Dermatology Flashcards

1
Q

What is Nikolsky’s sign?

A

The appearance of blisters and erosions when the skin is rubbed gently

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2
Q

What are the common drug causes of SJS?

A

penicillin
sulphonamides
lamotrigine, carbamazepine, phenytoin
allopurinol
NSAIDs
oral contraceptive pill

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3
Q

What is the first-line management of TEM?

A

Supportive care - ICU
IV Immunoglobulin

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4
Q

What is the first-line management for pyoderma gangrenosum?

A

Oral prednisolone

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5
Q

What is a Salmon Patch?

A

A vascular birthmark - a flat vascular lesion typically affecting the nape of the neck.

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6
Q

Which drugs can exacerbate plaque psoriasis?

A

Beta-blockers, lithium, antimalarials, NSAIDs and ACE inhibitors

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7
Q

What is the most common effect of isoretinoin?

A

Dry skin

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8
Q

What is the first-line management for Pityriasis versicolor?

A

Topical ketoconazole

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9
Q

What is the characteristic presentation of Pityriasis versicolor?

A

Hypo or hyperpigmented scaly macules and patches on the trunk and proximal extremities.

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10
Q

What is the first-line management for non-bullous impetigo?

A

Hydrogen peroxide cream 1%

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11
Q

What topical ABx cream is indicated in bullous impetigo?

A

Topical fusidic acid/topical mupirocin

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12
Q

How long should children be excluded from school for with diagnosed impetigo?

A

Until all lesions are crusted and healed OR 48 hours after commencing ABx management.

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13
Q

What is onycholysis?

A

Separation of the nail from the nail bed.

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14
Q

What is the first-line management of Scabies?

A

Permethrin 5% (All household and close physical contacts should be treated at the same tmie)

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15
Q

What is the first common symptom for rosacea?

A

Flushing

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16
Q

What is the management of moderate-to-severe rosacea (with papules or pustules)?

A

Combination of topical ivermectin and oral doxycycline

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17
Q

What is the first-line management of rosacea with predominant erythema/flushing?

A

Topical brimonidine gel

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18
Q

What is the NICE recommended first-line management for plaque psorasis?

A

8 weeks (Maximum) or vitamin D analogue and a potent corticosteroid

(Apply separately, one in the morning and the other in the evening).

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19
Q

What virus is responsible for molluscum contagiosum?

A

Poxviridae

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20
Q

What is the characteristic skin presentation of molluscum contagiosum?

A

Characteristic pinkish or pearly white papules with a central umbilication - up to 5mm in diameter.

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21
Q

What is the first-line management for facial hirsutism?

A

Elfornithine (Topical)

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22
Q

What is milia?

A

Small, benign, keratin-filled cysts that typically appear around the face
Most common in newborns.

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23
Q

What is the first line management for Shingles?

A

Antivirals within 72 hours of presentation
Paracetamol and NSAIDs

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24
Q

What type of rash is associated with guttae psoarsis?

A

Tear drop papules

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25
Q

What is bullous phemigoid?

A

Autoimmune condition causing subepidermal blistering of the skin

  • No mucosal involvement
    itchy tense blisters typically around the flexures
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26
Q

What is a Strawberry naevus?

A

A capillary haemangioma rapidly develops in the first month of life.

Appear as erythematous raised and multilobed tumours.

Common sites include the face, scalp and back

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27
Q

What are the most common causes of erythema nodosum?

A

NO – idiopathic
D – drugs (penicillin sulphonamides)
O – oral contraceptive/pregnancy
S – sarcoidosis/TB
U – ulcerative colitis/Crohn’s disease/Behçet’s disease
M – microbiology (streptococcus, mycoplasma, EBV and more)

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28
Q

What specific patch is associated with pityriasis rosea?

A

Herald patch

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29
Q

What causes tinea veriscolor?

A

Malassezia furfur

30
Q

Circular oval areas of hair loss with an autoimmune aetiology

Diagnosis?

A

Alopecia areata

31
Q

What is the first line medical management for alopecia areata?

A

Potent topical corticosteroid (e.g., betamethasone valerate 0.1%, or clobetasol propionate 0.05%) for 3 months.

32
Q

Papules, pustules and scarring is associated with what severity of acne?

A

Severe acne

33
Q

Non-inflamed (Open and closed comedones) is associated with what type of acne vulgaris?

A

Mild

34
Q

What term describes severe acne found in men characterised by extensive inflammatory papules and suppurative nodules?

A

Conglobate acne

35
Q

What is the first line of maangement for mild-to-moderate acne?

A

12-week course of: Fixed combination of topical adapalene + topical benzoyl peroxide

OR
* Fixed combination of topical tretinoin + topical clindamycin.
OR
* Fixed combination of topical benzoyl peroxide + topical clindamycin.

36
Q

What is the first-line therapy for moderate to severe acne?

A
  • A fixed combination of topical adapalene + topical benzoyl peroxide OD in the evening (together with either oral lymecycline 408 mg or oral doxycycline 100 mg).
  • Topical tretinoin with topical clindamycin
37
Q

If first-line management of acne fails, what is next line?

A

Following a 12 week course, consider stopping if completely cleared or continue for another 12-week (alternative course)

38
Q

What is the referral dermatology criteria for mild-to-moderate acne management?

A

Following 2 failed 12-week courses

39
Q

What is the recommended drug for the management of severe acne?

A

isotretinoin

40
Q

Which oral antibiotics is recommended for acne?

A

oral lymecycline 408 mg or oral doxycycline

41
Q

What is the maximum duration for the use of topical antibiotics?

A

2 x 12 week courses

42
Q

What is the most common cause of boils?

A

Staph aureus

43
Q

An infection of the hair follicle with purulent extension into the subcutaneous tissue is the definition of what?

A

Boils

44
Q

What is a carbuncle?

A

Occurs when several adjacent boils join beneath the skin – inflammatory mass that drains pus through many follicular orifices.

45
Q

What are the common sites of boils?

A

Boils occur in hair-bearing sites e.g., face, neck, axilla or buttocks.

46
Q

A firm, tender erythematous nodule that is boggy and associated with hair follicles is what?

A

Boils

47
Q

A yellow-grey irregular crater that is slow healing and dome-shaped is what?

A

carbuncle

48
Q

What is the first line management for large/fluctuant boils?

A

Urgent incision

49
Q

What is the first-line management for boils?

A

Moist heat three times a day - and apply sterile dressing once pus is drained

50
Q

What disorder is characterised as facial flushing, persistent erythema and telangiectasia?

A

Rosacea

51
Q

Which drugs worsen rosacea?

A

Calcium-channel blockers

52
Q

What is the first line management for persistent erythema in rosacea?

A

Topical brimonidine 0.5% gel (topical alpha-adrenergic agonist)
- Reduces erythema within 30 minutes (reaching peak action at 3-6 hours).

53
Q

What is the management of mild to moderate rosacea?

A

Topical ivermectin (an anthelmintic and insecticidal) OD for 8-12 weeks.

54
Q

What is the management of moderate-to-severe papules and pustules in rosacea?

A

Combination of ivermectin AND oral doxycycline 40 mg OD for 8-12 weeks.
a. Alternatives: Oxytetracycline 500 mg BDS, or tetracycline, or erythromycin.

55
Q

What is the aetiology of urticaria?

A

Mast-cell mediated release of histamine (type 1 hypersensitivity)

56
Q

How is severity of urticaria assessed?

A

Urticaria Activity Score7

57
Q

What is the first line management of urticaria?

A

Non-sedating antihistamine (e.g., cetirizine, fexofenadine, or loratadine) for up to 6 weeks.

58
Q

Which drug is associated with necrotising fasciitis?

A

SGLT-2 inhibitors

59
Q

Which score is used to determine the diagnosis of necrotising fasciitis?

A

LRINEC score

60
Q

What is the first line management of necrotising fasciitis?

A

Emergent radical debridement and broad-spectrum anbiotics

61
Q

What are the physical findings observed in necrotising fasciitis?

A

Crepitus and subcutaneous emphysema

62
Q

Which premalignant condition is associated with chronic UV sun exposure?

A

Actinic keratoses

63
Q

What is the diagnosis of an irregular red scaly papule/plaque on sun-exposed regions?

A

Actinic keratoses

64
Q

What is the first line medical management for actinic keratoses?

A

Fluorouracil cream

65
Q

Which cancer is associated with pearly nodules + telangiectasia?

A

Basal cell carcinoma

66
Q

What is the management of basal cell carcinoma?

A

Routine dermatology referral for surgical removal

67
Q

What is the most common form of skin cancer?

A

Basal cell carcinoma

68
Q

An ill-defined keratotic or warty inflamed papules that ulcerate easily describes which type of cancer?

A

Squamous cell carcinoma

69
Q

Tumour diameter by >x cm increases the risk of SCC?

A

> 2 cm

70
Q

What is the surgical excision dimensions for lesions <20 cm squamous cell carcinoma in diameter?

A

4 mm margins

71
Q

What are the surgical excision margins for >20 cm squamous cell carcinoma?

A

6 mm

72
Q

What is the definitive surgical management for squamous cell carcinoma?

A

Mohs micrographic surgery for high-risk patients