticulum located along the GI tract?
Immediately above the upper esophageal sphincter.
Where is the Traction diverticulum located along the GI tract?
Near the midpoint of the esophagus.
Where is the Epiphrenic diverticulum located along the GI tract?
Immediately above the Lower esophageal spincter (LES).
What substance is important for relaxing the lower esophageal sphincter?
Nitric oxide.
What is the artery of the foregut? Of the midgut? Of the rectum and distal third of the colon?
Foregut: celiac artery. Midgut: Superior mesenteric artery. Rectum and distal third of the colon: Inferior mesenteric artery.
What disorder is characterized by an excess of gastrin?
Zollinger-Ellison syndrome.
What characteristic finding would you see on electron microscopy of a dendritic cell with Langerhans cell histiocytosis?
Birbeck granules which has the appearance of tennis rackets.
What would you expect to see under the microscope in the joint aspirate of a patient with gout? And in pseudogout?
Pseudogout: Positively birefringent rhomboid-shaped crystals. Gout: Negatively birefringent needle-shaped crystals.
Where is Virchow’s node located?
Left supraclavicular lymph node.
What are 3 cell types that are known for presenting antigens to T cells?
B-cells, dendritic cells, and macrophages.
How do cytotoxic T cells kill virus-infected cells and neoplastic cells?
Induce apoptosis by releasing cytotoxic granules that have preformed proteins such as perforin and granzyme. Apoptosis can also be induced by Fas-Ligand interaction.
A patient suffers from recurrent Neisseria infections. What complement proteins are most likely deficient?
Membrane-attack complex complements: C5 to C9.
What medications are used in the treatment of an acute gout exacerbation?
NSAIDS: Indomethacin, ibuprofen, naproxen. Colchicine. Corticosteroids.
What type of infection is a patient with IL-12 receptor deficiency at highest risk of developing?
Mycobacterial infections.
What drugs an be used in the treatment of chronic gout?
Allopurinol, Probenecid, Colchicine, NSAIDs.
What are the classic symptoms of Sjogren syndrome?
Xerophthalmia, Xerostomia, Arthritis.
What are some common triggers of an acute gout exacerbation?
Large meals, alcohol consumption.
What are the seronegative spondyloarthropathies?
[PAIR]
Psoriatic arthritis, Ankylosing spondylitis, Inflammatory bowel disease, Reactive arthritis (Reiter syndrome).
What receptors found on gastric parietal cells regulate acid secretion?
H2 histamine receptors. Cholecystokinin-B receptor; responds to gastrin. M3 muscarinic receptor; responds to acetylcholine. Prostaglandin receptors and somatostatin receptor.
What are the toxic side effects of tricyclic antidepressant use?
[Tricyclic Triple C]
Convulsions, coma, cardiotoxicity.
What are some of the characteristics of polymyositis that distinguish it from polymyalgia rheumatica?
In polymyositis: muscle weakness, increase CK, increase aldolase, (+) ANA, (+) anti-Jo-1. In polymyalgia rheumatica, there is joint pain but no muscle pain or weakness, normal CK and aldolase.
What drug category is often used in the treatment of myasthenia gravis?
Acetylcholinesterase inhibitors: pyridostigmine and physostigmine.
What is the characteristic DNA sequence of the promotor region? What does a mutation in the sequence cause?
There are two DNA sequence promotors: -25 TATA box (Hogness box) and -75 CAAT box. Mutation in the promotor sequence cause less transcription of genes.
