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MLA Flashcards > MLA Infectious Disease > Flashcards

MLA Infectious Disease Flashcards

1
Q

What is a maculopapular rash?

A

Macules up to 5 mm in diameter
-Completely Flat

Papules
- Up to 1cm in diameter, raised bumps

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2
Q

What is a vesicular rash?

A

Vesicles up to 5mm in Diameter

Clear blisters filled with fluid

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3
Q

What is a petechial and purpuric rash?

A

Flat red-brown spots (represent bleeding)
-Do not blanch
-Petechial = <2mm in diameter
-Purpuric >2 mm in diameter

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4
Q

What causes Erythema Infectiosum?

A

Parvovirus B19

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5
Q

Slapped cheeks rash is associated with what?

A

Erythema Infectiosum

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6
Q

What is the clinical manifestation of Erythema infeciosum?

A

Flu-like prodrome
Fever
Rash -Slapped cheek
Maculopapular rash on the body
-More prominent after sun or heat exposure

Resolves within a week

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7
Q

What are the complications of erythema infectiosum?

A

Anaemia

Hydrops Fetalis during pregnancy

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8
Q

How is erythema infectiosum diagnosed?

A

Parvo-B19-specific IgM antibodies
PCR

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9
Q

What is the clinical presentation of Measles?

A

-Fever, cough, coryza, and conjunctivitis.
-Rash begins on mucous membranes (Koplik spots opposite molars)
-Cephalocaudal progression of rash

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10
Q

Koplik’s spots are associated with which infectious disease?

A

Measles

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11
Q

What type of lymphadenopathy is associated with Rubella?

A

Post-auricular and sub-occipital

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12
Q

What is the most common infective cause of fever in the returning traveller?

A

Malaria

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13
Q

Which GUM disorder is associated with thin discharge and a fishy odour?

A

Bacterial vaginosis

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14
Q

Which organism is most associated with causing pelvic inflammatory disease?

A

Chlamydia Trachomatis

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15
Q

Multiple lesions localised in the parietal or frontal lobes, thalamus or basal ganglia with ring enhancement: Infective cause?

A

Toxoplasmic encephalitis

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16
Q

Most common cause of CAP in the UK

A

Streptococcus pneumoniae

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17
Q

which ABx should be avoided in children?

A

Tetraycyclines

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18
Q

Moxifloxacin is associated with what ECG abnormality?

A

Prolonged QTc

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19
Q

Painless lesion on penis?

A

Syphilis (Chacre)

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20
Q

What is the presentation of Schistosomiasis?

A

abdominal pain, haematuria and bloody diarrhoea. Chronic infection leads to an increased risk of bladder cancer

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21
Q

Which type of cancer is associated with Schistosomiasis?

A

Squamous cell bladder carcinoma

22
Q

What is the immediate diagnostic investigation for bacterial vaginosis?

A

Vaginal discharge sampling for pH (>4.5) and wet mount microscopy for clue cells

23
Q

Which nerve is associated with herpes sozter opthalmicus?

A

First division of the trigeminal nerve

24
Q

What is Hutchinson Sign?

A

Rash present on the tip of the nose - implies involvement of the nasociliary nerve

25
Q

Why is pyridoxine prescribed with isoniazid?

A

Peripheral neuropathy

26
Q

Which investigation should be performed prior to starting primaquine therapy in non-falciparum malaria?

A

G6PD Level

27
Q

What type of rash is associated with mycoplasma pnuemoniae?

A

Erythema multiforme

28
Q

What is the gold standard diagnostic investigation for malaria?

A

Thick and thin blood smears

29
Q

What are the adverse effects associated with aminoglycoside ABx?

A

Nephrotoxicity
Ototoxicity
Neuromuscular paralysis
Nausea and vomiting

30
Q

What is the most appropriate prophylactic measure for A. lumbricoides?

A

Wearing protective covered footwear

31
Q

What is the most appropriate investigation to perform on a patient positive for streptococcus bovis?

A

Colonoscopy

32
Q

What CD4 count requires primary prophylaxis for pneumocystis jirovecci?

A

CD4 count >200

33
Q

What is the first line of management for a patient with newly diagnosed HIV and a positive mantoux test?

A

Treatment of latent tuberculosis infection and antiretroviral treatment

34
Q

Clue cells on a vaginal swab indicate which organism?

A

Gardnerella vaginalis

35
Q

Which allele is associated with reactive arthritis?

A

HLA-B27

36
Q

Which investigation marker is raised in pleural fluid and has a high specificity and sensitivity for tuberculosis pleurisy?

A

Adenosine deaminase (ADA)

37
Q

what is the first line topical agent for scabies?

A

Topical permethrin

38
Q

What is the diagnostic investigation of choice for malaria?

A

Microscopy of thick and thin blood films

39
Q

Whichi investigation is used to monitor the course of HIV infection and its course of treatment?

A

CD4 T-cell count

40
Q

What is a characteristic sensory feature of tertiary syphilis?

A

Tabes dorsalis

41
Q

What is the first line antibiotic for neutropenic sepsis?

A

Intravenous tazocin

42
Q

What is the management of choice for a pregnant mother asymptomatic for group B streptococcus?

A

Intravenous benzylpenicillin intrapartum

43
Q

Mycoplasma pneumonia can cause what haemolytic disorder?

A

Cold autoimmune haemolytic anaemia

44
Q

What is the first line management for herpes simplex virus infection (herpes zoster)?

A

Aciclovir

45
Q

What scoring criteria is used in patients with suspected tonsillitis?

A

FeverPAIN

46
Q

Which organism is associated with sudden onset nausea and vomiting within 30 minutes to 8 hours?

A

Staphylococcus aureus

47
Q

What organism is implicated in Pott disease?

A

Mycobacterium tuberculosis

48
Q

What is the first line antibiotic for chlamydia infection?

A

Doxycycline 100 mg 12-hourly for 7 days

49
Q

Which is the most common organism associated with early onset neonatal sepsis?

A

Streptococcus agalactiae (Group B)

50
Q

Which organism is associated with river blindness?

A

onchocerciasis

51
Q
A

MLA Flashcards (19 decks)

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