PSA Flashcards

1
Q

What is a risk factor associated with osteonecrosis of the jaw in patients on bisphosphonates?

A

poor dental hygiene

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are the adverse effects associated with bisphosphonates?

A

Oesophageal reactions e.g., oesophagitis, ulcers

Osteonecrosis of the jaw

Increased risk of atypical stress fractures

Hypocalcaemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

How should bisphosphonates be administered?

A

30 minutes before breakfast, with water on an empty stomach

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Prior to bisphosphonate therapy, what should be corrected first?

A

Correct calcium and vitamin D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Why is pioglitazone contraindicated in heart failure?

A

Causes fluid retention

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Why is verapamil contraindicated in heart failure?

A

Exerts a negative inotropic effect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Why are NSAIDs not recommended in patients with heart failure?

A

Causes fluid retention

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Lifestyle + Metformin - HbA1c target?

A

48 mmol/mol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

HbA1c target for sulfonylurea

A

<53 mmol/mol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

When should oxygen be delivered in ACS management?

A

if oxygen saturations are <94%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

How is fondaparinux administered?

A

SC injection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the preferred VTE prophylactic drug?

A

Low molecular weight heparin (LMWH) e.g., enoxaparin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Which type of heparin is indicated as VTE prophylaxis in patients with CKD?

A

Unfractionated heparin (UFH)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are the common adverse effects associated with amlodipine?

A

Diarrhoea, peripheral oedema, headache,

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What parameter is used to assess whether the digoxin dose is effective?

A

Ventricular rate at rest

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

When should the digoxin level be measured post administration?

A

at least 6 hours after the last dose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Which drug is used as an alternative to adenosine, in patients with asthma?

A

Verapamil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Which two investigations are recommended to assess for digoxin toxicity other than digoxin level?

A

ECG

Urea and electrolytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Which drugs are usually taken at night?

A

Statins and amitryptiline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Which anti-emetic is indicated in patients that have a prolonged QT interval?

A

Cyclizine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Which three anti-emetics are associated with QT prolongation?

A

Metoclopramide
Ondanestron
Haloperidol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is the first line drug for the management of shingles?

A

800 mg acyclovir oral five times daily for 7 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is the first line pain management for postherpetic neuralgia?

A

Simple analgesia e.g., paracetamol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the first line management for fluid resuscitation?

A

IV crystalloids 500 mL bolus over 15 minutes e.g., 0.9% sodium chloride

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What effect does ciclosporin have on potassium?

A

Hyperkalaemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is the investigation performed prior to starting statins?

A

Serum AST/ALT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

When should serum ALT be checked once starting statin therapy?

A

At 3 and 12 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

When should a statin be stopped in reference to serum transaminase level?

A

3 x UPPER normal limit of AST/ALT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What investigation should be performed prior to starting vancomycin?

A

Serum creatinine - renal function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is the normal reference range for lithium?

A

0.4-0.8

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

How frequently should lithium levels be measured once stabilised?

A

Every 3 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What investigations should be checked at baseline when starting methotrexate?

A

Baseline FBC and liver function tests

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

How frequently should FBC be measured in patients first starting methotrexate, until stabilisation?

A

Every 1-2 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What investigations are performed at baseline in patients starting olanzapine?

A

Blood lipids, weight and fasting blood glucose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Which investigation is important to perform in patients starting hormonal contraception?

A

Blood pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Which electrolyte should be checked prior to starting amiodarone?

A

Potassium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What baseline investigations should be performed prior to starting amiodarone?

A

Baseline X-ray due to pulmonary toxicity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

When is the 1-hour peak serum concentration for gentamicin?

A

3-5 mg/L

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What investigation should be performed in regular intervals in patients on ACEi?

A

Urea and electrolytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What investigation is performed prior to starting sodium valproate?

A

Liver function tests at baseline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

How frequent should FBC be measured in patients on clozapine?

A

Weekly for the first 18 weeks due to agranulocytosis risk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What are the two main adverse effects associated with gentamicin and vancomycin?

A

Ototoxicity
Nephrotoxicity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What visual disturbance is associated with digoxin?

A

yellow/green visual perception distortion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What are the main adverse effects associated with aspirin?

A

Peptic ulcers, and gastritis

Tinnitus in large doses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What is the early adverse effect associated with lithium?

A

Tremor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What are the late adverse effects associated with lithium?

A

Renal failure
Diabetes insipidus
Seizures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What are the commonest enzyme inhibitors (AO DEVICES)?

A

Allopurinol

Omeprazole

Disulfiram

Erythromycin

Valproate

Isoniazid

Ciprofloxacin

Ethanol

Sulphonamides

‘AODDEVICES’

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What are the commonest enzyme inducers (PC BRAS)?

A

Phenytoin
Carbamazepine
Barbituates
Rifampicin
Alcohol
Sulphonylureas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What significant adverse drug reaction is associated with metformin?

A

Lactic acidosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What adverse drug reaction is associated with monoamine oxidase inhibitors?

A

Hypertensive crisis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Which drug is contraindicated in patients taking methotrexate and why?

A

Trimethoprim - increased risk of bone marrow suppression, pancytopenia and neutropenic sepsis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What class of drug is amiloride?

A

Potassium-sparing diuretic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What effect does amiloride have on potassium?

A

Hyperkalaemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What effect does erythromycin have on INR?

A

Increases INR - Cytochrome p450 inhibitor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What is the preferred ABx for severe HAP?

A

IV Tazocin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What is the main adverse effect associated with semaglutide?

A

Nausea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What investigations should be monitored for short-course prednisolone?

A

Blood pressure and urinary glucose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What investigation should be performed prior to starting arirpriazole?

A

Serum prolactin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What investigation is performed to assess for treatment response for statins?

A

Lipid profile

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What parameter is assessed to monitor treatment response in patients with pneumonia?

A

Respiratory rate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What parameter is assessed to monitor treatment response in patients with acute exacerbation of asthma?

A

Oxygen saturations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What is measured to assess for the efficiency of furosemide in acute heart failure?

A

Weight change

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Which drugs should be discontinued before surgery?

A

Antiplatelets (aspirin), anticoagulants (heparin), and the contraceptive pill, lithium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

What should happen to short-acting insulin prior to surgery?

A

Converted to a sliding scale

65
Q

What is the maximum daily dose of paracetamol?

66
Q

What dose of alendronic acid is prescribed weekly?

67
Q

What is the daily dose of alendronic acid?

68
Q

What should happen to steroid dose pre-surgery?

69
Q

Which drugs can increase lithium toxicity?

A

Thiazide like diuretics and ACE inhibitors (reduce lithium renal excretion)

70
Q

In patients on levothyroxine replacement therapy presenting with low TSH (below reference range), what should be done to the dose?

A

Reduce levothyroxine dose

71
Q

What fluids should be prescribed to patients with hypokalaemia?

A

1 L potassium chloride over 4 hours (20 mmol) with 5% dextrose

72
Q

Over how many hours is 1L of calcium/potassium replacement delivered?

73
Q

Over how many hours is typical maintenance fluids (e..g, 1 L of 0.9% sodium chloride delivered)?

74
Q

Why should the dose of phenytoin be increased by minimum increments?

A

Phenytoin has a narrow therapeutic index

75
Q

Maximum daily dose of potassium?

A

1 mmol/kg/day

76
Q

In patients with hyperkalaemia, which investigation should be performed?

77
Q

What is the first line diabetic drug in patients with chronic kidney disease?

A

Gliclazide (sulphonylurea)

78
Q

What type of analgesia is codeine?

A

Weak opioid

79
Q

What is co-codamol?

A

Paracetamol and codeine

80
Q

Which anti-emetic is indicated for central causes of nausea and vomiting?

81
Q

What class of anti-emetic is ondanestron?

A

5HT3 antagonist

82
Q

What is the first line drug for patients with congestive acute heart failure?

A

IV furosemide 80 mg STAT

83
Q

Emergency fluid resuscitation fluids

A

0.9% sodium chloride 500 mL 10 minutes

84
Q

Emergency hypoglycaemia fluids

A

Glucose 20% 100 mL 15 minutes

85
Q

Emergency hypokalaemia fluids

A

Sodium chloride 0.9%/potassium chloride 0.3% 1 L over 4 hours

86
Q

Emergency hypercalcaemia fluids

A

Sodium chloride 0.9% 1L over 4 hours

87
Q

Over how many minutes should 20% glucose 100 mL be administered?

A

Over 15 minutes

88
Q

What is the initial fluid equation for children?

A

10mL/kg 10 minutes

89
Q

What effect does both omeprazole and alendronic acid have on stools?

90
Q

When should loperamide be taken?

A

After each loose stool

91
Q

Time duration for antidepressant effect to take place?

92
Q

Frequency of methotrexate administration

A

Once a week

93
Q

What is co-prescribed with methotrexate?

A

Folic acid

94
Q

What is the benefit of co-prescription of folic acid with methotrexate?

A

Reduced methotrexate-induced mucositis and myleosuppression

95
Q

What should be monitored during methotrexate treatment?

A

Monitor FBC, renal and liver function (reports of dyscrasias) and liver cirrhosis

96
Q

How should clozapine be discontinued?

A

Gradual dose reduction over 1-2 weeks due to risk of rebound psychosis

97
Q

Contraceptive advice for patients on isotretinoin?

A

2 complementary user-dependent forms of contraception

98
Q

What should be monitored in children on steroids?

A

Height and weight, BP

99
Q

Which class of antibiotics is contraindicated in patients on insulin?

A

Macrolides - increased risk of hypoglycaemic episodes

100
Q

Why are macrolide antibiotics contraindicated in statins?

A

Cytochrome p450 inhibitors - reduced metabolism = increased myopathy and rhabdomyolysis

101
Q

What adverse effect is commonly associated with ACE-inhibitors?

A

Dry cough due to increased bradykinin

102
Q

What effect does ibuprofen have on kidney perfusion?

A

Reduces renal artery diameter and blood flow - decreases GFR

103
Q

What is the maximum daily dose of paracetamol?

104
Q

Which is the preferred first-line anti-emetic?

105
Q

How frequently should methotrexate be prescribed?

106
Q

What is the maximum dose of citalopram for patients aged >65?

107
Q

What is the haemoglobin cut-off for blood transfusion?

108
Q

What are the common adverse effects associated with phenytoin use?

A

Gum hyperplasia and dysarthria

109
Q

In the event of ECG changes and hyperkalaemia, what is the first-line management?

A

10% calcium gluconate 30 mL, 10 minutes

110
Q

Which drug is indicated for the rate control of fast AF, in the context of known asthma?

111
Q

What is the reversible warfarin agent in patients with minor bleeding (INR 5-8)?

A

Slow injection of vitamin K

112
Q

What is a common adverse effect associated with opioid-based medication - and should be counselled on?

A

Constipation - advice additional laxatives

113
Q

Which laxative is contraindicated for opioid-induced constipation?

A

Bulk-forming laxatives

114
Q

What anti-androgen adverse effect is associated with spioronolactone?

A

Gynaecomastia

115
Q

What is the consequence of failing to rotate insulin injection sites?

A

Lipodystrophy

116
Q

What effect does excessive alcohol consumption have on glucose levels in patients with diabetes?

A

Hypoglycaemia

117
Q

Which is a common anxiolytic prescribed to pre-operative patients for anxiety?

A

2 mg diazepam oral (once-only medicine)

118
Q

What investigation should be performed prior to prescribing sodium valproate?

A

Liver function tests

119
Q

What investigation should be monitored during a phenytoin infusion?

A

ECG (and BP)

120
Q

What adverse effect does the concomitant use of NSAIDs have with methotrexate use?

A

Increase thrombocytopenia risk

121
Q

What adverse effect is associated with the concomitant use of methotrexate with trimethoprim?

A

Myelosuppression

122
Q

Frequency of methotrexate administration?

123
Q

1st line drug for the management of an Addisonian crisis?

A

IV hydrocortisone

124
Q

Metformin three times a day - surgery rule?

A

Omit lunchtime dose

125
Q

Sulfonylurea - surgery dose rule?

A

Omit morning dose

126
Q

Which anti-diabetic drug should immediately be discontinued on the day of surgery?

A

SGLT-2 inhibitors

127
Q

What is the preferred antimicrobial agent for prophylaxis during the caeserean section?

A

Cefuroxime

128
Q

Most common adverse effect associated with methotrexate (concerning)?

A

Leucopenia

129
Q

In which form is the risk of ototoxicity highest in patients taking furosemide?

A

Intravenous

130
Q

Which four drugs are associated with ototoxicity?

A

Gentamicin
Furosemide
Bumetanide
Vancomycin

131
Q

What are the common precipitants of c-difficile diarrhoea?

A

Omeprazole (PPIs)
Low magnesium
Low sodium
Antibiotics e.g., co-amoxiclav, clindamycin, ciprofloxacin, cephalosporins

132
Q

What is the antidote to opioid overdose?

A

Naloxone IM 400 micrograms

133
Q

Dose units for levothyroxine?

A

Micrograms

134
Q

Dose units for digoxin?

A

Micrograms

135
Q

What effect does phenytoin have on the combined oral contraceptive pill?

A

Phenytoin is predicted to decrease the efficacy of Combined hormonal contraceptives

136
Q

First-line drug for drug-induced Parkinsonism?

A

Procyclidine hydrochloride

137
Q

Which drug is indicated for the management of neuroleptic malignant syndrome?

A

Dantrolene or bromocriptine

138
Q

What effect do quinolones have on the QT interval?

A

QT-prolongation

139
Q

Adverse effect associated with quinolones?

A

Risk of tendon rupture
Reduce seizure threshold

140
Q

When should metformin be stopped (eGFR threshold)?

141
Q

How frequently should blood glucose be checked?

A

At least every 4 hours (>5 times/day)

142
Q

When should a double dose of levonestregel be administered for vomiting patients?

A

If vomiting occurs within 3 hours

143
Q

What is the main contraindication to ulipristal acetate?

A

Contraindicated in asthma

144
Q

What is the reversible agent for benzodiazepines?

A

Flumazenil

145
Q

Which drug is associated with floppy iris syndrome?

A

Tamsulosin

146
Q

When should lithium be discontinued pre-surgery?

A

Day before surgery

147
Q

For how long should COCP be discontinued for prior to surgery?

A

4 weeks before surgery

148
Q

When should potassium-sparing diuretics and ACE inhibitors be discontinued for surgery prep?

A

4 weeks before surgery

149
Q

How should the gentamicin dose be adjusted if the trough is >2?

A

Increase dose interval

150
Q

How should the gentamicin dose be adjusted if the peak is >10?

A

Decrease the dose

151
Q

On the day before surgery, what should be done to the long-acting insulin dose?

A

Dose reduction by 20%

152
Q

Which drug is indicated in the management of giant-cell arteritis with visual changes?

A

Intravenous Methylprednisolone 0.5-1g IV daily for 3 days

153
Q

What is the first-line management for ring-worm?

A

Clotrimazole 1% cream topical 1- application

154
Q

What is the first-line anti-emetic for nausea and vomiting during pregnancy?

A

Promethazine

155
Q

Which drugs are associated with a tremor?

A

Haloperidol, salbutamol, theophylline

156
Q

What effect does nitrofurantoin have on respiratory function?

A

Hypersensitivity reaction in acute form
Pulmonary fibrosis (long-term)

157
Q

Which antibiotic increases the risk of seizures in patients on sodium valproate?