Prostate Cancer Flashcards

1
Q

Epidemiology

  • Most ___ malignancy in men in US
  • 2nd most common cause of cancer related ___ in men
  • Estimated that ~16% of men will be diagnosed with prostate cancer during their lifetime (1 in ___ men from birth to death)
A
  • common
  • death
  • 8
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Etiology/Pathogenesis

Hormonal
- ___ is a growth signal to the prostate
- Most risk factors associated with prostate cancer are related to increased exposure to testosterone

Alterations in ___ receptor

A
  • testosterone
  • androgen
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Risk Factors

Age
- increased lifetime exposure to ___

Race
- More common in ___, less common in Asians

Family History

A
  • testosterone
  • African-Americans
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Pathology

Grading: ___ score (2 - 10)
- Scores of 2 to 4 are ___ , well differentiated
- Scores of 8 – 10 are ___ , poorly differentiated

A
  • slow growing
  • aggressive
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Prostate Specific Antigen (PSA)

Liquefies seminal secretions and
increases with disorders of the prostate
* Normal range is ___ - ___ ng/mL
* > 4 ng/mL requires evaluation
* > ___ ng/mL highly suspicious for malignancy
* PSA velocity: > ___ ng/mL rise per year suspicious for malignancy

A
  • 0-4
  • 10
  • 0.75
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Definitions

  • m1 = Metastatic (found
    on scans)
  • m 0 = Non-metastatic ( ___ only)
  • HSPC = ___ sensitive prostate
    cancer
  • CRPC = ___ resistant prostate
    cancer
A
  • PSA
  • hormone
  • castration
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Treatment: Localized

Observation
- Involves monitoring the course of disease with the expectation to deliver palliative therapy for the development of ___
- PSA and DRE every 6 months
- Advantage: Avoids immediate morbidity associated with treatment
- Disadvantage: Risk of disease complications such as urinary retention or fractures

Active surveillance:
- Based on premise that prostate cancer is a benign and indolent disease
- Involves active monitoring of disease. If cancer noted to progress, will initiate potentially ___ therapy
- Advantage: QOL less affected
- Disadvantage: 1/3 of patients require treatment, follow ups/biopsies

A
  • symptoms
  • curative
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Treatment Overview: Localized

Radiation therapy
- External beam vs. brachytherapy
- Reasonable alternative to patients who are not ___ candidates
- Can add adjuvant ___ if intermediate or poor risk
- start prior to radiation therapy
and then continue on for 1-3 years

A
  • surgical
  • ADT

androgen deprivation therapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Treatment: Localized

Radical prostatectomy + PLND
- Definitive ___ therapy
- survival with surgery: ~ 85% at 10 years

A

curative

PLND = Pelvic lymph node dissection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Androgen Deprivation Therapy

Goal is to induce ___ levels of testosterone
- Goal level = < __ ng/dL after 1 month of therapy

Androgen deprivation therapy (ADT)
- ___ agonist ± ___ or orchiectomy

A

castrate
50
LHRH, anti-androgen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Antiandrogens
- Blocks androgen receptors and inhibits androgen uptake and binding in target tissues

examples:
- Bicalutamide, Nilutamide, Flutamide, ___ , ___
- In the metastatic setting, not generally given as monotherapy
- Will give in combination with androgen ablation therapy such as LHRH agonist in the metastatic setting

A

Abiraterone, Enzalutamide

lutamides

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Androgen Deprivation Therapy

LHRH agonists
- ___ and is as effective as orchiectomy

examples
- leuprolide, goserelin, triptorelin, histerelin

Toxicities:
– Acute: Tumor ___ (in the metastatic setting), ___, hot flashes, erectile dysfunction, edema, injection site reaction
- Long term: ___ , fracture, obesity, insulin resistance, changes in ___ , increased risk of both ___
and cardiovascular events

A
  • reversible
  • flare, gynecomastia
  • osteoporosis, lipids, diabetes

Relugolix - Compared to LHRH agonists, had less cardiovascular events

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Metastatic Disease

Goal of therapy – ___ of disease
- Need to determine whether this is a PSA recurrence or overt metastatic disease
- Determine PSA ___ time

A
  • palliation
  • doubling
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Metastatic Disease: m0 HSPC

If only PSA recurrence, may delay start of ___

If the patient experiences a rapid PSA
velocity or ___ PSA doubling time and has a long-life expectancy: Consider ___
* If PSA doubling time ___ 6 months: Can give ADT
* If PSA doubling time ___6 months: can observe

Orchiectomy

A
  • ADT
  • short, ADT
  • <
  • >
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Intermittent ADT: m 0 HSPC

Can start on LHRH agonist alone or with oral ADT
- When the PSA level has returned to a pre-specified baseline (i.e., 4 ng/dL), androgen suppression is ___
- restarted if PSA increases (10-20 ng/dL)

A
  • d/c
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Intermittent ADT

  • Men with ___ failure only, could consider intermittent therapy
  • Improved QOL and no difference in OS between intermittent therapy and continuous ADT
A

biochemical

17
Q

m0CRPC

If PSA is still increasing and not responding to ADT and no distant metastasis found on scans, consider m0CRPC

  1. Continue ___ (usually an LHRH agonist)
    – Add in one of the following agents: ___ , Apalutamide, Darolutamide

___ does not have indication in M0 setting

A

ADT
- Enzalutamide
- Abiraterone

18
Q

Enzalutamide (Xtandi)

  • Blocks androgen binding and translocation of the androgen receptor
  • Drug interactions: Avoid CYP ___ inhibitors, can ↓ concentrations that are substrates for CYP3A4, 2C9, 2C19
  • Decreases serum concentrations of ___
  • Caution use in patients with ___ history
  • Don’t have to take prednisone with it (unlike ___ )
A
  • CYP2C8
  • warfarin
  • seizure
  • abiraterone
19
Q

Apalutamide

  • ___ androgen receptor inhibitor
  • Results in decreased proliferation of tumor cells and increased apoptosis
  • Drug interactions: Many listed, Primarily metabolized via CYP ___ and CYP ___
  • Use caution in patients with a history of ___, QT prolongation, falls, and thyroid dysfunction
A
  • Non-steroidal
  • CYP3A, CYP2C8
  • seizure
20
Q

Darolutamide

  • Structurally ___ androgen receptor antagonist
  • Offers potentially less toxicities and less severe toxicities (Less fractures, falls, seizures, weight loss)
  • Drug interactions: Mainly metabolized through CYP ___
  • Toxicities: Fatigue, back pain/arthralgias, rash, diarrhea,
    hypertension, anemia, nausea
A
  • unique
  • CYP3A4
21
Q

m 1 HSPC

Patient now has visceral metastases (seen on scans)
- Hormone sensitive disease
- Determine therapy based on the volume of disease
* Low volume
* High volume

If not previously performed:
* Tumor testing for ___ or dMMR
* Germline testing for gene mutation

A
  • MSI-H

MSI-H = Microsatellite instability-high

22
Q

Low volume m1HSPC

  1. ADT: LHRH agonists
  2. Continue ADT and add any of the following:
    * Abiraterone + ___
    * Enzalutamide
    * Apalutamide
A
  • Prednisone
23
Q

High Volume m 1 HSPC

Could do any of the previously mentioned therapies:
– ADT
– ADT + Abiraterone + Prednisone
– ADT + Enzalutamide
– ADT + Apalutamide

Now ___ becomes an option

A

chemo

24
Q

m1HSPC = Chemo + ADT

___ + ADT for 1st line treatment
(CHAARTED Trial)

A

docetaxel

25
Q

category 1 recommendations for

1st line, M1 disease high volume

Use all for high-volume, castrate sensitive, metastatic disease
– ADT + Docetaxel + ___ or ___

A
  • Abiraterone
  • Darolutamide
26
Q

Metastatic Castrate Recurrent Prostate Cancer

(CRPC)

  • All patients will become ___ refractory
  • Median survival of 6 months
  • PSA ↓ used as a surrogate marker of response
  • Continue ADT and maintain castrate testosterone concentrations
A

hormone

27
Q

m1CRPC

In addition to continuing ___ therapy, the patient could do any of the following:

A
  • ADT
28
Q

___ -Second line therapy
- Taxane derivative (Microtubule inhibitor)
- Unlike other taxanes. Poor affinity for ___ proteins, therefore conferring activity in resistant tumors
- Toxicities: More severe ___, more
___ , more febrile neutropenia

A

Cabazitaxel
- neutropenia
- diarrhea

29
Q

Bone Metastases

___ dichloride:
- Alpha particle-emitting isotope: Emits high energy, short-range alpha particles targeting bone metastases
- Approved for CRPC, symptomatic bone metastases, and no known visceral metastatic disease

A

Radium 223

30
Q

dMMR/MSI-H

Pembrolizumab
- As with other solid tumors, pembrolizumab
received agonistic FDA approval for those cancers which express ___ or ___ characteristics

A

dMMR, MSI-H

31
Q

Theranostic Radiopharmaceuticals

THERApeutics + diagNOSTICS
- the combination of using one radioactive drug to identify (diagnose) and a second radioactive drug to
deliver therapy to targeted tissue
- Lu-177 PSMA ( ___ ) - approved for PSMA-positive ___

Key Side effects:
– Myelosuppression
– Renal toxicity
– Dry mouth
– GI toxicity

A
  • Pluvicto
  • mCRPC
32
Q

Prostate Cancer Prevention

Several large prevention trials sponsored by the NCI are ongoing
- Finasteride – (PCPT trial)
- Demonstrated that finasteride decreased the rate of acute urinary retention, need for surgery for symptomatic BPH, and decreased risk of progression of BPH
– 30% decrease in prostate cancer prevalence during the study period
Non-significant increase in higher grade tumors

A

ASCO and the American Urological Association suggested a discussion regarding the use of 5-α-reductase
inhibitors for 7 years as chemo prevention should occur in high-risk men

33
Q

Treatment Summary

A