PSA Flashcards

1
Q

What is a risk factor associated with osteonecrosis of the jaw in patients on bisphosphonates?

A

poor dental hygiene

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are the adverse effects associated with bisphosphonates?

A

Oesophageal reactions e.g., oesophagitis, ulcers

Osteonecrosis of the jaw

Increased risk of atypical stress fractures

Hypocalcaemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

How should bisphosphonates be administered?

A

30 minutes before breakfast, with water on an empty stomach

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Prior to bisphosphonate therapy, what should be corrected first?

A

Correct calcium and vitamin D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Why is pioglitazone contraindicated in heart failure?

A

Causes fluid retention

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Why is verapamil contraindicated in heart failure?

A

Exerts a negative inotropic effect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Why are NSAIDs not recommended in patients with heart failure?

A

Causes fluid retention

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Lifestyle + Metformin - HbA1c target?

A

48 mmol/mol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

HbA1c target for sulfonylurea

A

<53 mmol/mol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

When should oxygen be delivered in ACS management?

A

if oxygen saturations are <94%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

How is fondaparinux administered?

A

SC injection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the preferred VTE prophylactic drug?

A

Low molecular weight heparin (LMWH) e.g., enoxaparin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Which type of heparin is indicated as VTE prophylaxis in patients with CKD?

A

Unfractionated heparin (UFH)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are the common adverse effects associated with amlodipine?

A

Diarrhoea, peripheral oedema, headache,

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What parameter is used to assess whether the digoxin dose is effective?

A

Ventricular rate at rest

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

When should the digoxin level be measured post administration?

A

at least 6 hours after the last dose

17
Q

Which drug is used as an alternative to adenosine, in patients with asthma?

A

Verapamil

18
Q

Which two investigations are recommended to assess for digoxin toxicity other than digoxin level?

A

ECG

Urea and electrolytes

19
Q

Which drugs are usually taken at night?

A

Statins and amitryptiline

20
Q

Which anti-emetic is indicated in patients that have a prolonged QT interval?

A

Cyclizine

21
Q

Which two/THREE anti-emetics are associated with QT prolongation?

A

Metoclopramide
Ondanestron
Haloperidol

22
Q

What is the first line drug for the management of shingles?

A

800 mg acyclovir oral five times daily for 7 days

23
Q

What is the first line pain management for postherpetic neuralgia?

A

Simple analgesia e.g., paracetamol

24
Q

What is the first line management for fluid resuscitation?

A

IV crystalloids 500 mL bolus over 15 minutes e.g., 0.9% sodium chloride

25
Q

What effect does ciclosporin have on potassium?

A

Hyperkalaemia