Protective Custody Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
1
Q

Community caretaking justifies detaining a person who may be

A

Lost disoriented or missing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

A person is incapacitated if they drink alcohol and is either (4):

A

Disorderly
unconscious
in need of medical attention
likely to cause physical harm or damage property
(DUMP)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the standard for “disorderly” for protective custody?

A

The same as the criminal charge

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Is intoxication equivalent to incapacitation

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the level of information needed to trigger sobriety testing for PC?

A

Reasonable suspicion of incapacitation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Can someone be removed from their home solely to be placed in protective custody?

A

Yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What amount of force is authorized during PC?

A

Reasonable force

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

If a subject resist being placed in protective custody, what charge can you consider?

A

A& B on police officer or interfering

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

If a PC is transported back home and left with a sober party what does that person need to provide?

A

Their name and relationship for the report

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

A treatment facility for protective custody is any private or public place providing services, especially designed for

A

The detoxification of intoxicated persons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

A PC may be brought to the police station. May they also be brought to a county jail or house of corrections?

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Can a police PC refuse transport or treatment?

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

The good Samaritan immunity law for alcohol, only applies to people aged

A

Under 21

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

The good Samaritan immunity law for alcohol protects people under 21 from being charged with (3) if the evidence was gained as a result of seeking medical assistance

A

Furnishing “social host”
procurement/attempted procurement minor in possession

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Does immunity apply to adults 21 and over who host underage parties

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Once at the station, when does a PC need to be informed of their right to a phone call and allowed phone use?

A

Immediately

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

If a PC is under 18 when does a parent or guardian need to be notified?

A

As soon as possible

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Regarding a PC when is it necessary to determine if there’s treatment available?

A

Every time a person is brought to the station

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the legal limit to establish incapacitation?

A

.10 or above

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What BT result authorizes sobriety testing for a PC

A

0.6-0.9

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What BT result entitles a PC to immediate release

A

0.5 or below

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What BT result for a minor determines if they need to be released to a parent, guardian or other adult

A

Any BT reading

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

For protective custody do officers need to use a PBT or a BT

A

Either

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

The difference between a BT test for protective custody versus oui is that a valid test for OUI requires:

A

Infrared device

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

If officers have a choice between using a BT or PBT for a PC, which should they choose?

A

BT but they can use either

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Can officers inventory a PC’s personal possessions?

A

Yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

For adult PCs 18 and over what are the first and second priorities

A

1st priority treatment
2nd priority hold in Cell until sober or no longer than 12 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Officers should not hold those in PC longer than 12 hours without at least: (3):

A

1.Considering whether they can be safely released
2. Considering whether to transport them home
3.Re-booking them for another period of confinement using the complete PC process

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What are the top three priorities for minors under 18 that are in protective custody?

A

1st release minor up upon request of parent or guardian
2nd treatment available transport minor to facility
3rd if treatment unavailable, hold minor and nonsecure detention

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

If a parent or guardian arrives incapacitated or unable to act responsibly, when picking up a minor PC, what should you do?

A

Hold the child and call DCF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

How long can a minor PC be placed in a cell?

A

Never

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

If a minor PC is being held at the station where should they be kept?

A

In an unlocked area under continuous visual supervision

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Police should not be held criminally or civilly liable for PCs if they are acting:

A

In a reasonable manner

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What could result in being held liable regarding protective capacity?

A

Failure to act

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Drug incapacitation refers to a person who consumed a controlled substance, toxic vapor or substance other than alcohol and is either (4):

A

Disorderly
unconscious
in need of medical attention
likely to cause physical harm or damaged property
(DUMP)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Should people being taken into protective custody for drug incapacitation be handcuffed?

A

Yes, and cuffing is permissible and advised

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Can officers search the subject and immediate surroundings of someone being placed into protective custody or drug capacitation?

A

Yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Officers can search a drug PC and their immediate surroundings to (2)

A

Discover weapons
facilitate on scene treatment (ex: searching handbag to determine what drugs were ingested)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Can an officer search an overdosing woman’s handbag to determine what she had taken

A

Yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Does an officer need consent to have a drug PC brought to an emergency medical facility?

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

If someone calls for help because another person is overdosing who is covered under the good Samaritan immunity

A

The person who called and the person overdosing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

If a police officer calls for an ambulance because someone is overdosing, are they covered under the good Samaritan immunity law?

A

Yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

The good Samaritan immunity law for drugs does not prevent prosecution for what crimes:

A

Distribution, possession with intent to distribute, trafficking or any other crime (oui)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

The basis for the good Samaritan community law was research done by:

A

Department of Public health showing drug users failed to call 911 because they feared criminal prosecution

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

How long does custody last for a drug PC?

A

Through transport and emergency treatment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

An overdose patient must be examined by a physician before release or the physician must:

A

Explain in writing why the evaluation did not occur

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What is the best practice for getting a drug PC to a treatment facility?

A

Have EMS transport and accompany/follow ambulance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What is the best practice for getting a drug PC to a treatment facility?

A

Have EMS transport and accompany/follow ambulance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Does the law define the method of transport for drug PC?

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Who has the legal authority to place a subject into protective custody?

A

The officer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Can a police officer delegate to EMS or healthcare clinic clinicians to put a subject into protective custody

A

No, only the officer can do it

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Can a drug PC refuse transport and treatment?

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Can a drug PC at times be transported to the station or their home?

A

No never

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Is an alcohol PC or a drug PC considered an arrest crime?

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Do police have to write an incident report for alcohol and drug PCs?

A

For alcohol they may
for drugs they must

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What should be included in a report for an alcohol PC

A

The subject behavior that led officers to believe they were incapacitated and who took custody

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What should be included in a drug PC report?

A

The date time and behavior that lead officers to believe the subject was incapacitated. Should also include where they were transported.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Naloxone is an _________ known by its brand-name narcan

A

Opioid Antagonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

DPH allows officers to administer nasal Narcan if they are

A

Properly trained

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What does Narcan do?

A

Reverse the effects of an opiate overdose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

If someone is given Narcan and then refuses transport to a hospital, what should happen?

A

They should be placed into protective custody

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Medical evaluation is ________ for someone who receives Narcan

A

Mandated, either voluntarily or PC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What are the four reasons why medical evaluation is mandated after someone receives Narcan?

A

1.Near fatal overdose is evidence of in capacitation
2.Effects of Narcan may be temporary
3.Narcan can cause withdrawal and make person person reuse
4.Releasing person is public safety risk because they could try to drive a car

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Police liability for drug PC generally stems from (2):

A

Failing to act or excessive force

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

The juvenile expose to drug statute only applies when the juvenile is present with what drug class

A

A, B or C
Not D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

For juvenile exposed to drugs statute, what level of knowledge must officers have that a child under 18 is knowingly presently a controlled substance (A, B or C)

A

Reasonably believe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

How long may a minor be held in protective custody for drugs?

A

No longer than four hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Can a minor PC for drugs be held at a police station?

A

Yes, no longer than four hours in an unlocked area under continuous visual supervision

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

When should a minor PC for drugs be released to a parent or guardian

A

As soon as possible

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Does an injured citizen in the field have the right to refuse medical treatment

A

Yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

What is the emergency exception where a person does not have the right to refuse medical treatment (3)

A
  1. unconscious or incompetent therefore can’t decide
    2.Delay to gain consent risks death or serious, bodily injury
    3.Under the circumstances, a reasonable person would want treatment
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Use of force during a medical emergency must be ______ in relation to the subject medical condition

A

Reasonable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Is a taser drive-stun reasonable force for someone experiencing a diabetic emergency

A

Yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Does someone have to be unconscious in order to refuse transport for medical treatment?

A

No, (for example, person may be highly intoxicated, involved in a head-on car crash and seriously injured)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Many people with mental illness, have episodic illness meaning

A

They have good and bad days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Mental illness may interfere with (4)

A

Perception
judgment
behavior
ability to relate to other

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

When extreme behaviors occur, you should not assume that the emotionally disturbed person is a criminal, consider the possibility of a

A

Mental health disorder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Are people with mental health needs more violent than the general population?

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

If someone with mental illness becomes aggressive, it is usually because they feel

A

Frightened, confused or hopeless

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

When does maintaining safety for a mentally ill person become especially challenging? (2)

A
  1. Stop taking prescribe medication
  2. has dual diagnosis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

What does dual diagnosis mean?

A

Major mental health disorder, and a substance abuse problem

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

What percentage of emotionally disturbed persons are arrested by police at some point in their lives

A

40%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Who often has the best information for an EDP?

A

Individuals on scene who know the EDP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

What is the overall goal when dealing with EDP?

A

Least intrusive intervention consistent with public, EDP, and officer safety

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Can officers arrest a mentally ill person if they have probable cause and right of arrest

A

Yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

Does a mental health condition nullify probable caused to arrest or charge

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

Do officers have to take into account an offenders mental condition in their charging decision

A

No, they may take it into account but they don’t have to

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

For a more serious crime, what should Police do with a mentally ill offender?

A

Arrest or at least charge and get help for him

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

What does charging a mentally ill offender in serious cases help ensure

A

Public safety in the event they fail to comply with treatment or get released prematurely

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

For mentally ill offenders, the prosecutor must be allowed to go forward as long as:

A

Police have probable cause

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

For defendants that have been charged or arrested when will their mental status be addressed?

A

Post arraignment as part of the trial process

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

Sometimes the best way to help an EDP is to:

A

Suggest voluntary commitment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

Under 123/10 voluntary commitment may be sought by:
1. a person at least ___ years old,
2. a ____________ on behalf of a person under 18
3. court appointed guardian on behalf of a person under his care ages ____

A
  1. 16
  2. Parent or guardian
  3. No age limit
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

Can a parent or guardian withdraw their child from a facility for treatment?

A

Yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

In extreme cases, a patient may be held beyond three days if the facility files a:

A

Petition for long-term commitment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

Are officers required to leave a hospital room so a defendant can speak with a psychotherapist alone

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

If an officer is present during a psychotherapist evaluation, the defendant statements are typically in admissible unless the court rules that:

A

The interest of justice require that the communication be disclosed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

Involuntary commitment must be based on _______ due to mental illness

A

Likelihood of serious harm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

Likelihood of serious harm for a section 12 includes (3):

A

Danger to self, danger to others, inability to protect self

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

An EDP may be sectioned if they present a _______ risk of physical harm to himself

A

Substantial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

A EDP may be sectioned if they present a ______ risk of physical harm to others

A

Substantial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

An EDP maybe sectioned if they present a _______ risk of injury to himself based on the inability to protect self

A

Very substantial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

If a mental health facility is discharging a child the facility must provide a parent or guardian with ___days notice

A

14

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

For a section 12 the likelihood of serious harm must be the result of:

A

Mental illness
Does not include alcohol or substance abuse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

Section 12 is for a maximum commitment of ___ days

A

3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

What time of day may an officer restrain an EDP who they believe poses a likelihood of serious harm?

A

Any time of day or night

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

If an EDP refuses examination, can a clinician still issue in order for commitment

A

Yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

Four categories of commitment for section 12

A

1.Clinician issues based on exam 2. clinician issues in an emergency (no exam)
3. officer issues
4. judge issues warrant of apprehension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

Who may apply to a district or juvenile court for a commitment order under section 12

A

Any person

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

A judge may issue a warrant of apprehension of an EDP who poses a likelihood of

A

Serious harm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

When must a warrant of apprehension be executed for an EDP?

A

During the day when court is in session

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

How long do police have to serve a warrant of apprehension for an EDP?

A

It typically says on the warrant usually 5 to 7 business days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

If there’s a warrant of apprehension for an EDP and it is after hours, what can Police do (2)

A
  1. Direct them to go to court the next day
  2. Section them
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

Can officers enter private homes to place an EDP into protective custody/serve a section 12 if ordered by judge or clinician

A

Yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

Since EDP‘s can be an unpredictable group, what should officers do before serving a section?

A

Obtain information from the court, clinician, or family

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

What can help avoid a tragic result when serving section 12

A

Considering potential difficulties before please enter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

Where should EDP’s be transported?

A

Order issued by a clinician-bring to appropriate facility
Order issued by Judge-bring to court

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

A clinician for the purpose of section 12 refers to a (4)

A

Physician, psychiatric nurse psychologist or licensed social worker

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

Can officers handcuff an EDP

A

Yes, but they should avoid unnecessary restraint

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

In order for an officer to decide to take an EDP into custody, they must have ______ that the EDP poses a likelihood of serious harm

A

Probable cause
(common sense determination)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

If Police have time to consult with a clinician prior to entering an EDP‘s home they have _______ for their entry

A

Independent support

122
Q

If exigent circumstances make consulting with a clinician impractical before taking an EDP into custody, officers should

A

Seek consent from an occupant to enter; if that fails force entry

123
Q

Where should an officer fill out a section 12 application form

A

At the hospital

124
Q

Restraints may be used on an adult for up to ___ hours prior to examination

A

2

125
Q

Restraints may be used on a minor for up to ___ hours before examination

A

1

126
Q

Are officers allowed to restrain EDP patients being sectioned

A

Yes

127
Q

Can officers use force to transport a person to a hospital for evaluation?

A

Yes

128
Q

Officers are immune from civil suits for restraining, transporting or admitting a person to a facility if they:

A

Act in good faith

129
Q

Use of force decisions for an EDP must take into account the subjects:

A

Mental condition

130
Q

Who may initiate an involuntary or voluntary transfer of a prisoner to a mental health facility?

A

The OIC

131
Q

Who can petition the court for a section 35?

A

Police officer, physician, spouse, blood relative, guardian, court official

132
Q

Can a section 35 be issued for someone that abuses inhalants?

A

Yes

133
Q

A person can apply for a section 35 if they believe that a person is a ______alcoholic or substance abuser

A

Chronic

134
Q

Like a section 12, the benefit of a section 35 is that it gives officers:

A

The choice of taking matters into their own hands or calling another party to initiate the process

135
Q

How long does a section 35 remain active?

A

Five consecutive days excluding days when court is closed

136
Q

Is home entry justified to serve a section 35

A

Yes

137
Q

If a person is apprehended for section 35 when must they be presented before a judge?

A

Immediately

138
Q

Section 35 allows for a commitment up to _____ days

A

90

139
Q

A person held under a section 35 is housed separately from convicted criminals and may be released by ________ prior to the end of 90 days

A

Superintendent

140
Q

For a long-term hospitalization, the __________ must petition the court

A

Facility superintendent

141
Q

Before a person with a section 35 is committed they are evaluated at court and:

A

Given a hearing with counsel

142
Q

If a facilities superintendent petitions the court for longer hospitalization, and court agrees, the initial stay is for another:

A

6 months. Commitment is reviewed annually after that

143
Q

For longer-term hospitalization, the standard is:

A

Proof beyond a reasonable doubt

144
Q

For a mental health, patient missing from a Massachusetts facility, the ________ (2) dictates action

A

Length of absence and reason for commitment

145
Q

Officers should return a missing patient to a mental health facility if they have been absent for less than:

A

6 months

146
Q

If a missing patient is absent from a mental health facility beyond six months, should they be automatically returned?

A

No, facility staff should obtain a judicial review before commitment

147
Q

A patient must always be returned to a facility, regardless of length of absence if (2):

A

They were committed after being found incompetent to stand trial
or not guilty by reason of insanity

148
Q

Officers may detain a person who escaped from an out-of-state mental health facility and may be dangerous. Officers should hold the person and alert the district attorneys office to begin _________ proceedings

A

Rendition

149
Q

At what age can a child be placed into protective custody for running away from legal custodian?

A

6-under 18

150
Q

For a runaway juvenile who is considered a legal custodian

A

Parent, guardian or agency who is responsible for child welfare (DCF)

151
Q

What level of knowledge is needed to place a juvenile into protective custody for running away?

A

Probable cause that child has run away and will not respond to a summons

152
Q

Is a prior episode of running away required in order for officers to establish probable cause to PC juvenile for running away

A

No. Simply must believe child is likely to run away again without their intervention

153
Q

Officers must PC a child named in a warrant of protective custody if they can deliver the child to ________ no later than _____

A

Juvenile court
430pm

154
Q

Does a warrant of protective custody (WPC) appear in the warrant management system (WMS)

A

No

155
Q

How do officers receive a warrant of protective custody?

A

The court sends it to the police department in the community, where the child lives

156
Q

Where on the WPC warrant does the 4:30 PM deadline appear?

A

On the face of the WPC

157
Q

If officers find a child named in a WPC after hours, they may (2):

A
  1. Inform the child (and parent or guardian) about the WPC and direct them to go to court the next day
  2. place the child into protective custody as a runaway (if applicable) and execute the WPC the next day
158
Q

Can police PC a child for truancy

A

No

159
Q

Can Police PC a child for failing to obey a legal custodian?

A

No

160
Q

Can police PC a child for failing to obey school regulations

A

No

161
Q

Can police PC a child for violating a local curfew

A

No

162
Q

When taking a child into custody, they are more likely to cooperate if they sense that:

A

Officers are non-judgmental

163
Q

Children find it easier to accept a decision that is motivated by the officers concern for their welfare and:

A

Is legally justified

164
Q

When taking children into custody, listen to them, but avoid debating:

A

The merits of their case

165
Q

When should officers handcuff a child when taking them to protective custody as a runaway?

A

Never

166
Q

Should officers search a child for weapons or contraband prior to placing them into protective custody?

A

Yes

167
Q

When an officer transports a juvenile for protective custody, where should the juvenile be placed inside the cruiser?

A

Secure back seat area of cruiser

168
Q

Children and protective custody should only be charged as a:

A

Last resort

169
Q

For the child who is significantly noncompliant during PC process officers may consider charging (2):

A

Interfering with police officer
A&B public employee

170
Q

Once encountered by police can juvenile runaways, then commit other offenses

A

Yes (ex kicked officer)

171
Q

When an officer executes a warrant of protective custody (WPC) they should transport the child to:

A

Court that issued the warrant no later than 4:30 PM

172
Q

When an officer decides to PC a runaway, the law mandates placing the child in the following order of preference:

A
  1. Childs legal parent or guardian
  2. Temporary licensed shelter
  3. Juvenile court
173
Q

If an officer decides to PC the juvenile runaway, the child may be brought directly home or to the police station in order to facilitate placement with parent, guardian or other:

A

Reasonable person known to the child

174
Q

If a juvenile runaway PC is brought to the station, the reasoning should be explained in:

A

The police report

175
Q

When a juvenile runaway PC is released to a parent or other responsible person, that person must:

A

Promise in writing to bring the child to court the next day

176
Q

If a child cannot be reunited with their legal custodian or other responsible person dial ____ and use the ___________program

A

211
Runaway assistance program

177
Q

If officers have tried and are unable to release a juvenile to a guardian or temporary licensed shelter, they should bring the child to juvenile court and sign:

A

Sign the affidavit

178
Q

Can a juvenile PC brought to the station behind handcuffed

A

No

179
Q

A juvenile PC that is brought to the station should be held in a _______ multi-purpose area

A

Unlocked

180
Q

What length of time should juvenile PCs be held at the station?

A

Only the time necessary to get them to a legal custodian, responsible, person, approved, shelter or court

181
Q

How often does a juvenile PC need to be checked on while held at the station?

A

Under continuous visual supervision

182
Q

Children should only be transported in a _________, NOT a _____

A

Marked or unmarked cruiser
Not a police wagon

183
Q

Is it permissible to transport a juvenile and adult together?

A

No

184
Q

Police may request DCF assistance by either removing the child from the situation and notifying DCF or:

A

Keeping the child at the location and notifying DCF for removal decision

185
Q

Do police have to file a 51A if DCF response to the scene

A

Yes

186
Q

Can officers wait until they’re at the station to call 211 or make other placement efforts for juveniles?

A

Yes

187
Q

The law only prohibits bringing a runaway child to the station ______ an officer decides to place the child with a shelter

A

After

188
Q

Officers may justify bringing a runaway child to the station as long as it is ______ to a shelter placement

A

Prior

189
Q

DCF can petition the court that there is a reasonable cause that the child is suffering from or in immediate danger of __________, and _________is necessary to protect the child

A

Serious abuse or neglect
Immediate removal

190
Q

Court may order transfer of the child to DCF custody for up to ____ hours

A

72

191
Q

Once a child is placed into DCF custody, there is a follow up hearing where the court decides if temporary custody should continue. The standard of proof is:

A

Preponderance of the evidence

192
Q

Elder protective service caseworkers, and officers may not enter a home without (3)

A

Consent
emergency
court order

193
Q

An elder is entitled to _____ notification that investigation is being conducted

A

Written

194
Q

If officers accompany an Elder caseworker to way home and are not given consent, they may only enter if they have _________ that the elder is an imminent danger of death or serious barley injury

A

Reasonable suspicion

195
Q

If an animal is impounded for cruelty or fighting, the police or prosecutor may file a petition with the court requesting that the owner:

A

Post a security payment for the animals care

196
Q

A citizen must ______ before forcing entry into a vehicle to protect an animal

A

Call 911

197
Q

What public safety officials can forcibly enter a vehicle to protect an animal due to stream heat or cold

A

Police officer
animal control officer
firefighter

198
Q

When a detainee arrives at the station, he must be properly booked. A detainee refers to anyone who has:

A

Been arrested or placed into protective custody

199
Q

Booking includes (3):

A

Fingerprints
photographs
inventory of property

200
Q

The primary purpose for the booking process is:

A

To identify the detainee

201
Q

The booking procedure is important to the detainee because it creates a _________ which allows his family, friends, and Attorney to determine his whereabouts

A

Public record of arrest

202
Q

Does a detainee have to be told booking is being videotaped

A

No

203
Q

Does a detainee have to be accurately informed why he was arrested?

A

Yes

204
Q

Following arrest and once in booking, are police obligated to provide a copy of an arrest warrant on request?

A

Yes

205
Q

If someone came to the station prior to being arrested, their telephone rights are triggered by

A

Formal arrest

206
Q

If a person is arrested in the field, they must be allowed to use the telephone within 1 hour of:

A

Arrival at the station

207
Q

If a person voluntarily accompanied officers to the station, does their right to a telephone begin at time of Miranda warnings or at time of formal arrest

A

Formal arrest

208
Q

While officers may wait until formal arrest to advise suspect of right to a phone call, they may not deliberately _____ arrest to take advantage of a suspect

A

Delay

209
Q

Does a right to a phone call still apply when the suspect is already incarcerated on another matter

A

No

210
Q

A defendant was in custody on an unrelated matter when police arrived at the house of correction to question him for a murder. Was the defendant entitled to a phone call prior to this interrogation

A

No

211
Q

Does the right phone call apply to arrests made out of state or initially by federal authorities?

A

The SJC has not decided

212
Q

If a detainee reports that the police intentionally withheld their right to a phone call, who has the burden of proof

A

The detainee

213
Q

What happens to evidence gained from intentionally withholding a phone call?

A

Surpressed

214
Q

What is the purpose of documenting the phone number that a detainee calls?

A

Confirms the detainee was afforded the right, and protects against unauthorized use of station phones

215
Q

Can detainees make their phone call from police cell phone

A

Yes

216
Q

Do officers have to inform detainees if they are given a phone that records outgoing calls

A

Yes notify them in advance

217
Q

Never record (and listen to) detainees phone call unless

A

He is notified

218
Q

Is there a requirement that a detainee is permitted to make a private phone call

A

No

219
Q

Are officers allowed to testify about information they overhear when detainee is making their phone call?

A

Yes

220
Q

While on the station phone, Police heard a murder defendant comment to his girlfriend. “I fucked up I fucked up.” Can officers testify to this statement

A

Yes

221
Q

The ____ of a police lockup shall _______ examine a detainee for injuries

A

OIC
Immediately

222
Q

If the OC finds any bruises, cuts or other injuries on a detainee, they must:

A

Write a report to the chief

223
Q

Police are liable for their deliberate _________ to the medical needs of any detainee

A

indifference

224
Q

Does the requirement that a detainee be examined for injury include the removal of clothing?

A

No

225
Q

The requirement to examine a detainee for injury, only applies to the ________ after arrest

A

First lockup

226
Q

When a detainee shows signs of opioid intoxication officers must

A

Provide medical care

227
Q

Does a suspects admission to taking opioids 30 minutes before arrest, their struggle to stand for booking, and slumping over enough to require officers provide medical care

A

Yes

228
Q

Whenever a person in police custody commits suicide or dies, the ____ must write a report and send it to the medical examiner within ____ days

A

OIC
7 days

229
Q

If a person in lockup threatens or attempts suicide, the ____ must describe the event in CJIS within ____

A

OIC
24 hours

230
Q

If a person in lockup threatens or attempts suicide, the OIC must describe the event in CJIS, and provide ______ to any lock up the subject is transferred to

A

Written report

231
Q

The law mandates that desk officers must be able to ___ what is going on inside cells

A

Hear

232
Q

The law mandates that ____ cell must contain an electronic audio system

A

1

233
Q

An Officer must check each cell at reasonable intervals, recommended no longer than:

A

30 mins

234
Q

Detainees present a _____ risk of suicide

A

High

235
Q

Are Police required to receive training and suicide prevention

A

Yes

236
Q

Police must take ____ verbal threats and physical gestures of suicide seriously

A

Any

237
Q

Detainees must be protected from sexual abuse. This is mandated by a federal law known as the:

A

Prison rape elimination act (PREA)

238
Q

The PREA says all police agencies must screen detainees to determine whether they are vulnerable to:

A

Sexual abuse and take steps to protect them

239
Q

Detainees must have _____ ways to report sexual abuse, including to an entity outside the police agency

A

Multiple

240
Q

A full investigation is required in response to any allegation of sexual abuse against staff or other detainees. This includes (3)

A

Collecting physical evidence
providing victims with proper medical and mental health treatment

241
Q

A full investigation is required in response to any allegation of sexual abuse against staff or other detainees. This includes (3)

A

Collecting physical evidence
providing victims with proper medical and mental health treatment

242
Q

Who is authorized to decide to release a prisoner who agrees to obtain voluntary mental health treatment?

A

OIC

243
Q

If the OIC decides to release a prisoner for treatment, how is the prisoner transported to a treatment facility?

A

The OIC may transport a prisoner to treatment or arrange for a family member or caseworker to take over

244
Q

Is the OIC authorized to arrange for psychiatric hospitalization for a prisoner who is not eligible for bail or unlikely to be released?

A

Yes

245
Q

If the OIC decides to arrange for psychiatric treatment for a prisoner, they may arrange for

A

A clinician to see the prisoner at lockup or transport the prisoner to the hospital

246
Q

If OIC decides a prisoner is needs involuntarily transfer for psychiatric treatment who reports recommendations to the judge

A

Clinician

247
Q

If the OIC decides to arrange for psychiatric hospitalization for a prisoner who is not eligible for bail or unlikely to be released what is the process?

A
  1. The OIC should notify a hospital that receives emergency psychiatric patients.
  2. The OIC can arrange for a clinician to see the prisoner at lock up or the hospital.
  3. The clinician then reports to the judge
  4. the judge may commit the prisoner to a state hospital until the next court day.
248
Q

If a judge decides that a prisoner needs to be committed to a state hospital until the next court day, who is responsible for transporting the prisoner to the hospital and to court

A

Police

249
Q

The law allows prisoners or their legal representative the right to petition the district court for transfer to a state hospital. The court may grant this transfer if the prisoner poses a serious risk of self harm or has been on a mental health watch for

A

More than 72 hours

250
Q

If a prisoner requests transfer to a state hospital what must the police do?

A

File a petition for transfer if requested

251
Q

How long do police have to interview a defendant?

A

Six hours from the time over arrest

252
Q

Six exceptions to the six hour rule regarding interviews

A

Arrestee needs medical attention
incapacitated from drugs or alcohol
police emergency
police request consent to search
Arrestee signs waiver of prompt arraignment
arrest occurs outside mass

253
Q

Arestee must be afforded a probable cause determination by a _______ within 24 hours of warrantless arrest

A

Magistrate

254
Q

The SJC created the Jenkins hearing because it felt that arrestees should have their cases reviewed promptly since prolonged detention might affect

A

Their job and family relationships

255
Q

Jenkins hearing occurs within ____of warrantless arrest

A

24 hours

256
Q

Can a Jenkins hearing occur over the telephone and is the arrestee entitled to be present

A

Yes can occur over phone
No not entitled to be present or have counsel

257
Q

Following Jenkins hearing, is the probable cause determination, subject to review at arraignment

A

No

258
Q

Once a prisoner has been in custody and on a mental health watch for 48 hours, what should the OIC do?

A

Inform them of their right to petition for transfer to a state and repeat notice every 24 hours after

259
Q

Who bears the burden of demonstrating that a Jenkins hearing did not occur within 24 hours because of extraordinary circumstances

A

Police
(example for delay, major snowstorm, or defendants hospitalization)

260
Q

For violation of the Jenkins hearing rule is the case automatically dismissed

A

No, but it may be appropriate in cases of misconduct

261
Q

If a defendant refuses to answer booking questions or cooperate with booking process, are they still entitled to phone call within hour

A

No

262
Q

Before a person is released from custody, what has to be checked

A

WMS

263
Q

What are the 3 reasons to inventory a detainees belongings?

A

Preserve their property
Protect police from disputes
Prevent escape, self injury, or harm to others at station

264
Q

An inventory of detainees property is not a search for evidence. It is an _________

A

Administrative procedure

265
Q

_______ is not an acceptable reason for inventorying prisoner property

A

Desire to find evidence

266
Q

The inventory process requires (3)

A

Lawful custody
Written procedures
Inspection conforms to policy

267
Q

If an arrest involves multiple agencies, which booking policy should you follow?

A

The policy of the agency that controls the lock up

268
Q

Booking policy should allow officers to open locked containers when (2)

A
  1. They have the key or combination and the time to do it
  2. They reasonably believe the contents pose a danger to police or public
269
Q

During booking inventory, if officers don’t have a key combination or reason to believe there’s danger in a locked container what should they do with the container?

A

Record the locked container as an item without opening it or obtain a search warrant if they have problem, cause it contains evidence

270
Q

What act requires the departments provide medication to people in their custody who request and need it?

A

Title II of the Americans with disabilities act

271
Q

What act requires the departments provide medication to people in their custody who request and need it?

A

Title II of the Americans with disabilities act

272
Q

Who must witness a detainee take their medication and noted in the booking record

A

Supervising officer

273
Q

The booking policy should require that any medication be ______

A

Identified

274
Q

What is the only exception to giving medication and lockup?

A

Medical marijuana

275
Q

Can a police officer be sued for property inventoried at booking but allegedly lost or stolen afterwards?

A

Yes

276
Q

Failure to advise a defendant of their right to independent examination for oui will often result in the case being

A

Dismissed

277
Q

Can Police refuse to transport defendant to the hospital, even though he had arranged over the phone for a blood test?

A

Yes

278
Q

Police must typically release a juvenile arrest and may only hold him if

A
  1. The child is at least 14 in the OC agrees he should be held or;
  2. The arrest warrant orders that the youth be held.
279
Q

Do police have to notify the bail commissioner for a juvenile arrest

A

Yes

280
Q

Juveniles under ____ years old are not eligible for secure detention and must be held in a nonsecure custody

A

14

281
Q

Juveniles 14 and older are eligible for secure detention for up to ___ hours

A

6

282
Q

When does secure detention for juvenile begin?

A

When the juvenile is confined in a locked room or cell or is cuffed to a stationary object

283
Q

Juveniles in a cell must be properly monitored and checked at least every ___ minutes

A

30

284
Q

EOPSS requires a police departments, maintain a __________ to record instances of secured detention

A

Juvenile lockup docket

285
Q

Before the 6 hour period ends the juvenile must be:

A

Release to parent guardian transported to court
referred to overnight arrest program

286
Q

Juveniles 14 and over are eligible for secured detention for up to six hours as long as the Cell is

A

Sight and sound separate from adults
Cell approved by DYS

287
Q

Where should juvenile detainees age 12 and 13 be held at the station?

A

In an unlocked multipurpose area, such as an office, not designed for residential use, Under continuous visual supervision

288
Q

Can juveniles 12 and 13 be handcuffed

A

Yes, but they may not be handcuffed to any stationary object

289
Q

What happens if a juvenile detainee age 12 or 13 is noncompliant and leaves the unlocked area they are being held

A

The juvenile can be brought back into the station in place in a locked area. It should be noted the juvenile was unwilling to follow officer instructions and not that they’re being a runaway.

290
Q

Delinquent children may be handcuffed. What type of youth may not be handcuffed

A

All children requiring assistance CRA under age 18

291
Q

Should you fingerprint and photograph CRA children and submit their information to CJIS?

A

No

292
Q

Anyone who is not a United States citizen is defined as a

A

Foreign national

293
Q

Anyone with a green card is considered a

A

Foreign national

294
Q

Article 36 of the ______ states that if a foreign national is arrested, authorities shall inform them of their right to have his consulate notified

A

Vienna convention

295
Q

When officers encounter a foreign national they reasonably suspect is committing a crime they need to determine whether the suspect has:

A

Diplomatic immunity

296
Q

If a suspect has diplomatic immunity, they should have:

A

Diplomatic documents from our state department

297
Q

When dealing with diplomats officers should _____ the diplomat until they verify their status

A

Detain

298
Q

Officers are not permitted to handcuff a diplomat unless he or she poses

A

Immediate safety threat

299
Q

Authorities do not have to inform a foreign national of their right to have a consulate notified if it is during:

A

Brief detention such as a terry stop

300
Q

When dealing with diplomats what are officers not allowed to do (3)

A

Handcuff
Arrest or charge
Search for frisk, diplomats person vehicle or personal belongings

301
Q

When dealing with diplomats what are officers not allowed to do (3)

A

Handcuff
Arrest or charge
Search for frisk, diplomats person vehicle or personal belongings

302
Q

In regards to diplomats, is stopping and citing diplomat for a traffic violation considered a detention or arrest

A

No