Prosthodontics2 Flashcards
1
Q
Which luting agent (cement) has the lowest solubility? • zinc phosphate • zinc polycarboxylate • glass ionomer • resin-modified glass ionomer
A
resin-modified glass ionomer
2
Q
tooth should be wiped dry before cementation of a crown as opposed to drying the tooth with ? to decrease the possibility of pulp damage
A
alcohol and warm air
3
Q
Which of the following marginal designs is theoretically the best finishing margin for cast gold restorations, allowing burnishing and adaptation of the gold to the tooth? • shoulder • shoulder with a bevel • chamfer • bevel or feathered edge
A
bevel or feathered edge (It also offers the least marginal strength to the casting and hard to read so the chamfer preparation is the preferred finishing line for cast gold restorations)
4
Q
? preparation is the finishing line of choice for porcelain jacket and all-ceramic crown preparations.
A
The shoulder
5
Q
What is the general rule for sprue pin diameter when using a centrifugal type of casting machine?
• the diameter of the sprue pin should be equal to or greater than the thickest portion of the pattern
• the diameter of the sprue pin should be equal to or smaller than the thickest portion of the pattern
• the diameter of the sprue pin should be equal to or greater than the thinnest portion of the pattern
• the diameter of the sprue pin should be equal to or smaller than the thinnest portion of the pattern
A
the diameter of the sprue pin should be equal to or greater than the thickest portion of the pattern
6
Q
A non-rigid connector is comprised of:
• a key
• a keyway
• a key and a keyway
A
a key and a keyway (Its use is restricted to a short span bridge, replacing one tooth. It is indicated when retainers cannot be prepared to draw together without excessive tooth reduction. Prostheses with nonrigid connectors should not be used if prospective abutment teeth exhibit significant mobility)
7
Q
All-ceramic restorations are popular because of their superior esthetics and generally favorable gingival tissue response. The finish line of choice when fabricating an all-ceramic crown is a:
• 90 degree, 1.0 mm shoulder
• bevel
• chamfer
• 45 degree, .25 mm shoulder with a bevel
A
90 degree, 1.0 mm shoulder — to prevent unfavorable stress distribution and minimize the risk of fracture
8
Q
Which of the following are indications for electrosurgery. Select all that apply.
• to remove hyperplastic gingival tissue where it has proliferated into preparations or over crown margins
• in place of a gingival retraction cord where substantial attached gingiva is present
• where attached gingival tissues are thin, or where an underlying dehiscence is suspected
• for crown-lengthening procedures prior to fabricating a provisional crown
A
- to remove hyperplastic gingival tissue where it has proliferated into preparations or over crown margins
- in place of a gingival retraction cord where substantial attached gingiva is present
- for crown-lengthening procedures prior to fabricating a provisional crown
9
Q
Half-closed eyes can increase the sensitivity of retinal rods to better choose the “value” of the color.
“Blue” fatigue accentuates “yellow” sensitivity. This means that if you look at blue color objects (drapes, charts, wall-color or any other object around) while selecting the shade, it will help to accentuate the ability to discriminate yellow shades.
• both statements are true
• both statements are false
• the first statement is true, the second is false
• the first statement is false, the second is true
A
both statements are true
10
Q
If a mold that is created for investing and casting does not ? to compensate for the action of the metal alloy, the casting will not fit. • equate • contract • expand • none of the above
A
expand
11
Q
A seven-eighths crown is a three-quarter crown whose vertical:
• mesiobuccal margin is positioned slightly distal to the middle of the buccal surface
• distobuccal margin is positioned slightly mesial to the middle of the buccal surface
• mesiolingual margin is positioned slightly distal to the middle of the lingual surface
• distolingual margin is positioned slightly mesial to the middle of the lingual surface
A
distobuccal margin is positioned slightly mesial to the middle of the buccal surface
12
Q
Which type of dental ceramic is the best in mimicking the optical properties of enamel and dentin?
• predominantly glass
• particle-filled glass
• polycrystalline
A
predominantly glass (have a high content of glass)
13
Q
All of the following metals are considered to be base metals EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTIONl • nickel • cobalt • chromium • silver
A
silver (is a precious metal but not considered noble; it is reactive and improves castability but can cause porcelain “greening.”)
Noble metals are precious, but not all precious metals are noble (i.e., silver).
14
Q
All of the following are resins used for fabricating provisional restorations EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
• polymethyl methacrylate
• polyethyl methacrylate
• polyvinyl methacrylate
• polyacryl methacrylate
• bis-acryl composite resin
• visible light-cured (VLC) urethane dimethacrylate
A
polyacryl methacrylate
15
Q
There are four types of gypsum products approved for use in dentistry. Which of the following types is used rarely today? • type I • type II • type III • type IV
A
type I
16
Q
In mixing dental stone, why should the powder be sprinkled onto the water in the bowl?
• the addition of powder prevents the mix from becoming exothermic
• this is not recommended; the water should be added to the powder
• this process results in better powder mixing and reduced chance for air bubbles
• the powder is added to the water to avoid using more than one bowl
A
this process results in better powder mixing and reduced chance for air bubbles
17
Q
When a high proportion of water is used, the powder particles are farther apart. This results in ?
A
less expansion with a retarded setting time and a weaker product.
18
Q
rapid spatulation for a time equal to normal hand mixing for 1 minute results?
A
accelerates setting time and produces the greatest strength
19
Q
Dental stone and dental plaster both have a slightly different type of principal component (calcium sulfate hemihydrate). Dental plaster has:
• beta-hemihydrate and dental stone has gamma-hemihydrate
• alpha-hemihydrate and dental stone has beta-hemihydrate
• gamma-hemihydrate and dental stone has beta-hemihydrate
• beta-hemihydrate and dental stone has alpha-hemihydrate
A
beta-hemihydrate and dental stone has alpha-hemihydrate (When the alpha-hemihydrate is mixed with water, the product obtained (dental stone or die stone) is much stronger and harder than that resulting from beta-hemihydrate (plaster). The chief reason for this difference is that the alpha-hemihydrate powder (stone) requires much less gauging water when it is mixed than does the beta-hemihydrate)
20
Q
Dental plaster and stone are vibrated after mixing to: • minimize distortion • reduce setting time • eliminate air bubbles • increase the setting time
A
eliminate air bubbles
21
Q
All types of gypsum products are ? in tensile strength than compressive strength.
A
weaker
22
Q
- heating gypsum in an open vessel at 150-160°C
- heating gypsum under steam pressure in an autoclave at 120 -150°C
- by boiling gypsum in a 30% aqueous solution of calcium chloride and magnesium chloride
A
- Dental plaster is produced, the weakest gypsum product which is porous and irregularly
- produces dental stone. This process produces particles that are uniformly shaped and less porous
- produces high strength (improved) die stone. This process produces the least porous and strongest particles
23
Q
Dr. Lozier requested that you mix alginate and take an impression. While measuring the water, you got involved in a conversation with your patient and did not notice how cold it was. This oversight will: • shorten the gelation time • make the mix unusable • lengthen the gelation time • not affect the gelation time
A
lengthen the gelation time
24
Q
Which impression material is very stiff, which makes it very difficult to remove without rocking? • irreversible hydrocolloids • polysulfides • polyethers • condensation silicones
A
polyethers (excellent dimensional stability. They are also truly hydrophilic, resulting in superior wettability.)
25
```
With which of the following impression materials is it advisable to wait 20 to 30 minutes before pouring of models for stress relaxation to occur?
• polysulfides
• condensation silicones
• polyvinyl siloxanes
• polyethers
```
condensation silicones (also called conventional silicones)
26
All of the following are characteristics of ZOE impression paste EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
• dimensionally unstable
• sets quickly
• excellent detailed reproduction
• sets hard
• no shrinkage even if store for many days
dimensionally unstable
27
```
The popularity of agar impression material (reversible hydrocolloid) is limited by the:
• difficulty in pouring the impression
• poor reproduction of detail
• need for special equipment
• high cost
```
need for special equipment
28
* The setting time of a zinc oxide-eugenol impression paste may be accelerated by ?
* The setting time of a zinc oxide-eugenol impression paste may be retarded by adding ?
* adding a drop of water to the mix.
| * inert oils (olive or mineral oils) during mixing.
29
```
The filler in alginate gives the mixed material "body" that allows acceptable handling. Without filler, the mixed material would be too runny for use. Which of the following is a main component of the alginate powder and functions as the filler?
• zinc oxide
• calcium sulfate
• potassium titanium fluoride
• diatomaceous earth (silica)
• potassium alginate
• tri-sodium phosphate
```
diatomaceous earth (silica)
30
```
You are taking an impression with alginate and unbeknownst to you there is debris on the tissue. How will this affect the final impression?
• it will be grainy
• it will tear easily
• there will be irregularly shaped voids
• it will be distorted
```
there will be irregularly shaped voids
31
```
When using which impression material can you delay pouring up of the model for up to one week?
• polyether
• polysulfide
• reversible hydrocolloid
• vinyl polysiloxane
```
vinyl polysiloxane (also known as addition silicones) (the most accurate, a moderately high tear strength, The sulfur in latex gloves will retard the setting)
32
Which impression material has the best wettability?
• polyether
• polysulfide
• hydrocolloids (reversible and irreversible)
• polyvinyl siloxane
hydrocolloids (reversible and irreversible)
33
```
Which of the following impression material has the longest working time?
• polyether
• polysulfide
• reversible hydocolloid
• polyvinyl siloxane
```
reversible hydocolloid (Reversible and irreversible hydrocolloids have the advantage of wetting oral surfaces well, but they have very limited dimensional stability because they include as much as 85% water in their composition)
34
```
Some impression materials are most accurate when at least 3 mm of space is present between the impression tray and the oral tissue. Which impression material below shows this characteristic?
• polyethers
• polysulfides
• silicones
• irreversible hydrocolloids
```
irreversible hydrocolloids (alginate)
35
Fast removal of impression from the mouth will cause?
increases both the compressive and tear strength of the impression.
36
```
Today was a very busy day for Ashley, the dental hygienist in our office. Ashley took alginate impressions on her first patient in the morning, who needed a nightguard. Since she was so busy, Ashley left the alginate impressions in the lab most of the morning. You place the alginate impressions in a bowl of water so that they would not dry up before you have a chance to pour them up in dental stone. Which of the following is the result of leaving these impressions immersed in water for a few hours?
• gelation
• hysteresis
• syneresis
• imbibition
```
imbibition (expands the dimensions of the impression so shrinkage occurs)
syneresis (loss of water to the air or surrounding environment)
37
If your patient indicates a tendency to gag while taking alginate impressions, which of the following maneuvers can help make the procedure easier for the patient. Select all that apply.
• lessening the time to take an impression
• using cold water to mix the alginate
• having the patient breathe through his/her nose
• seating the patient in an upright position
• seating the anterior portion of the tray first
• mixing the alginate rapidly
* lessening the time to take an impression
* having the patient breathe through his/her nose
* seating the patient in an upright position
* mixing the alginate rapidly
38
? is the term given to the setting process (changingfrom a sol to a gel) of hydrocolloid material.
Gelation
39
Elastomers are rubbery polymers that are capable of elastic deformation from undercut areas to produce a complete impression for dentate situations.
Impression materials must have some strength, but generally their design is focused more on accuracy, dimensional stability, and flexibility (or tear resistance).
• both statements are true
• both statements are false
• the first statement is true, the second is false
• the first statement is false, the second is true
both statements are true
40
Custom trays are an important part of rubber base impression techniques, since elastomers are:
• more accurate in uniform, thin layers 0.5 to 1.0 mm thick
• more accurate in uniform, thin layers 1.0 to 1.5 mm thick
• more accurate in uniform, thin layers 2.0 to 4.0 mm thick
• more accurate in uniform, thin layers 5.0 to 6.0 mm thick
more accurate in uniform, thin layers 2.0 to 4.0 mm thick (Let adhesive that is applied to the tray dry completely. If it is wet, impression material may pull away)
41
```
Polysulfide impression material should be:
• poured immediately
• poured within 15 minutes
• poured within 30 minutes
• poured within 1 hour
```
poured within 1 hour
42
```
The powder used in mixing acrylic resin is referred to as the:
• dimer
• initiator
• polymer
• monomer
```
polymer (Acrylic resins will expand when immersed in water and become distorted when dried out)
43
Shrinkage of an acrylic resin occurs but excessive shrinkage may occur if ?. The volumetric monomer-to-polymer ratio is 1:3.
too much monomer (liquid) is added to the polymer (powder)
44
```
An edentulous patient has slight undercuts on both tuberosities and also on the facial of the anterior maxilla. To construct a satisfactory maxillary complete denture, you should reduce which of the following?
• all undercuts
• the anterior undercut only
• both tuberosity undercuts
• none of them
```
both tuberosity undercuts
45
Rotational movements take place in which compartment of the TMJ?
• upper (mandibular fossa - articular disc) compartment
• lower (condyle - articular disc)
• both the upper and lower compartments
lower (condyle - articular disc)
46
Which semiadjustable articulator has the upper and lower members rigidly attached?
• arcon articulator
• nonarcon articulator
nonarcon articulator (arcon articulators has the guidance of condylar movement in the maxillary member and the centers of axial rotation in the mandibular member. The non-arcon articulator design has these elements reversed)
47
```
You are ready to place packing cord around a tooth that was prepared for a crown on a patient with hypertension. It is recommended to use a cord impregnated with:
• epinephrine
• alum (aluminum potassium sulfate)
• zinc chloride
• any of the above
```
alum (aluminum potassium sulfate) (Zinc chloride is caustic and causes delayed healing (causes necrosis of the sulcular epithelium and the adjacent layer of connective tissue). Therefore, it should not be used in impregnated cord)
48
Fluid control when taking impressions
anticholinergic drugs such as atropine, dicyclomine, glycopyrrolate, Anticholinergic drugs should not be given to patients with narrow-angle glaucoma. They should be used with caution in patients with heart disease
49
```
A small hook-like projection of bone that extends from the medial pterygoid plate of the sphenoid bone is called the:
• hamulus
• hamular notch
• maxillary tuberosity
• fovea palatini
```
hamulus (also known as the hamular process, that serves as the superior attachment of the pterygomandibular raphe.)
50
```
The torus palatinus is a hard bony enlargement that occurs in the midline of the roof of the mouth and is found in about:
• 2% of the population
• 20% of the population
• 50% of the population
• 75% of the population
```
20% of the population
51
? are indentations near the midline of the palate formed by a coalescence of several mucous gland ducts. They are always in soft tissue, which makes them an ideal guide for the location of the posterior border of the denture
The fovea palatinae
52
Which of the following is the most important reason for treatment of hyperplastic tissue before construction of a complete or removable partial denture?
• it will make the patient feel better
• it will make the face-bow transfer easier to perform
• to provide a firm, stable base for the denture
• the final impression material will flow better
to provide a firm, stable base for the denture
53
When inflammatory papillary hyperplasia is seen on the palate of a patient wearing a maxillary complete denture, the condition is most likely going to be associated with:
• a vitamin B deficiency
• a sudden increase in body weight
• a hypersensitivity of the patient to the acrylic denture base
• ill-fitting dentures and a poor state of oral hygiene
ill-fitting dentures and a poor state of oral hygiene
54
```
The most common cause of dry mouth (xerostomia) is:
aging
• alcoholism
• vitamin A or Vitamin B deficiency
• medications
• diabetes
```
medications
55
```
A chronically ill-fitting denture may cause an inflammatory fibrous hyperplasia adjacent to its border. This condition is known as:
• verrucous vulgaris
• inflammatory papillary hyperplasia
• stomatitis nicotina
• epulis fissuratum
```
epulis fissuratum
56
```
Most cases of which disease below are detected because patients complain that their dentures are not fitting since the bone has become too large for them?
• addison's disease
• paget's disease
• hashimoto's disease
• multiple sclerosis
```
paget's disease (also called osteitis deformans)
57
Which of the following is not associated with diabetes?
• delayed healing
• rapidly progressing periodontal disease with marked alveolar bone loss
• mucosal bleeding
• increased calculus formation
• a predilection for periapical abscesses
mucosal bleeding — bleeding disorders are not associated with diabetes
58
```
All of the following muscles are involved in elevating the mandible (closing the mouth) EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
• masseter muscles
• medial pterygoid muscles
• lateral pterygoid muscles
• temporalis muscles
```
lateral pterygoid muscles (contract to cause protrusion)
59
Assume that a patient wearing complete dentures for a number of years is given an oral examination and it is determined that the vertical dimension of occlusion has been decreased. This would cause:
• an increased vertical dimension that leaves the teeth in a clenched, closed relation in normal positions
• an occluding vertical dimension that results in an excessive interocclusal distance when the mandible is in the rest position
• an insufficient amount of interarch distance because of heavy, bony ridges
• an inability to open the mandible because of temporomandibular joint pathosis
an occluding vertical dimension that results in an excessive interocclusal distance when the mandible is in the rest position
60
Vertical Dimension of Rest = ?
Vertical Dimension of Occlusion + Interocclusal Distance
61
The space that opens between the posterior teeth during anterior movement of the mandible is called ?. The amount of posterior separation is affected by ?.
* Christensen's Phenomenon
| * both the incisal guidance (anteriorly ) and the horizontal condylar guidance (posteriorly)
62
```
The anteroposterior curvature (in the median plane) and the mediolateral curvature (in the frontal plane) in the alignment of the occluding surfaces and incisal edges of artificial teeth that are used to develop balanced occlusion is called:
• curve of spee
• compensating curve
• curve of wilson
• curve of pleasure
```
compensating curve
63
```
Centric relation is an example of a/an:
• tooth-to-tooth relation
• occlusal relation
• bone-to-bone relation
• balanced relation
```
bone-to-bone relation (the mandible cannot be forced into centric relation, the mandible should be relaxed and gently guided)
64
Which of the following statements concerning selective grinding in complete denture fabrication for centric relation is not true?
• primary centric holding cusps are the maxillary lingual cusps
• secondary centric holding cusps are the mandibular buccal cusps
• selective grinding of the inner inclines of secondary holding cusps can be done if there is a working side interference
• grind only the cusp tips of the upper buccal and the lower lingual [B.U.L.L.) cusps if they are premature in centric, lateral or protrusive movements
• selective grinding of the inner inclines of secondary holding cusps can be done if there is a working side interference (this is incorrect, the selective grinding of the inner inclines of secondary centric holding cusps can be done if there is a balancing side interference)
65
* Primary centric holding cusps are ?. Never grind these cusps.
* Secondary centric holding cusps are ?. Grind these cusps only if there is a balancing side interference
* the maxillary lingual cusps
| * the mandibular buccal cusps
66
Selective grinding in working-side relation?
* Buccal cusp inner inclines of Upper teeth
| * Lingual cusp inner inclines of Lower teeth
67
Selective grinding in balancing side relation:
• Grind the inner inclines of the mandibular buccal cusps
• Never grind the maxillary lingual cusps (primary centric holding cusps)
For the National Board Exam questions, you can reduce the maxillary lingual cusp if it is high in centric as well as other occlusal positions — in reality, you should not.
68
```
Balancing side (non-working side) interferences generally occur on the inner aspects of the:
• facial cusps of mandibular molars
• facial cusps of maxillary premolars
• lingual cusps of mandibular molars
• facial cusps of maxillary molars
```
facial cusps of mandibular molars
69
Working side interferences generally occur on ?
the outer aspects of the lingual cusps of maxillary molars.
70
Protrusive interferences generally occur between ?
the distal inclines of the facial cusps of maxillary posterior teeth and mesial inclines of the facial cusps of mandibular posterior teeth.
71
Where do the occlusal contact possibilities occur during a protrusive movement?
• on the maxillary mesial inclines and mandibular distal inclines
• on the maxillary mesial inclines and mandibular mesial inclines
• on the maxillary distal inclines and mandibular mesial inclines
• on the maxillary distal inclines and mandibular distal inclines
on the maxillary distal inclines and mandibular mesial inclines
72
Which of the following best describes Camper's line (plane)?
• it is a line (plane) which is determined by the occlusal surfaces of the teeth
• it is a line (plane) which extends from the outer canthus of the eye to the superior border of the tragus of the ear
• it is the line (plane) running from the inferior border of the ala of the nose to the superior border of the tragus of the ear
• none of the above
it is the line (plane) running from the inferior border of the ala of the nose to the superior border of the tragus of the ear
73
In the intercuspal position, the mesiolingual cusp of a permanent maxillary first molar occludes where?
• central fossa of the mandibular first molar
• central fossa of the mandibular second molar
• the interproximal marginal ridge areas between mandibular first and second molars
• the interproximal marginal ridge areas between mandibular second and third molars
central fossa of the mandibular first molar
74
During non-working, excursive movements, the permanent maxillary first molar's mesiolingual cusp escapes through:
• the lingual groove of the mandibular first molar
• the mesiobuccal groove of the mandibular first molar
• the buccal groove of the mandibular second molar
• the distobuccal groove of the mandibular first molar
• the space between the mesiobuccal and distobuccal cusps of the mandibular first molar
the distobuccal groove of the mandibular first molar
75
```
Which teeth should ideally provide the predominant guidance through the full range of movement in lateral mandibular excursions?
• premolars
• first molars
• incisors
• canines
```
canines
76
When establishing a balanced occlusion, the lingual cusps of maxillary posterior teeth on the balancing side should contact:
• the central fossae of mandibular posterior teeth
• the lingual inclines of facial cusps of mandibular posterior teeth
• the lingual inclines of lingual cusps of mandibular posterior teeth
• the facial inclines of lingual cusps of mandibular posterior teeth
the lingual inclines of facial cusps of mandibular posterior teeth
77
When placing a crown on a maxillary canine, if you change a canine protected occlusion to group function you increase the potential for ? interference
a "non-working side"
78
Group function (sometimes called unilateral balanced occlusion) is an occlusal relationship in which all posterior teeth on a side contact evenly as the jaw is moved toward that side (working side). All teeth on ? are free of any contact.
the non-working side (Regardless of what lateral concept is used, no non-working side contacts are a must)
79
In an ideal intercuspal position, the facial cusp tips of permanent maxillary premolars oppose:
• the facial embrasure between their class counterpart and the tooth mesial to it
• the facial embrasure between their class counterpart and the tooth distal to it
• the opposing central fossae
• the opposing mesial marginal ridge
the facial embrasure between their class counterpart and the tooth distal to it
80
In the intercuspal position, the distobuccal cusp of a permanent mandibular second molar occludes where?
• the interproximal marginal ridge area between the maxillary second bicuspid and first molar
• central fossa of the maxillary first molar
• central fossa of the maxillary second molar
• the interproximal marginal ridge area between the maxillary first molar and second molar
central fossa of the maxillary second molar
81
In a retrusive movement, the condyles of the mandible have moved in a:
• backward and upward direction
• downward and forward direction
backward and upward direction
82
```
During typical empty mouth swallowing, the mandible is braced in which jaw position to allow for proper stabilization?
• intercuspal position (IP)
• retruded contact position (RCP)
• protruded contact position (PCP)
• centric relation (CR)
```
intercuspal position (IP) (IP is also called centric occlusion)
83
```
When the mandible is in its physiologic rest or postural position, the contact of teeth is:
• maximum
• not present
• premature
• slight
```
not present (The term used to describe this absence of contact is "freeway space" or "interocclusal distance". It usually averages between 2-6 mm. This position is a "muscle-guided" position. It is the beginning and end point of most mandibular movements.)
84
Tooth contacts are of longer duration in which one ? (swallowing or chewing)
swallowing
85
The retruded contact position (also called centric relation) is ? position. The presence or absence of teeth, or the type of occlusion, or malocclusion are not factors
a "ligament-guided"
86
Bite registration material used to make an accurate interocclusal record should have what important characteristic?
• offer a maximum resistance to the patient's jaw closure and have high flow at mixing
• offer a maximum resistance to the patient's jaw closure and have low flow at mixing
• offer a minimum resistance to the patient's jaw closure and have low flow at mixing
• offer a minimum resistance to the patient's jaw closure and have high flow at mixing
offer a minimum resistance to the patient's jaw closure and have low flow at mixing
87
```
Which of the following materials available for recording centric relation when fabricating a removable partial denture is the least satisfactory?
• modeling plastic
• wax
• quick-setting impression plaster
• metallic oxide bite registration paste
• silicone impression materials
```
wax (Rapid setting plaster, zinc oxide and eugenol pastes, and modeling plastic all approach the ideal. Avoid soft waxes as a recording material. They never become rigid and are likely to be distorted during the cast mounting procedure.)
88
```
The lingual cusps of the maxillary posterior teeth are:
• non-supporting and working
• supporting and balancing
• supporting and working
• non-supporting and balancing
```
supporting and working
89
Anterior guidance is the result of:
• horizontal overlap
• vertical overlap
• horizontal and vertical overlap
horizontal and vertical overlap
90
Which of the following concepts related to occlusion are true? Select all that apply.
• optimum occlusion requires minimum adaptation by the patient
• bilateral balanced occlusion dictates that a minimum number of teeth should contact during mandibular excursive movements
• unilateral balanced occlusion or "group function" calls for all teeth on the working side to be in contact during a lateral excursion
• mutually protected occlusion, also called "canine guided" or "organic" occlusion is the one in which anterior teeth protect posterior teeth in all mandibular excursions
• mutually protected occlusion is the most widely accepted arrangement of occlusion
• optimum occlusion requires minimum adaptation by the patient
• unilateral balanced occlusion or "group function" calls for all teeth on the workingside to be in contact during a lateral excursion
• mutually protected occlusion, also called "canine guided" or "organic" occlusion is the one in which anterior teeth protect posterior teeth in all mandibular excursions
• mutually protected occlusion is the most widely accepted arrangement of occlusion
(In bilateral balanced occlusion the maximum number of teeth should contact during mandibular excursions. This concept of occlusal arrangement, though ideal, is very difficult to achieve)
91
All of the following are the theoretical determinants needed for restoring a complete and functional occlusal surface of a tooth EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
• the amount of vertical overlap of the anterior teeth
• the contour of the articular eminence
• the height of the pulp horn of that particular tooth
• the amount and direction of lateral shift in the working side condyle
• the position of the tooth in the arch
the height of the pulp horn of that particular tooth
92
All of the following are considered to be the basic principles for occlusal adjustment EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
• the maximum distribution of occlusal stresses in centric relation
• the forces of occlusion should be borne as much as possible by the long axis of the teeth
• when there is point-to-surface contact of flat cusps, it should be changed to a surface-to-surface contact
• once centric occlusion is established, never take the teeth out of centric occlusion
when there is point-to-surface contact of flat cusps, it should be changed to a surface-to-surface contact (This is false; when there is surface-to-surface contact of flat cusps, it should be changed to a point-to-surface contact)
93
In an ideal intercuspal position, the mesiobuccal cusp of the permanent maxillary second molar opposes:
• the distobuccal groove of the mandibular first molar
• the buccal groove of the mandibular second molar
• the mesiobuccal groove of the mandibular second molar
• the developmental groove between the distobuccal and the distal cusps of the mandibular first molar
the buccal groove of the mandibular second molar
94
In the early stages of lateral movements, the condyle appears to rotate with a slight lateral shift in the direction of the movement. This movement is called the Bennett movement. This Bennett movement refers to the:
• non-working side condyle only
• working side condyle only
• both the non-working and working side condyles
• neither of the condyles
working side condyle only (The Bennett movement is sometimes called the lateral shift of the mandible or immediate side shift)
95
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When posterior teeth are in a normal ideal relationship, which of the following cusps are considered to be guiding cusps? Select all that apply.
• maxillary lingual cusps
• maxillary buccal cusps
• mandibular lingual cusps
• mandibular buccal cusps
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* maxillary buccal cusps
| * mandibular lingual cusps
96
The Bennett angle is the angle formed by the sagittal plane and the path of ? condyle during lateral movement of the mandible
the non-working
97
Supporting cusps are the maxillary lingual cusps and the mandibular buccal cusps. These cusps are also called ?
working, stamp or centric cusps
98
guiding cusps are also called ?
balancing, non-supporting, non-centric or shearing cusps
99
The "Glossary of Prosthodontic Terms" defines balanced occlusion as:
• an occlusion of the teeth which presents a harmonious relation of the occluding surfaces in centric only within the functional range
• an occlusion of the teeth which presents a harmonious relation of the occluding surfaces in eccentric positions only within the functional range
• an occlusion of the teeth which presents a harmonious relation of the occluding surfaces in centric and eccentric positions within the functional range
an occlusion of the teeth which presents a harmonious relation of the occluding surfaces in centric and eccentric positions within the functional range (Balanced occlusion requires that the maxillary lingual cusps of the posterior teeth on the non-working side contact the lingual incline of facial cusps of mandibular posterior teeth in conjunction with balanced contact of teeth in the working side)
100
Eccentric occlusion is defined as protrusive and right and left lateral contacts of the inclined planes of the teeth when the jaw is ? moving
not
101
Reducing occlusal interferences (selective grinding) should usually be done:
• after a fixed bridge or a partial denture is delivered to a patient
• before constructing a fixed bridge or a partial denture for a patient
• after a fixed bridge but before a partial denture is delivered to a patient
• after a partial denture but before a fixed bridge is delivered to a patient
before constructing a fixed bridge or a partial denture for a patient (This is done to prevent duplicating the deflective occlusal contacts in the final restoration)
102
The most common complaint after cementation of a fixed bridge is sensitivity to hot/cold and is an indication of ?
a deflective occlusal contact
