Hepatology II Flashcards

1
Q

Esophageal Varices (EV)

  • Portal ___ causes hepatic/splanchnic ___ resulting in decreased perfusion
  • Compensatory “varices” or small
    offshoots form
  • Dilation of EV can occur and result in variceal bleeding, which can be severe
A
  • hypertension
  • vasodilation
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2
Q

Risk Factors for Variceal Bleeding
- Varices size (larger more likely to rupture)
- Cirrhosis severity (Child Pugh)
- Red color markings noted on endoscopy
- Active ___ use

A

alcohol

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3
Q

Variceal Bleeding Prophylaxis

Placebo RCTs of non-selective beta-blockers (NSBBs) or endoscopic variceal ligation (EVL) showed ↓ variceal and GI bleeding, but no ___ benefit

A

mortality

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4
Q

Primary Prophylaxis

___ OR ___ recommended monotherapy (not combination)
- NSBB: indicated in window of moderate disease
- Mechanism of action: splanchnic vasocontrictioon

A

NSBB, EVL

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5
Q

NSBBs

Dosing: adjust every 3 days until goals achieved

nadolol
- initial dosing: ___ - ___ mg PO D
- ___ mg (if ascites); ___ mg (if no ascites)

propranolol
- ___ - ___ mg PO BID
- ___ mg (if ascites); ___ mg (if no ascites)

carvedilol
- ___ mg PO daily (can increase to BID)
- ___ mg PO/day

Side effects:
- drowsiness or insomnia
- bradycardia
- hypotension

Monitoring:
- HR: goal __ - ___ bpm
- BP: SBP > ___ mmHg
- Signs/symptoms of VH

A
  • 20-40, 80, 160
  • 20-40, 160, 320
  • 6.25, 12.5
  • 55-60
  • 90
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6
Q

EVL

Endoscopic procedure which bands off varices
- Used as ___ prevention and management of acute variceal bleed

A
  • primary
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7
Q

Variceal Bleeding Clinical Presentation

Esophageal varices – asymptomatic
- Visualized via ___ (EGD)

Variceal bleeding
- ____
- Melena
- Fatigue
- Lightheaded/dizziness
- ___ tension

A
  • endoscopy
  • hematemesis
  • hypotension
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8
Q

T or F: PPIs are recommended for variceal bleeds

A

FALSE
no evidence of support

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9
Q

Treatment of Variceal Bleeding

Immediately upon Presentation
- blood transfusions
- ___ (somatostatin analog, vasoconstrictor)
- ___ prophylaxis

A
  • octreotide
  • antibiotic
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10
Q

Octreotide

  • Mechanism: inhibits release of vasodilatory peptides (i.e. glucagon) resulting in splanchnic ___ and ↓ blood flow
  • Indications: ___ variceal bleed (not other types of GI bleeding)
  • Meta-analysis showed ↓ mortality and transfusion in variceal bleeds
  • Duration: recommended for 2-5 days (based on expert opinion)
  • In practice, frequently stopped 24 hours after successful EVL

Side effects
- N/V
- ___ tension
- ___ cardia
- hyperglycemia

monitoring
- s/s
- BP
- HR
- BG

A
  • vasoconstriction
  • acute
  • HTN
  • bradycardia
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11
Q

EVL

  • Gold standard for variceal bleeding cessation
  • Goal is EVL within ___ hours upon presentation
  • Bands could break and/or new varices could form so not ____ solution
A
  • 12
  • long term
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12
Q

Primary Antibiotic Prophylaxis

Indications: increased risk of infections with active variceal bleeding

Antibiotics recommended by guidelines:
- 3rd gen cephalosporin ( ___ )
- Side effects: ___
- Monitoring: signs/symptoms of infection, not ___ cleared so do NOT need to monitor ___
- Duration: until hemorrhage resolution (max __ days)

A
  • ceftriaxone
  • diarrhea
  • renally, SCr
  • 7
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13
Q

T or F: Vit K is recommended for high INR

A

FALSE
data does not show clinical benefit in patients with cirrhosis

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14
Q

Secondary Prophylaxis for Varices

  • EVL: Every 1-4 weeks
  • NSBBs: continue indefinitely (until decompensated)
  • Dosing: adjust every __ days until goals achieved
A
  • 3
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15
Q

EV Summary

  • Evaluate for primary prophylaxis to prevent variceal bleeding
  • For variceal bleeding, acutely manage with
    transfusions, ___ , ___ primary
    prophylaxis, and ___
     After a variceal bleed, initiate secondary prophylaxis with ___ and/or ___
A
  • octreotide, antibiotics, EVL
  • NSBB, EVL
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16
Q

SBP Overview

Annual risk of SBP in patients with cirrhosis and
ascites is 10-30%
- Believed due to be bacterial ___ , in
which bacteria cross the intestinal barrier

A

translocation

17
Q

SBP Clinical Presentation

  • ___
  • Abdominal pain/tenderness
  • Leukocytosis
  • ___
  • Asymptomatic (in ~15% of patients)
A
  • fever
  • encephalopathy
18
Q

Diagnosis

Therapeutic paracentesis
- Positive ascitic fluid bacterial culture
- Ascitic fluid with > ____ cells/mm3
polymorphonuclear ( ___ ) leukocytes
- PMNs = WBC from fluid x % neutrophils

A
  • 250
  • PMN
19
Q

SBP Treatment

Antibiotics recommended by guidelines:
- 3rd gen cephalosporin ( ___ )
- side effects: ___
- Monitoring: signs/symptoms of infection (temp, WBC, cultures), not ___ cleared so do NOT need to monitor ___

Can tailor based on culture (not all will have a positive culture)
- Duration: __ - __ days^

A
  • ceftriazone
  • diarrhea
  • renally, SCr
  • 5-7
20
Q

SBP Treatment

___ has been shown to decrease mortality and AKI/HRS in patients with SBP
- Day 1: ___ g/kg x1 (within 6 hours of SBP diagnosis)
- Day 3: ___ g/kg x1

A

albumin
1.5
1

21
Q

SBP Secondary Prophylaxis

Recurrence of SBP within 1 year is ___ %
- Recommended to initiate SBP secondary prophylaxis with antibiotics and avoid ___ (which increase risk of SBP)
- 2 antibiotics: ___ and ___
- duration: ___

A
  • 70%
  • PPIs
  • Bactrim, ciprofloxacin
  • indefinite
22
Q

SBP Summary

Evaluate need for antibiotics for treatment
- Longer SBP treatment duration is not better

Initiate secondary SBP prophylaxis with ___ or ___
- Monitor for side effects and future SBP

A
  • Bactrim, ciprofloxacin
23
Q

Dosing in Liver Insufficiency

No endogenous marker for hepatic clearance that can be used to guide drug dosing

Things to consider
- Extent of hepatic metabolism/activation of the medication
- Decreased metabolism and decreased activation with cirrhosis
- Severity of liver disease (i.e. Child-Pugh)
- Highly protein bound drugs → ↑ ___ drug concentration, but not total drug concentration
- Consider avoiding/limiting hepatotoxic medications - However, not all may worsen (i.e. ___ in NAFLD/NASH)
- Monitor adverse effects of medications as well as hepatic enzymes and liver
function markers

A
  • free
  • statins
24
Q
A