MLA Infectious Disease Flashcards

1
Q

What is a maculopapular rash?

A

Macules up to 5 mm in diameter
-Completely Flat

Papules
- Up to 1cm in diameter, raised bumps

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2
Q

What is a vesicular rash?

A

Vesicles up to 5mm in Diameter

Clear blisters filled with fluid

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3
Q

What is a petechial and purpuric rash?

A

Flat red-brown spots (represent bleeding)
-Do not blanch
-Petechial = <2mm in diameter
-Purpuric >2 mm in diameter

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4
Q

What causes Erythema Infectiosum?

A

Parvovirus B19

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5
Q

Slapped cheeks rash is associated with what?

A

Erythema Infectiosum

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6
Q

What is the clinical manifestation of Erythema infeciosum?

A

Flu-like prodrome
Fever
Rash -Slapped cheek
Maculopapular rash on the body
-More prominent after sun or heat exposure

Resolves within a week

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7
Q

What are the complications of erythema infectiosum?

A

Anaemia

Hydrops Fetalis during pregnancy

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8
Q

How is erythema infectiosum diagnosed?

A

Parvo-B19-specific IgM antibodies
PCR

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9
Q

What is the clinical presentation of Measles?

A

-Fever, cough, coryza, and conjunctivitis.
-Rash begins on mucous membranes (Koplik spots opposite molars)
-Cephalocaudal progression of rash

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10
Q

Koplik’s spots are associated with which infectious disease?

A

Measles

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11
Q

What type of lymphadenopathy is associated with Rubella?

A

Post-auricular and sub-occipital

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12
Q

What is the most common infective cause of fever in the returning traveller?

A

Malaria

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13
Q

Which GUM disorder is associated with thin discharge and a fishy odour?

A

Bacterial vaginosis

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14
Q

Which organism is most associated with causing pelvic inflammatory disease?

A

Chlamydia Trachomatis

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15
Q

Multiple lesions localised in the parietal or frontal lobes, thalamus or basal ganglia with ring enhancement: Infective cause?

A

Toxoplasmic encephalitis

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16
Q

Most common cause of CAP in the UK

A

Streptococcus pneumoniae

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17
Q

which ABx should be avoided in children?

A

Tetraycyclines

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18
Q

Moxifloxacin is associated with what ECG abnormality?

A

Prolonged QTc

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19
Q

Painless lesion on penis?

A

Syphilis (Chacre)

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20
Q

What is the presentation of Schistosomiasis?

A

abdominal pain, haematuria and bloody diarrhoea. Chronic infection leads to an increased risk of bladder cancer

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21
Q

Which type of cancer is associated with Schistosomiasis?

A

Squamous cell bladder carcinoma

22
Q

What is the immediate diagnostic investigation for bacterial vaginosis?

A

Vaginal discharge sampling for pH (>4.5) and wet mount microscopy for clue cells

23
Q

Which nerve is associated with herpes sozter opthalmicus?

A

First division of the trigeminal nerve

24
Q

What is Hutchinson Sign?

A

Rash present on the tip of the nose - implies involvement of the nasociliary nerve

25
Why is pyridoxine prescribed with isoniazid?
Peripheral neuropathy
26
Which investigation should be performed prior to starting primaquine therapy in non-falciparum malaria?
G6PD Level
27
What type of rash is associated with mycoplasma pnuemoniae?
Erythema multiforme
28
What is the gold standard diagnostic investigation for malaria?
Thick and thin blood smears
29
What are the adverse effects associated with aminoglycoside ABx?
Nephrotoxicity Ototoxicity Neuromuscular paralysis Nausea and vomiting
30
What is the most appropriate prophylactic measure for A. lumbricoides?
Wearing protective covered footwear
31
What is the most appropriate investigation to perform on a patient positive for streptococcus bovis?
Colonoscopy
32
What CD4 count requires primary prophylaxis for pneumocystis jirovecci?
CD4 count >200
33
What is the first line of management for a patient with newly diagnosed HIV and a positive mantoux test?
Treatment of latent tuberculosis infection and antiretroviral treatment
34
Clue cells on a vaginal swab indicate which organism?
Gardnerella vaginalis
35
Which allele is associated with reactive arthritis?
HLA-B27
36
Which investigation marker is raised in pleural fluid and has a high specificity and sensitivity for tuberculosis pleurisy?
Adenosine deaminase (ADA)
37
what is the first line topical agent for scabies?
Topical permethrin
38
What is the diagnostic investigation of choice for malaria?
Microscopy of thick and thin blood films
39
Whichi investigation is used to monitor the course of HIV infection and its course of treatment?
CD4 T-cell count
40
What is a characteristic sensory feature of tertiary syphilis?
Tabes dorsalis
41
What is the first line antibiotic for neutropenic sepsis?
Intravenous tazocin
42
What is the management of choice for a pregnant mother asymptomatic for group B streptococcus?
Intravenous benzylpenicillin intrapartum
43
Mycoplasma pneumonia can cause what haemolytic disorder?
Cold autoimmune haemolytic anaemia
44
What is the first line management for herpes simplex virus infection (herpes zoster)?
Aciclovir
45
What scoring criteria is used in patients with suspected tonsillitis?
FeverPAIN
46
Which organism is associated with sudden onset nausea and vomiting within 30 minutes to 8 hours?
Staphylococcus aureus
47
What organism is implicated in Pott disease?
Mycobacterium tuberculosis
48
What is the first line antibiotic for chlamydia infection?
Doxycycline 100 mg 12-hourly for 7 days
49
Which is the most common organism associated with early onset neonatal sepsis?
Streptococcus agalactiae (Group B)
50
Which organism is associated with river blindness?
onchocerciasis
51