Professional Practice and Ethics Flashcards

1
Q

Highest form of law

A

Constitution

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2
Q

When was constitution chartered?

A

1987

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3
Q

Piece of legislation to create policy in order to carry out principles of constitution

A

Republic Act

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4
Q

Laws passed when Marcos closed Congress

A

Batas Pambansa

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5
Q

All laws created during Commonwealth period

A

Commonwealth Act

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6
Q

Laws created during the Martial law years (1972-1986)

A

Presidential Decree

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7
Q

Presidential act providing for rules of a general or permanent character in implementation or execution of constitutional or statutory powers

A

Executive Order

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8
Q

Acts of President which relate to particular aspects of governmental operations in pursuance of his duties as administrative head

A

Administrative Order

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9
Q

Acts of President fixing a date or declaring a status or condition of interest

A

Proclamation

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10
Q

Declared by Cory Aquino stating that the last week of May shall be considered as the National Interior Design Week

A

Proclamation No. 390 Series of 2012 “National Interior Design Week”

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11
Q

Acts of President on matters of administrative detail which only concerns a specific office or government

A

Memorandum Order

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12
Q

Detailed legal procedures and processes designed to implement law

A

Implementing Rules and Regulations (IRR)

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13
Q

Local law passed by local legislative body of province, city, municipality or barangay and approved by chief executive officer

A

Ordinance

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14
Q

Aka National Budget Act which states that IDrs shall receive allowance and compensation

A

General Appropriations Act

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15
Q

Philippine Interior Design Act of 1998

A

R.A. 8534

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16
Q

When was R.A. 8534 implemented?

A

February 23, 1998

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17
Q

When was the IRR of R.A. 8534 implemented?

A

May 1998

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18
Q

This Act shall be known as “Philippine Interior Design Act of 2012”;An Act to Regulate and Modernize the Practice of Interior Design in the Philippines

A

R.A. 10350

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19
Q

When was R.A. 10350 implemented?

A

December 17, 2012

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20
Q

What changed from R.A. 8534 to R.A. 10350?

A
  • Interior design degree as a requirement
  • Inclusion of color theory among subjects
  • Definition of lawful practitioners of ID changed
  • Appendage and use of titles
  • AIPO mandatory membership
  • Mandatory CPD points
  • Recognition of seal and signature on all ID docs
  • Proprietary rights
  • Reciprocity and counterparts
  • Civil liabilities
  • Grandfather’s clause
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21
Q

When was the IRR of R.A. 10350 implemented?

A

June 17, 2013

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22
Q

What are the objectives of R.A. 10350?

A
  • The examination, registration and licensure of professional interior designers
  • Supervision control and regulation of the practice of interior design
  • Development of professional competence of interior designers through continuing professional education
  • Integration of the interior design profession
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23
Q

Interior Design

A

Interior design is the science and art of planning, specifying, selecting and organizing surface finishes, treatments, color and materials including furniture, furnishings and fixtures and other interior design elements for the purpose of the interior space allocation to suit, meet and enhance the intended function, movement and character for which the interior of the building is designed.

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24
Q

Professional Interior Designer

A

A natural person who holds a valid certificate of registration and a valid professional identification card issued by the Board and the Commission pursuant to R.A. 10350

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25
Q

What does PRC stand for?

A

Professional Regulation Commission

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26
Q

Commission Chairperson

A

Refers to the Chairperson of PRC

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27
Q

Professional Regulation Commission Modernization Act of 2000

A

R.A. 8981

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28
Q

Refers to the Professional Regulatory Board for Interior Design created under R.A. 10350

A

Board

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29
Q

Board Chairperson

A

Refers to the Chairperson of the Board of Interior Design

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30
Q

What does CHED stand for?

A

Commission on Higher Education

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31
Q

What does CPE stand for?

A

Continuing Professional Education/Development

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32
Q

What does CPEC stand for?

A

Continuing Professional Education Council

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33
Q

What does AIPO stand for?

A

Accredited and Integrated Professional Organization of licensed and registered Interior Designers recognized by the Board and the Commission

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34
Q

What does CIDE stand for?

A

Council of Interior Design Educators

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35
Q

An area inside a building or room with respect to design and decoration, the purpose, function and dimensions of which is prescribed in the documents

A

Interior Space

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36
Q

Documents that form part of the legal contract for services between two or more parties which shall include detailed instructions to the contractor, tender forms, contract documents and specifications

A

Contract Documents

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37
Q

Services on the specified interior spaces which shall include developing and monitoring schedules and construction costs, ensuring that the construction is completed in conformance with contracts and design intent or doing liason works with contractors and consultants throughout the course of construction, reviewing shop drawings submitted by contractor, observing and monitoring construction progress; move-in furniture / furnishing installations and conducting required post-occupancy evaluations

A

Contract Administration/ Project Management

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38
Q

Plans showing appropriate scale and type of furnishings with critical or required clearances that shall serve as the basis for a fully integrated project design for Furniture, Furnishings and Equipment (FF&E) package

A

Furniture Footprint Plans

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39
Q

Design, selection, specification, color coordination and procurement documentation of the required items necessary to meet the functional, operational, sustainability, safety and aesthetic requirements of the users

A

Furniture, Furnishings and Equipment (FF&E)

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40
Q

Scope of work which may include, but not limited to conducting research, identifying and analyzing the requirements of the clients; evaluating existing documentation and conditions; assessing project resources and limitations; identifying life safety and relevant codal requirements and developing project schedules and budgets

A

Programming

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41
Q

Ceiling layout that shall include lighting, and other fixed or movable elements of all utilities

A

Reflected Ceiling Plan (RCP)

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42
Q

Researches, analyses and plan/design translations of interior spatial requirements based on codal requirements and space planing standards including but not limited to space programs/plans, stacking diagrams, connectivity and access, satisfaction of organic and sustainable design requirements and furniture and equipment layouts

A

Space Planning

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43
Q

Detailed written description of construction, workmanship and materials of the interior design work to be undertaken which may be closed or open technical specifications

A

Technical specifications

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44
Q

The practice of interior design is the act of ______, ______, ______, ______ and ______ general administration and responsible direction to the ______, ______ and ______ arrangement and enhancement of interior spaces.

A

planning, designing, specifying, supervising and providing

functional, orderly and aesthetic

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45
Q

Scope of interior design

A
  • Consultation, advice etc
  • Preliminary interior design concepts, schematic interior design development etc.
  • Preparation of interior design plans etc
  • Interior construction administration
  • All other works that require professional competence of IDr
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46
Q

The Board under the administrative control and supervision of the Commission shall be composed of a ______ and ______ members appointed by the ______ of the Philippines.

A

Chairperson and two

President

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47
Q

The Specialty Board of Interior Design is under the Board of Architecture through ____________. This became a full pledged Board with the enactment of RA 8534

A

Board Resolution No. 21 (1982).

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48
Q

First licensure exams

A

August 22, 1983

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49
Q

First fully computerized exams

A

October 5, 1994

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50
Q

7 Qualifications of the Board Chairperson and Members

A
  1. Must be a citizen of PH
  2. Degree holder of BSID or BFA major in ID or equivalent
  3. Must be registered IDr. and active practitioner for not less than 10 years
  4. Must not be a member of the faculty
  5. Must not be connected with a review center
  6. Must be a member with good standing in AIPO but not an incumbent trustee
  7. Must not have been convicted of a crime
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51
Q

Board term of office

A

3 years- Chair
2 years- Member 1
1 year- Member 2

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52
Q

12 Powers and duties of the Board

A
  1. Adopt, promulgate and administer rules and regulations necessary for carrying out provisions of RA 10350
  2. Supervise and regulate the registration, licensure and practice of professional IDrs
  3. Administer oaths
  4. Issue, suspend, revoke, reinstate COR or professional license
  5. Adopt an official seal of the Board
  6. Monitor conditions affecting practice of IDr and adopt such measures as may be deemed proper for the enhancement of the profession and/or maintenance
  7. Ensure, in coordination with CHED that all other educational institutions offering ID comply with policies, standards and requirements of the course
  8. Prescribe and adopt Code of Ethics
  9. Hear and try administrative cases
  10. Prescribe guidelines for CPE/CPD program
  11. Prepare, adopt and issue TOS and syllabi for exam
  12. Discharge such other duties and functions as may be deemed necessary for enhancement of ID
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53
Q

From 45 CPD points required down to 15 points amended February 7, 2019; aka Continuing Professional Development Act of 2016

A

R.A. 10912

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54
Q

4 Grounds for removal or suspension of Board Chairperson/Member

A
  1. Gross neglect, incompetence, dishonesty
  2. Commission of prohibited acts/ violations of R.A. 10350, Revised Penal Code, the Anti-Graft and Corrupt Practices Act and other related laws
  3. Manipulation or rigging of the licensure exam, tampering with results, disclosure of secrets, manipulation/shoving of grades and similar acts
  4. Conviction of an offense involving moral turpitude
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55
Q

Official seal of the Board

A

page 9

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56
Q

4 Qualifications of Applicants for licensure exam

A
  1. Must be citizen of PH or foreign citizen w foreign reciprocity
  2. Of good moral character
  3. . Must be holder of ID degree in PH or equivalent in foreign
  4. Not convicted of an offense
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57
Q

Subjects for licensure exam

A
Interior Design 40%
Furniture Design and Construction 15%
Materials of Design and Decoration 10%
History of Arts and ID 10%
Interior Construction and Utilities 10%
Color Theory 5%
Professional Practice and Ethics 5%
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58
Q

The Board shall issue for dissemination a program for every scheduled examination not later than ______ days before the first day of scheduled exam which shall contain four things: ______, ______, ______, ______.

A
  • 20
  • Name of applicant
  • Subjects for exam with corresponding percentage weight; times, date, places of exam
  • Instructions
  • Names and signatures of Chairman and Members of the Board
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59
Q

An examinee must obtain a weighted general average of ______% to qualify as having passed. The Board shall release the report of ratings within ______ days after the exam unless extended by Commission for just cause.

A

70%

20 days

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60
Q

All successful candidates in the examination shall be required to take an ______ of ______ before the Board or any government official authorized by Commission.

A

oath of profession

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61
Q

The Board shall not register any successful applicant for registration who has been:

A
  1. Convicted of an offense
  2. Guilty of immoral or dishonourable conduct
  3. Adjudged guilty for violation of the General Instructions to Examinees
  4. Declared of unsound mind
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62
Q

In refusing to register, the Board shall give the applicant a ______ ______ setting forth the reasons thereof and shall file a copy thereof in its records.

A

Written statement

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63
Q

A __________________ shall be issued to applicants who passed the examination for interior designers subject to payment of registration fees.

A

Certificate of Registration

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64
Q

The certificate of registration shall bear the signatures of the __________________ and the ____________, stamped with the official seal, indicating that the person named therein is entitled to practice the profession with all privileges appurtenant thereto until withdrawn, suspended or revoked in accordance with R.A. 10350.

A

Chairperson of the Commission and the Board Members

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65
Q

A certificate of registration bearing the ____________, ____________, and ____________, duly signed by the Chairman of the Board shall likewise be issued to every registrant who has paid the required fees.

A

registration number
date of issuance
expiry date

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66
Q

The professional identification card issued to an interior designer shall be valid for a period of ______ from its issuance and shall be renewed every after ______ on the ______ of the interior designer upon payment of fees and submission of required documents.

A

3 years
3 years
birth month

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67
Q

All practicing interior designers who are registered at the time of the passage of RA 10350 shall ______ be registered and issued __________________ subject to existing rules and regulations.

A

automatically

certificate of registration

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68
Q

All interior designers whose names appear in the Registry Book of Interior Designers shall ______ or ______ become members thereof and shall receive therefrom all the benefits and privileges due to members upon payment of AIPO membership fees and dues.

A

ipso facto

automatically

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69
Q

Natural persons

A
  1. Duly registered and licensed IDr and holders of valid COR and professional ID
  2. Holders of valid COR/ temporary special permits
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70
Q

Juridical persons

A
  1. Single proprietorship owned by registered and licensed IDr
  2. General professional partnership composed of partners duly registered and licensed IDrs
  3. Corporation whose CEO and key officers shall be registered and licensed IDrs
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71
Q

A duly registered IDr shall ______ and ______ the seal as approved by the Board on all plans, specifications and contract documents prepared by him/her or under his/her direct supervision during the validity of his/her COR.

A

sign and affix

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72
Q

Foreigners intending to work in the Philippines to perform professional services as IDrs or consultants shall first secure a __________________ from the Commission through the Board provided that:

1.
2.

A

Temporary/special permit

  1. He/she is legally and professionally qualified and registered IDr in his/her own country
  2. His/her expertise is unique and useful to the PH
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73
Q

Foreign interior designer shall be required to work in every case with a ________________________ who has been in the continuous practice of interior design for at least ______…

A

duly licensed Filipino counterpart

10 years

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74
Q

The provisions of __________________ entitled “Guidelines in Implementing Section 7 paragraphs (j), (l) and Section 16 of Republic Act 8981” shall govern the procedures in the application, filing, evaluation, issuance/approval/denial/revocation/cancellation of COR or Special Temporary Permits of foreign nationals who desire to practice ID in PH

A

PRC Resolution No. 2012-668, Series of 2012

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75
Q

9 Reasons for Revocation or Suspension of COR and Cancellation of Temporary/Special Permit

A
  1. Violation of RA 10350
  2. Perpetration and/or use of fraud in obtaining COR, professional ID or temporary/special permit
  3. Gross incompetence, negligence or ignorance
  4. Refusal to join or remain a member in good standing in AIPO
  5. Neglect or failure to pay annual registration fees for 5 consecutive years
  6. Knowingly aiding or abetting illegal practice of nonregistered person
  7. Illegally practicing during suspension
  8. Addiction to drug or alcohol abuse
  9. Noncompliance with CPE requirements
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76
Q

The Board may reinstate or reissue a revoked COR after ______ from date of effectivity of the period for revocation

A

2 years

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77
Q

The Board shall suspend a registered IDr for nonpayment of the annual registration fees for ____________ from his/her last or previous year payment.

A

5 consecutive years

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78
Q

The following shall be punished by a fine of ____________ but not more than ____________ or imprisonment of not less than ______ but not more than ______.

A

300,000 pesos
1,000,000
6 months
3 years

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79
Q

The IDr shall assume full responsibility for contract work within ______ from final acceptance by the client.

A

1 year

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80
Q

Code of Ethics

A

I shall work with this general objective that my duty is not only to myself, but also to my fellowmen,
my country and God.
I shall uphold the ideals and follow the norms of conduct of a noble profession and endlessly endeavor
to further its just ends.
I shall humbly seek success not through the measure of solicited personal publicity but by industrious
application
to my work, strive to merit a reputation for quality of service and for fair dealing.
I shall ask from all fair remunerations for my services while expecting and asking no profits from any
other source.
I shall hold the interest of my client over and above any self-interest for financial returns.
I shall exercise my professional prerogatives always with impartiality and disinterestedness.
I shall not allow my private business investments or venture to affect or influence my professional
judgment to
the detriment of the trust place upon me.
I shall always keep my moral responsibilities towards my colleagues.
I shall inspire by my behavior the loyalty of my associates and subordinates and take upon me the
mentorship of the aspirants to the profession.
I shall confine my criticisms and praises of the works of colleagues within constructive and inspirational
limits
and never resort to these means to further malicious motives.
I shall dedicate myself to the pursuit of creative endeavor towards the goal of enlightened Art and
Science,
generously sharing with colleagues, friends and strangers alike the benefits of my experience and experiments.

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81
Q

Responsibilities in Relation to Client

The Interior Designer may introduce to a prospective Client the professional services he is able to perform provided it is limited to presentation of examples of his professional experience and does not entail the offering of free preliminary sketches or other services without the benefit of an agreement with the Client for legitimate compensation. The same holds true for an Interior Designer whether employed by or is the proprietor of a furniture, drapery or allied supply firm. A ____________ should always be charged for interior designer services except when this is limited only to consultative advice and minor sketches needed to help sell the products.

A

separate interior designer’s fee

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82
Q

Responsibilities in Relation to Client

The interior designer shall acquaint or ascertain from the Client at the very inception of their business relationship the ____________ and the corresponding ____________.

A

exact scope of services; professional charges

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83
Q

Responsibilities in Relation to Client

The interior designer shall explain the conditional character of ______ other than estimates submitted in the form of actual proposals by contractors and in no case shall he guarantee any estimates or cost of work. Neither shall he mislead his clients to the probable cost of the work in order to secure a commission/

A

estimates

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84
Q

Responsibilities in Relation to Client

The interior designer shall consider the ____________ of his client and the ______ of his work upon the life and well-being of the public and the community as a whole and to endeavor to meet the aesthetic and functional requirements of the project commensurate with the client’s appropriation.

A

needs and stipulations; effects

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85
Q

Responsibilities in Relation to Client

The IDr shall charge his client for services rendered, a ____________ commensurate with the work involved and his professional standing and experience based upon the basic minimum fee prescribed by the __________________.

A

Philippine Institute of Interior Designers (PIID)

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86
Q

Responsibilities in Relation to Client

The IDr shall be compensated for his services solely through his ____________ charged directly to the ______. He shall not accept nor ask for any other returns in whatever form from any interested source other than the Client.

A

professional fee; client

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87
Q

Responsibilities in Relation to the Architect

The IDr shall not, without ____________ of the Architect, when an architect is involved, make any ____________ in plans or specifications.

A

prior consent; architectural changes

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88
Q

Responsibilities in Relation to the Architect

The IDr shall not make ____________ of the structure of the plans of the Architect.

A

malicious criticisms

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89
Q

Responsibilities in Relation to the Architect

The IDr shall work in cooperation with the ______ to ensure the success of the project.

A

architect

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90
Q

Responsibilities in Relation to the Architect

The IDr shall not make any ____________ for any building or project to be signed by any licensed architect but passed on as the work of an IDr’s firm unless he too is a licensed architect.

A

architectural plans

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91
Q

Responsibilities in Relation Manufacturers, Contractors and Suppliers

The IDr shall not at any time receive ________, ________, ________ or ________ from agents or firms handling furniture, drapery or other building and decorative supplies which may place him in a reciprocal frame of mind. He may, however, accept ____________ which shall be credited to the client.

A

commission, discounts, fees or favors; market discount

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92
Q

Responsibilities in Relation Manufacturers, Contractors and Suppliers

The IDr shall immediately, upon his personal knowledge and inspection, ______ or ______ materials or workmanship which are not in conformity with the specifications in the contract documents in order not to cause unnecessary delay or additional expense to the manufacturer or contractor. The IDr shall give the manufacturer every reasonable aid to enable him to fully understand the specifications of the contract by furnishing clear, definite and consistent information in all pertinent documents to avoid unnecessary mistakes which may involve extra costs to the manufacturer or contractor.

A

reject or condemn

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93
Q

Responsibilities in Relation to His Colleagues and Subordinates

The IDr shall not render services without ________ except for small, civic or community projects. He shall neither offer nor provide preliminary services on a conditional basis prior to definite agreement with the client for the commission of the projects.

A

compensation

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94
Q

Responsibilities in Relation to His Colleagues and Subordinates

The IDr shall not ________________ with other interior designers on the basis of difference of ________, nor use ________ as a device for obtaining competitive advantage except for worthy civic projects. Neither shall he submit solicited or unsolicited sketches or drawings in competition with other designers unless agreed upon by architects involved.

A

knowingly compete; professional charges; donation

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95
Q

Responsibilities in Relation to His Colleagues and Subordinates

The IDr shall not under any circumstance nor through any means seek ________ already known to him as previously endowed to another IDr whether such endowment has been definitely agreed upon or still in the process of negotiation.

A

commission

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96
Q

Responsibilities in Relation to His Colleagues and Subordinates

The IDr shall not ________________________ for which he knows another IDr has been ________________ until he has notified such IDr of the fact in writing and had conclusively determined that the original employment has been terminated and has been duly compensated for.

A

undertake a commission

previously employed

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97
Q

Responsibilities in Relation to His Colleagues and Subordinates

The IDr shall not knowingly injure ________ or ________, the ________________, ________, or ________ of another IDr for the same project and client, except with the knowledge of such IDr or unless such IDr’s work has definitely been terminated or involving criticism of public projects financed with public funds.

A
falsely
maliciously
professional reputation
prospects
practice
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98
Q

Responsibilities in Relation to His Colleagues and Subordinates

The IDr shall not in any case, engage as a ________ in any IDr competition when he has ________________ with the formulation of the Programs thereof or when he has been engaged to act as professional ________ or ________ in any IDr competition when he has any information or has reviewed or assisted in the preparation of any competition design entered. Nor shall an IDr, retained as a professional adviser in a competition, accept ________ as an IDr for that competition project except as __________________________.

A
competitor
direct relations
adviser
juror
employment
Consulting Interior Designer
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99
Q

Responsibilities in Relation to His Colleagues and Subordinates

The IDr shall inspire by the loyalty of his employees and subordinates by providing them with _______________________, requiring them to render competition and efficient services and paying them ________ and ________ compensation therefor. He shall tutor and mentor the young aspirants towards the ideals, functions, duties and responsibilities of the profession.

A

suitable working conditions
adequate
just

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100
Q

Responsibilities in Relation to His Colleagues and Subordinates

The IDr shall unselfishly give his share in the ________ of technical information and experience among his colleagues and young aspirants and do his part in fostering unity in the fellowship of the profession.

A

interchange

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101
Q

Responsibilities in Relation to the People

The IDr shall seek opportunities to be of ________ service in ________ and ________ affairs and to the best of his ability, advance the safety, health and well-being of the people and the community as well as the promotion, restoration or preservation of the general amenities and other examples of historic and architectural heritage of the nation.

A

constructive
civic
urban

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102
Q

Responsibilities in Relation to the People

The IDr shall promote the ___________________________ and do his full part of the work to enhance the objectives and services of the organization. He should share in the interchange of technical information and experience with other design professions and the building industry.

A

interest of his professional organization

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103
Q

Responsibilities in Relation to the People

The IDr, as a good citizen shall _______ and _______ the laws and regulations of the profession in the Philippines. He shall, at no time, act in a manner detrimental to the best interest of the profession.

A

abide

observe

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104
Q

Responsibilities in Relation to the People

The IDr shall not ________ the public through advertisement, signs or printed matter citing his professional specialization unless such qualifications are well-known or sanctioned by professional consensus and years of experience.

A

mislead

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105
Q

Guidelines for Standard Fees

A

PIID Document # 5

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106
Q

3 usual forms of earnings

A

Salary
Fixed contract amount
Standard rates for services rendered based on time, overhead and materials

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107
Q

Consultation fee

A

Min. ₱500 per hour
Max ₱1500 per hour
or lump sum of ₱10,000 per day (8 working hours)
plus transportation, accommodation, food and per diem for local and international out of town projects

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108
Q

Fee for small projects with max. floor area of 75 sqm.

A

Min. ₱50,000 per unit or ₱1,000 per sqm

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109
Q

Fee from 76 sqm to 300 sqm

A

Min. ₱50,000 per major room or max. ₱300,000 per house

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110
Q

Fee for 301 sqm and above

A

Min ₱400 to max. ₱800 per sqm

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111
Q

Fee for repetitive work

A

Full payment for 1 unit or

Percentage of one unit for the succeeding set of units

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112
Q

Fee for renovation and repair works

A

Min. ₱50,000 per unit or ₱1,000 per sqm plus 10% contingency fees for unseen additional works

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113
Q

Fees on Percentage basis

A

10%-15% of budgetary cost; cost will depend on prevailing market rate per sqm

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114
Q

How many sets of blueprints needed on contract document and coordination phase?

A

7 sets

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115
Q

Schedule of fees per phase

A
10% acceptance fee
20% schematic design phase
35% design development phase
20% contract document and coordination phase
15% construction phase
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116
Q

According to PIID Document No. 5 Chapter 4, contract for professional services shall be executed in pursuance with pertinent provision of _________ promulgated February 23, 1998 and _________ on the Protection of Intellectual Property issued November 14, 1972.

A

RA 8534

PD 49

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117
Q

Contract for Professional Services

A

PIID Document #6

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118
Q

The Technical Standards for the Practice of Interior Design in the Philippines

A

ID Code

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119
Q

When was ID code promulgated?

A

December 24, 2007

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120
Q

Historic buildings subject to alteration, repairs, renovations, additions, upgrading necessary for the preservation, restoration, rehabilitation or continued use need not conform to all requirements of this code (ID code) However, such shall be subject to regulation of the government agencies concerned like the ________________, ________________ or ________________ and the ________________. Reference for recommendation for approval shall be subject to compliance with ________________.

A

National Commission for Culture and Arts (NCCA)
National History Institute (NHI)
National Museum of the Philippines (NMP)
Department of Public Works and Highways (DPWH)
R.A. 1066, National Cultural Heritage Act of 2008

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121
Q

National Cultural Heritage Act of 2008

A

R.A. 1066

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122
Q

Scope of Comprehensive Design Services

A
  • Pre-design services/ Programming
  • Design Services: Preliminary design, working drawings, specifications and other contract documents
  • Specialized allied services
  • Contract documentation
  • Contract/Project Management
  • FF&E
  • Interior Construction Services
  • Post-Construction services
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123
Q

The action or process wherein the client hires an IDr or ID Firm to coordinate the whole range of Comprehensive Design Services to oversee the project to competion.

A

Project Management

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124
Q

Responsible for his/her men and equipment and the delivery of the project as per the contract.

A

Contractor

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125
Q

Role is to make decisions on the project and to assure that funds are available to complete the project within the budget’s statement.

A

Client

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126
Q

Role is to plan, program and monitor the various activities and act as an adviser on material cost control.

A

Project Manager

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127
Q

Limitation of Authority of the Project Manager

A
  1. Shall not involve himself directly with the work of the Contractor
  2. Shall not impose method systems/ designs
  3. Shall not interfere with the IDr’s designs
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128
Q

Based on the Civil Code, does project manager have legal responsibility in so far as design and construction are concerned?

A

No

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129
Q

4 Methods of Compensation based on ID code

A

Salary
Fixed contract amount
Standard rates for services
Fees on percentage basis

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130
Q

Related services and the field of expertise where the Designer has acquired formal education and rigid training with long years of experience that gained him/her expertise.

A

Allied design services of the ID profession

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131
Q

Related services needed to complement the space which require specialization

A

Specialized Allied services

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132
Q

5 inclusions of specialized allied services

A
  1. Specialty product design, fabrication, production, furniture, furnishing and fixture
  2. Acoustic, lighting, telecommunication and electronic design
  3. Interior Landscaping design
  4. Interior Space Graphic design
  5. Theatre stage and studio set design
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133
Q

The art and science of ordering the use of space and setting of spaces and accessibility routes to secure the maximum practicable degree of economy via use of common facilities, convenience and aesthetics

A

Space Planning

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134
Q

Defined as the coordination of interior finishes involving tangibles and aesthetics

A

Space Planning

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135
Q

In the form of wayfinding, marketing and advertising visuals and creative designs for imagery and semiotic impact in the formulation of the interior message

A

Environmental Graphic Design

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136
Q

3 components in the formulation of environmental graphic design

A
  1. Wayfinding and Service Info Visuals/Signages
  2. Marketing and Advertising Visuals
  3. Legal Administrative Component
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137
Q

A specialized trade, offered as an option by the IDrs in the form of wall, floor or ceiling as a two-dimensional or three-dimensional artwork such as sculptures, painting and other forms of creative designs.

A

Visual Arts Design

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138
Q

Basic functions include quality control, evaluation and construction work and keeping of records, reports and contract documents. Group of individuals or individual who assist in the supervision and delivery of work; hired by the owner/client and usually recommended by the IDr.

A

Interior Project Management Group

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139
Q

As a full-time supervisor, how can the interior designer be compensated?

A
  1. Fees on Percentage basis
  2. Progress billing
  3. Cost per sqm
  4. Repetitive work
    1st room: 100% full fee
    Next 10 rooms: 75% of full fee
    Next 20 rooms: 50%
    Next 20 rooms: 25%
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140
Q

Tasked to address the need to effectively control costs and efficiently implement schemes, due to the complexity of construction projects. Can be an individual or a team hired by the owner/client to manage the construction project.

A

Construction manager

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141
Q

Functions of Construction manager

A
  1. Coordination and supervision
  2. Cost and Time Control
  3. Quality control of work and keeping of record
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142
Q

PERT-CPM

A

Project/Program Evaluation Review Technique (PERT)

Critical Path Method (CPM)

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143
Q

Who prepares the PERT-CPM and cash flow?

A

Construction Manager

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144
Q

Limitations of authority of the construction manager

A
  1. Shall not involve himself directly with the work of the Contractor
  2. Shall not impose method systems/ designs
  3. Shall not interfere with the IDr’s designs
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145
Q

To whom does the construction manager directly report to on the project scheduling, coordination, quality and cost control?

A

Owner/client

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146
Q

Does the construction manager have a legal liability?

A

No

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147
Q

A professional service contract normally negotiated between the owner/client and the construction manager

A

Construction Manager Contract

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148
Q

According to the Construction Manager contract, how much should be the basic fee of construction managers?

A

2% to 3% of the estimated construction cost

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149
Q

Contract by a range of incentives and provisions

A

Incentive-type contracts

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150
Q

Type of incentive-type contract wherein the CM may be given an incentive if he/she meets the cost-related values or exceeds the specified target values.

A

Award Fee Provisions

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151
Q

Type of incentive-type contract wherein the contract fee will increase or decrease according to the previously agreed upon charges.

A

Price Adjustment Provision

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152
Q

Type of incentive-type contract wherein the CM will receive a lump sum fee which is a fixed fee unless the owner increases the scope of work.

A

Lump sum fee

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153
Q

Type of incentive-type contract wherein the CM will receive a fixed fee from the owner/client based on the difference between the final allowable costs and the target costs.

A

Fixed price incentives

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154
Q

Type of incentive-type contract with provisions of a fee that is adjusted by “sharing” formulas applied to the difference between the final allowable cases and the target costs/

A

Cost plus adjusted fee (CPAF)

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155
Q

Type of incentive-type contract wherein the CM will receive a cost plus fixed fee reimbursement of expenses incurred in the performance of basic services

A

Costs plus fixed fee

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156
Q

7 members of the construction team

A
  1. Owner/client
  2. Architect and design engineers
  3. IDr and design engrs
  4. General contractor with interior contractor
  5. Construction supervision group architectural/ID
  6. Construction manager
  7. Specialty contractors
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157
Q

ID Code Chapter 9: Sustainable Interior Design

Use the ________ technology appropriate to the ________ need and incorporate ________________ strategies responsive to the local climate.

A

simplest
functional
passive energy-conserving

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158
Q

ID Code Chapter 9: Sustainable Interior Design

Use ________________ building materials to the greatest extent possible.

A

renewable indigenous

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159
Q

ID Code Chapter 9: Sustainable Interior Design

Strive for ________________. Optimize use and flexibility of spaces so that overall building size and the resources necessary for construction and operation are minimized.

A

“Smaller is Better”

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160
Q

ID Code Chapter 9: Sustainable Interior Design

Consider ________. Strive for minimal environmental disruption, resource consumption and material waste and identify opportunities for reuse/recycling of construction debris.

A

constructability

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161
Q

ID Code Chapter 9: Sustainable Interior Design

Provide ____________ to full spectrum of people with physical and sensory impairments while minimizing impacts on natural and cultural resources.

A

equal access

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162
Q

ID Code Chapter 9: Sustainable Interior Design

Allow for ____________ and/or ____________ with minimum demolition and waste. Materials and components should be chosen that can easily be reused or recycled.

A

future expansion

adaptive uses

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163
Q

ID Code Chapter 9: Sustainable Interior Design

Make it easy for the occupants to _______ waste.

A

recycle

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164
Q

ID Code Chapter 9: Sustainable Interior Design

Apply ________________ techniques to effect appropriate comfort levels for human activities. Do not isolate ____________ from environment.

A

natural conditioning

human needs

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165
Q

ID Code Chapter 9: Sustainable Interior Design

Avoid ________ on mechanical systems to alter the climate (such dependency signifies inappropriate design disassociation from the environment and non-suitable use of resources)

A

overdependence

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166
Q

ID Code Chapter 9: Sustainable Interior Design

Analyze whether ________ is comfortable, too cool or too hot for anticipated activities and then which of the primary clinic components of temperature, sun, wind and moisture make the comfort level better (asset) or worse (liability).

A

climate

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167
Q

ID Code Chapter 9: Sustainable Interior Design
Section 86: Sensory Experience

Use design principles of ______, _______, ______, _______ and _______ to enhance complementary integration if facilities into environmental context.

A
scale
rhythm
proportion
balance
composition
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168
Q

ID Code Chapter 9: Sustainable Interior Design
Section 86: Sensory Experience

Use ________ to blend facilities with natural context, unless contradictory to other environmental considerations (reflection/absorption) or cultural values (customs/taboos).

A

muted colors

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169
Q

ID Code Chapter 9: Sustainable Interior Design
Section 86: Sensory Experience

Locate service and maintenance functions ______ from public areas, lodging units and interpretive stops so that natural, not human sounds dominate.

A

away

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170
Q

ID Code Chapter 9: Sustainable Interior Design
Section 86: Sensory Experience

Use ________ to create sound ______ between public and private activities.

A

vegetation

baffle

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171
Q

ID Code Chapter 9: Sustainable Interior Design
Section 86: Sensory Experience

Orient openings ______ natural sounds such as lapping of waves, babbling of streams, and rustling of leaves by the wind, restrict the use or audio level of unnatural sounds such as radios and televisions.

A

toward

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172
Q

ID Code Chapter 9: Sustainable Interior Design
Section 86: Sensory Experience

Allow visitors to ______ and ____________ with natural and cultural resources of the site.

A

touch

be in touch

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173
Q

ID Code Chapter 9: Sustainable Interior Design
Section 86: Sensory Experience

Vary ____________ to identify or give different quality to different spaces.

A

walking surfaces

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174
Q

ID Code Chapter 9: Sustainable Interior Design
Section 86: Sensory Experience

Use ____________ to direct attention to interpretative opportunities.

A

contrasting textures

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175
Q

ID Code Chapter 9: Sustainable Interior Design
Section 86: Sensory Experience

Allow ____________ of vegetation to be enjoyed.

A

natural fragrances

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176
Q

ID Code Chapter 9: Sustainable Interior Design
Section 86: Sensory Experience

Direct air exhausted from utility areas _______ from public areas.

A

away

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177
Q

ID Code Chapter 9: Sustainable Interior Design
Section 86: Sensory Experience

Provide opportunities to _______ local produce and cuisine.

A

sample

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178
Q

Sustainable designers work to create ____________ buildings and communities that are ____________ to build (or retrofit), ____________ to operate, ________ to lease and ________ and ____________ to occupy plus they boost ____________.

A
high-performance
less expensive
more profitable
easier
healthier 
more comfortable
worker productivity
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179
Q

Related to “inclusive design” and “design for all”; an approach to design of products, services and environments to be usable by as many people as possible regardless of age, ability or situtation.

A

Universal design

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180
Q

Provide a level of accessibility for people with disabilities but they also often result in separate or stigmatizing solutions.

A

Barrier-free design and assistive technology

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181
Q

7 principles of universal design

EFSPTLS

A
  1. Equitable use
  2. Flexibility in use
  3. Simple and Intuitive use
  4. Perceptible Information
  5. Tolerance for Error
  6. Low physical effort
  7. Size and Space for Approach and Use
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182
Q

Principle of universal design where the design is useful and marketable to people with diverse ablities.

A

Equitable use

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183
Q

Principle of universal design where the design accommodates a wide range of individual preferences and abilities.

A

Flexibility in use

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184
Q

Principle of universal design where the use of design is easy to understand, regardless of user’s experience, knowledge, language skills or current concentration level.

A

Simple and Intuitive Use

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185
Q

Principle of universal design where the design communicates necessary information effectively to the user, regardless of ambient conditions or the user’s sensory abilities.

A

Perceptible Information

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186
Q

Principle of universal design where the design minimizes hazards and adverse consequences of accidental or unintended actions.

A

Tolerance for Error

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187
Q

Principle of universal design where the design can be used efficiently and comfortably and with a minimum of fatigue/

A

Low Physical Effort

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188
Q

Principle of universal design where appropriate size and space is provided for approach, reach, manipulation and use regardless of user’s body size, posture or mobility.

A

Size and Space for Approach and Use

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189
Q

Signs for physically challenged and visually impaired

What color is the symbol and the background?

A

White symbol

Dark blue or black background

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190
Q

________ signboards indicate warnings

A

Rectangular

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191
Q

________ signboards spell out prohibitions

A

Circular

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192
Q

A rule of conduct, just, obligatory and laid down by a legitimate power for common observance and benefit

A

Law

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193
Q

5 characteristics and requisites of law

A
  1. It is a rule of conduct.
  2. It is just or presumed to be just
  3. It is laid down by a legitimate power
  4. It is obligatory or compulsory
  5. Existence of a sanction or punishment in case of non-observance of rule of conduct
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194
Q

5 sources of law

A
Constitution
Legislation
Administrative rules and regulations
Judicial decisions or jurisprudence
Custom and other supplementary sources
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195
Q

Ignorance of the law shall excuse no one from compliance therewith

A

Article 3

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196
Q

Law on obligations and contracts which is the body of rules that deals with the nature and sources of obligations and rights and duties arising from agreements and particular contracts

A

RA 836, Book 4

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197
Q

Kind of obligation that gives right of action to compel their performance

A

Civil obligations

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198
Q

Kind of obligation based on equity and natural law; does not grant a right of action to enforce performance; merges with moral obligations

A

Natural obligations

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199
Q

Article 1156: An obligation is a juridical ________ to ________, to ________ or ________.

A

necessity
give
do
not to do

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200
Q

Elements of an obligation

The one who can compel compliance with the obligation

A

Active subject

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201
Q

Elements of an obligation

The one compelled with or perform the obligation

A

Passive subject

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202
Q

Elements of an obligation

Also known as efficient cause; the one which binds the parties or connects the parties to the obligation

A

Juridical or legal tie

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203
Q

Elements of an obligation

That which an object or undertaking of the obligation or that which is to be given, to be done or not to be done

A

Prestation

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204
Q

5 sources of obligations

A
Law
Contracts
Quasi-contracts
Acts or omissions punished by law
Quasi-delicts
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205
Q

Article 1159

Obligations arising from ________ have the ____________ between the contrasting parties and should be complied with in good faith.

A

contracts

force of law

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206
Q

If a person obliged to do something fails to do it, the same shall be executed at his cost. This same rule shall be observed if he does it in contravention of the tenor of the obligation. Furthermore, it may be decreed that what has been poorly done be undone.

A

Article 1167

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207
Q

4 sources of liability for damages

A

Fraud
Negligence
Delay
Contravention of the tenor of the obligation

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208
Q

Intentional non performance of obligation; deception. There is an intent to evade the normal fulfillment of the obligation and to cause damage.

A

Dolo

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209
Q

Responsibility arising from fraud is demandable in all obligations. Any waiver of an action for future fraud is void.

A

Article 1171

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210
Q

Fraud in the performance of an obligation. Does not affect validity of contract. Renders guilty party liable for damages.

A

Dolo incidente/ incidental fraud

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211
Q

Fraud used by one of the parties to a contract in securing the consent of the other party. Renders contracts voidable. Renders the contract defective and subject it to annulment and gives the innocent party a right to ask for damages.

A

Dolo causante/ causal fraud

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212
Q

Carelessness or lack of diligence.

A

Culpa

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213
Q

Article 1173

When the negligence shows bad faith, it is considered equivalent to ________.

A

fraud

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214
Q

Type of negligence when there is a pre-existing obligation (arising from a contract) and there is fault in carrying out such.

A

Contractual negligence/ culpa contractual

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215
Q

Type of negligence when negligence becomes a source of obligation in itself without a pre-existing contract

A

Civil negligence/ culpa aquiliana

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216
Q

Legal delay where there is failure in performance of an obligation on time constituting a breach

A

Mora or default

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217
Q

Delay on the part of the debtor to fulfill his obligation

A

Mora solvendi

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218
Q

Delay on the part of the creditor to accept the performance of the obligation

A

Mora accipiendi

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219
Q

Delay of obligors in reciprocal obligations

A

Compensation morae

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220
Q

The violation of the stipulations in the obligation. The contravention however must not be due to fortuitous event or force majeure.

A

Contravention of the tenor of the obligation

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221
Q

Article 1174

Except in cases expressly specified by the law or when it is otherwise declared by stipulation, or when the nature of the obligation requires the assumption of risk; no person shall be responsible for those events which could not be ________, or which, though ________ were ________.

A

foreseen
foreseen
inevitable

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222
Q

An event which could not be foreseen or which, through foreseen was inevitable. Includes unavoidable accidents.

A

Fortuitous event

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223
Q

According to the law, fortuitous events and ________ are the same as they exempt an obligor from liability.

A

force majeure

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224
Q

When there is human intervention; war, fire, robbery or invasion

A

Acts of man

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225
Q

Totally independent of will of any human being; earthquake, flood, hurricane, lighting strike, volcano erruption

A

Acts of God

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226
Q

6 ways to extinguish obligations

A
Payment/ Performance
Loss of the thing due
Condonation or remission of debt
Confusion or merger of rights of creditor and debtor
Compensation
Novation
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227
Q

Includes delivery of money and performance of an obligation in a manner other than delivery of money like delivery of a determinate object agreed upon or rendition of a service or services.

A

Payment

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228
Q

Article 1305

A ________ is a meeting of the minds between two persons whereby one binds himself with the respect to the other, to give something or to render some service.

A

contract

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229
Q

Basic Principles or Characteristics of Contracts

Obligations arising from contracts have the force of law between contracting parties and should be complied with in good faith. (Article 1159)

A

Obligatory force

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230
Q

Basic Principles or Characteristics of Contracts

The contracting parties may establish such stipulations, clauses, terms and conditions as they may deem convenient, provided they are not contrary to law, morals, good customs, public order or public policy. (Article 1306)

A

Autonomy

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231
Q

Basic Principles or Characteristics of Contracts

The contract must bind both contracting parties; its validity or compliance cannot be left to the will of one of them (Article 1308)

A

Mutuality

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232
Q

Basic Principles or Characteristics of Contracts

Contracts take effect only between parties, their assigns and heirs, except in case where the rights and obligations arising from the contract are not transmissible by their nature, or by stipulation or by provision of law. (Article 1311)

A

Relativity

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233
Q

Basic Principles or Characteristics of Contracts

Contracts are perfected by mere consent and from that moment the parties are bound not only to the fulfillment of what has been expressly stipulated but also to all the consequences which, according to their nature, may be in keeping with good faith, usage and law. (Article 1315)

A

Consensuality

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234
Q

The negotiations stage of the contract leading to a definite agreement

A

Preparation or generation

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235
Q

Stage of contract when there has been a “meeting of minds” with respect to subject matter and cause of the contract.

A

Perfection or birth

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236
Q

The extinction of the contract by the performance of the obligation created by it

A

Consummation or termination

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237
Q

3 requisites before a third person can be held for damages

A
  1. Existence of valid contract
  2. Knowledge on the part of the third person of the existence of the contract
  3. Interference by the third person without legal justification or excuse
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238
Q

No one may contract in the name of another without being authorized by the latter or unless he has by law a right to represent him

A

Article 1317

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239
Q

3 requisites for a person to contract in the name of another

A
  1. Must be duly authorized
  2. Must have by law a right to represent him
  3. The contract must be subsequently ratified
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240
Q

3 essential requisites of a contract

A
  1. Consent of contracting parties
  2. Object certain which is the subject matter of the contract
  3. Cause of the obligation which is established
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241
Q

Based on Article 1319, it is the conformity of wills, and with reference to contracts, it is the agreement of the will of one contracting party with that of another or others.

A

Consent

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242
Q

Acceptance made by letter of telegram ________ the offerer except from the time it came to knowledge.

A

does not bind

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243
Q

5 requisites of consent

A
  1. There must be two or more parties
  2. The parties must be capable or capacitated
  3. There must be no vitiation of consent
  4. There must be no conflict between what was expressly declared and what was really intended
  5. The intent must be declared properly
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244
Q

A proposal to enter into a contract

A

Offer

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245
Q

The manifestation by the offeree of his agreement to the terms of the offer. Must be absolute.

A

Acceptance

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246
Q

3 persons incapacitated to give consent

A
  1. Unemancipated minor
  2. Insane or demented persons
  3. Deaf-mutes who do not know how to write
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247
Q

Article 1328

Contract entered into during a lucid interval are ________. Contracts agreed into a state of drunkenness or during a hypnotic spell are ________.

A

valid

voidable

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248
Q

Unconscious ignorance or forgetfulness of the existence or non-existence of a fact, past or present, material to the contract.

A

Mistake

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249
Q

This is present when in order to wrest consent, serious or irresistible force is employed.

A

Violence

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250
Q

This is present when one of the contracting parties is compelled by a reasonable and well-grounded fear of an imminent and grave evil upon his person or property, or upon the person or property of his spouse, descendants or ascendants, to give his consent.

A

Intimidation

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251
Q

When a person takes improper advantage over the will of another, depriving the latter of a reasonable freedom of choice.

A

Undue influence

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252
Q

When through insidious words or machinations of one of the contracting parties, the other is induced to enter into a contract, which without them, he would not have agreed to. (Art. 1338)

A

Fraud

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253
Q

Second essential element of a contract

A

Object of Contracts

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254
Q

The essential or more proximate purpose why a party assumes an obligation; the reason which moves the contracting parties to enter into a contract

A

Cause

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255
Q

Contracts shall be ________ in whatever form they may have been entered into, provided all the essential requisites for their validity are present.

A

obligatory

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256
Q

Remedy in equity by means of which a written instrument is made by or construed so as to express or conform to the real intention of the parties when some error or mistake has been committed.

A

Reformation

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257
Q

4 kinds of defective contracts

A

Rescissible contracts
Voidable contracts
Unenforceable contracts
Void contracts

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258
Q

Remedy granted by law both to the contracting parties and to the third persons in order to secure reparation of damage caused them by a contract, even if the contract be valid, by means of the restoration to their condition prior to the celebration of said contract.

A

Rescission

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259
Q

Remedy granted by law both to the contracting parties and to the third persons in order to secure reparation of damage caused them by a contract, even if the contract be valid, by means of the restoration to their condition prior to the celebration of said contract.

A

Rescission

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260
Q

Contracts where one of the parties is incapable of giving consent to the contract and where the consent is vitiated by mistake, violence, intimidation, undue influence or fraud.

A

Voidable contracts

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261
Q

A waiver of one’s right to annul the voidable contract. It cleanses the contract from all its defect from the moment it was constituted.

A

Ratification

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262
Q

Cannot be sued upon or enforced unless ratified, thus it is as if they have no effect yet. However, they may be ratified, hence they have in such a sense the effect of valid contracts. Therefore they may be called validable.

A

Unenforceable contracts

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263
Q

Contract that does not have effect at all. It cannot be ratified and/or validated.

A

Void Contracts

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264
Q

Void from the very beginning

A

Void ab initio

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265
Q

The contractor binds himself to execute a piece of work for the employer in consideration of a certain price or compensation

A

Contract for a piece of work

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266
Q

Contractor agrees to produce work from material furnished by him

A

Contractor-supplied materials (CSM)

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267
Q

Contractor only undertaken to put his work or skill and cannot claim any compensation if the work should be destroyed before its delivery

A

Owner-supplied materials (OSM)

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268
Q

________ of the work by the employer relieves the contractor of liability for any defect in the work

A

Acceptance

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269
Q

The engineer or architect who drew up the plans and specifications for a building is liable for damages if within ________ from the completion of the structure.

A

15 years

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270
Q

The ________ is likewise responsible for the damages if the edifice falls, within 15 years, on account of defects in construction or the use of materials of inferior quality

A

contractor

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271
Q

Acceptance of the building after completion does not imply ________ of any of the cause of action by reason of any defect mentioned in the preceding paragraph. The action must be brought within ________ following the collapse of the building.

A

waiver

10 years

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272
Q

The contractor can neither ________ from the contract nor demand an ________ in the price on account of the higher cost of labor or materials, save when there has been a change in the plans and specifications provided such change has been authorized by proprietor in writing and the additional price to be paid the contractor has been determined in writing by both parties.

A

withdraw

increase

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273
Q

The ________ may withdraw at will from the construction of the work, indemnifying the contractor for all the latter’s expenses, work and the usefulness which the owner may obtain therefrom.

A

owner

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274
Q

Article 1726

When a piece of work has been entrusted to a person by reason of his personal qualifications, the contract is ________ upon his death.

A

Rescinded

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275
Q

2 common forms of contract for a piece of work

A

Lump Sum contract

Cost-Plus contract

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276
Q

3 kinds of cost-plus contract

A

Cost-plus a fixed amount
Cost-plus a certain percentage
Cost-plus a certain percentage with a variable increase or decrease as bonus or deduction

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277
Q

Contracts for piece of works are discharged by

A
  1. Performance
  2. Substantial Performance
  3. Impossibility of Performance
  4. Agreement
  5. Breach of Contract
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278
Q

The estimated reparation in money for detriment or injury sustained or the compensation or satisfaction imposed by law for a wrong or injury caused by violation of legal right

A

Damages

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279
Q

The adequate compensation for pecuniary loss suffered.

A

Actual or Compensatory Damages

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280
Q

Incapable of pecuniary estimation or computation but are recoverable in the mount to be determined by the court provided they are the proximate result of the wrongdoer’s act or omission.

A

Moral Damages

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281
Q

Those awarded to vindicate or recognize the right of the plaintiff, which has been violated and not necessarily to indemnify him for any loss suffered

A

Nominal Damages

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282
Q

Those of which may be recovered when the court finds that some pecuniary loss has been suffered but its amount cannot, from the nature of the case, be proven with certainty. More than nominal but less than compensatory.

A

Temperate or Moderate Damages

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283
Q

Those agreed upon by the parties to a contract, to be paid in case of breach thereof.

A

Liquidated damages

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284
Q

Those which are imposed in additional to moral, temperate, liquidated or compensatory damages by way of example or correction for the public good

A

Exemplary or Corrective Damages

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285
Q

National Building Code of the Philippines

A

PD 1096

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286
Q

When was NBCP approved?

A

October 29, 2004

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287
Q

When did NBCP took effect?

A

May 1, 2005

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288
Q

NBCP shall apply to design, location, siting, construction, alteration, repair, conversion, use, occupancy, maintenance, moving, demolition of and addition to ________ and ________ buildings and structures except ________________________ and those covered by ________________ also known as “Economic and Socialized Housing Projects”.

A

public
private
traditional indigenous family dwellings
Batas Pambansa Bilang 220

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289
Q

The land or site upon which will be constructed any building or structure or any ancillary or auxiliary facility thereto, shall be ________,________ or ________.

A

sanitary
hygienic
safe

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290
Q

Any new construction which increases the height or area of an existing building/structure

A

Addition

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291
Q

Works in buildings/structures involving changes in the materials used, partitioning, location/size of openings, structural parts, existing utilities and equipment but does not increase the building height and/or floor area.

A

Alteration

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292
Q

A document issued by the BO to an owner/applicant to proceed with the construction etc.

A

Building permit

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293
Q

All-on site work

A

Construction

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294
Q

A change in the use or occupancy of a building/structure or any portion/s thereof, which has different requirements

A

Conversion

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295
Q

The systematic dismantling or destruction of a building/structure, in whole or in part

A

Demolition

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296
Q

The transfer of any building/structure of portion/s thereof from its original location or position to another

A

Moving

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297
Q

The applicable provisions of various agencies and technical professional codes that are supplementary to the Code

A

Referral codes

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298
Q

Any physical change made on a building/structure to increase its value, utility and/or to improve the aesthetic

A

Renovation

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299
Q

Remedial work done on any damaged or deteriorated portion/s of a building/structure to restore its original condition

A

Repair

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300
Q

The administration and enforcement of the provisions of the Code and this IRR including the imposition of penalties for administrative violations thereof is hereby vested in the ________.

A

Secretary

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301
Q

The Secretary has the power to issue and promulgate additional rules and regulations in the form of ________________ to implement the provisions of the Code and ensure compliance with policies, plans, standards and guidelines…

A

Memorandum circulars

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302
Q

The ________________________________ created through DPWH Department Order shall serve as the technical staff of the Secretary

A

National Building Code Department Office (NBCDO)

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303
Q

4 Functions of NBCDO

A
  1. Assist Secretary
  2. Review, evaluate and take final action on various technical and legal problems forwarded to the Office of the Secretary
  3. Conduct seminar/workshops on the Code, its IRR and BP 344 (accessibility law)
  4. Undertake such other duties assigned by Sec
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304
Q

Except as otherwise provided herein, the ________________ shall be responsible for carrying out the provisions of the Code in the field as well as the enforcement of orders and decisions made pursuant thereto

A

Building Official

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305
Q

5 qualifications of building officials

A
  1. Filipino citizen and of good moral character
  2. Duly registered architect or engr.
  3. Member of good standing of a duly accredited organization of his profession for not less than 5 years
  4. At least 5 years of diversified and professional experience
  5. Attended and successfully completed a seminar workshop on PD1096 and its IRR
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306
Q

Building officials undertake ________ inspections of all buildings and structures and keep an up-to-date record of their status

A

annual

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307
Q

Building officials submit a ________ situational report to the Secretary through NBCDO on the status of all existing, on-going and proposed public as well as private building/structure activities

A

quarterly

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308
Q

________________ and ________________________ shall be exempt from payment of building permit fees.

A

Public buildings

traditional indigenous family dwellings

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309
Q

Dwelling intended for the use and occupancy by the family of the owner only and constructed of native materials such as bamboo, nipa, logs, or lumber, the total cost of which does not exceed 15,000 pesos.

A

Traditional indigenous family dwelling

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310
Q

The Secretary or his duly authorized representative may prescribe and impose fines not exceeding ________________ in cases enumerated, subject to terms and procedures. In addition to imposed penalty the owner shall ________ or ________ his violations of the provisions of the Code.

A

10,000 pesos
correct
remove

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311
Q

Light violations of PD 1096

A
  1. Failure to post cert of occupancy/use/operation
  2. Failure to post building permit construction information sign
  3. Failure to provide or install appropriate safety measure
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312
Q

Less Grave Violations of PD 1096

A
  1. Noncompliance with work stoppage order for the alteration/addition/conversion/repair without permit
  2. User/ occupancy of building/structure without appropriate Cert of Occupancy/Use/Operation
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313
Q

One example of grave violations of PD 1096 is when excavations are left open without any work being done in the site for ________________.

A

more than 120 days

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314
Q

Are structurally unsafe or not provided with safe egress or which constitute a fire hazard or are otherwise dangerous to human life or which in relation to existing use constitute a hazard to safety or health of public welfare because of inadequate maintenance, dilapidation, obsolescence or abandonment or otherwise contribute to the pollution of the site or the community to an intolerable degree

A

Dangerous buildings

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315
Q

6 conditions or defects that render any building/structure dangerous or ruinous

A
  1. Structural Hazards
  2. Fire Hazards
  3. Unsafe electrical wiring
  4. Unsafe mechanical installation
  5. Inadequate sanitation/plumbing and health facilities
  6. Architectural deficiency
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316
Q

Procedure for abatement/demolition of dangerous/ ruinous buildings/structures

A

Refer to page 66 Ethics

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317
Q

Prescribed application form for building permit

A

NBC Form B-01

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318
Q

Ancillary permits

A

Architectural, civil/structural, electrical, mechanical, sanitary, plumbing, electronics permit

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319
Q

Issued by BO for accessory parts of the project with very special functions

A

Accessory permits

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320
Q

2 exemptions from building permits

A

Minor constructions

Repair works

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321
Q

Requirements for building permit application if you are the owner

A
  • Building permit application form
  • Certified true copy of OCT/TCT, on file with Registry of Deeds
  • Tax Declaration
  • Current Real Property Tax Record
  • 5 sets of plans
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322
Q

Vicinity map/ location plan within ________ radius for commercial, industrial and institutional complex and within a ________ radius for residential buildings

A

2km

half km

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323
Q

Minimum scale of floor plans, RCP, elevations

A

1:100

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324
Q

The building official shall refer __ set of plans and specifications to the ________________________, ________________________, for his review and recommendations with respect to fire safety and control requirements.

A

1
City/Municipal Fire Marshall (C/MFM)
Bureau of Fire Protection (BFP)

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325
Q

The supervising Architect/Civil Engineer shall keep at the jobsite at all times a ________ of daily construction activities. Upon completion of construction, this shall be duly signed and sealed and submitted to the ________.

A

logbook

building official

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326
Q

When the construction is undertaken by contract, the work shall be done by a duly licensed and registered contractor pursuant to the provisions of the ________________________.

A

Contractor’s License Law (RA 4566)

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327
Q

A building permit issued under the provisions of the Code shall expire and be null and void if the building or work authorized therein is not commenced within a period of ________ after the issuance of the building permit.

A

1 year

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328
Q

Within ________ from the date of receipt of advice of non-issuance, suspension or revocation of permits, the applicant/permittee may file an appeal with the Secretary who shall render his decision within ________ from date of receipt of notice of appeal.

A

15 days

15 days

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329
Q

The owner/permittee shall submit to the OBO an application of Certificate of Occupancy together with a duly notarized ________________ together with the ________________, ________________ and ________ and the ________________ signed by the contractor and signed and sealed by the Owner’s architect/ civil engineer.

A

Certificate of completion
construction logbook
as-built plans and specifications
Building Inspection Sheet

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330
Q

PD 1185

A

Fire Code of the Philippines

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331
Q

Issued for the use or occupancy of a portion or portions of a building or structure

A

Partial Certificate of Occupancy

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332
Q

Shall be of wood construction. The structural elements may be any of the materials permitted by the Code.

A

Type I

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333
Q

Shall be of wood construction with protective fire-resistant materials and 1 hr fire-resistive throughout except that permanent non bearing partitions may use fire-retardant treated wood within framing assembly with 1 hr resistivity.

A

Type II

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334
Q

Shall be of masonry and wood construction. Structural elements may be any of the materials provided by the Code, provided that the building shall be 1 hr fire resistive throughout. Exterior walls shall be of incombustible fire-resistive construction

A

Type III

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335
Q

Shall be of steel, iron, concrete or masonry construction and walls, ceiling and permanent partitions shall be of incombustible fire-resistive construction except that permanent non-bearing partitions of 1 hr fire-resistive construction may use fire-retardant treated wood within the framing assembly

A

Type IV

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336
Q

Shall be 4 hour fire-resistive throughout and the structural elements shall be of steel, iron, concrete or masonry construction

A

Type V

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337
Q

Exterior bearing and non bearing walls of Types ____ and ____ constructions shall have ____ hour fire-resistive rating while those Types ____ and ____ shall have ____ hour fire-resistive rating.

A

II and III
1
IV and V
4

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338
Q

Interior bearing walls, permanent partitions, floors and roofs of Types ___, ___, and ___ construction shall have ___ hour fire resistive rating while those of ____ shall have ___ hour fire-resistive rating for bearing walls and ____ hour fire-resistive rating for vertical openings, floors and roofs

A
II, III and IV
1
V
3
1
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339
Q

Structural frames of Types ___ and ___ construction shall have ____ fire-resistive rating while those of Type ____ shall have ___ hour fire resistive rating and those of Type ___ shall have ___ hour fire-resistive rating

A
II and III
1
IV
2
V
3
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340
Q

Exterior doors shall have ____ hour fire-resistive rating for all Types.

A

1

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341
Q

Flame spread test for wall finishes

A

Tunnel test

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342
Q

Materials required to be flame-spread proofed shall be treated with flame retardant having a flame spread of ___ or less determined by the ________ test.

A

50

Tunnel

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343
Q

Areas within which only certain types of buildings/structures are permitted to be constructed based on their use or occupancy, type of construction and resistance to fire.

A

Fire zones

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344
Q

A building/structure which is located partly in 1 fire zone and partly in another shall be considered to be in the ________________________, when more than 1/3 of its total floor area is located in such zone

A

more high restrictive fire zone

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345
Q

Areas where siting of buildings/structures are permitted without fire-resistivity measures, often located in the country sides or rural areas here commercial and industrial and other buildings are sparsely constructed or may be scattered in small groups like farm lands wherein dwellings are built of indigenous materials such as bamboo, sawali, nipa, cogon, palm leaves and wood up to Types I and II construction

A

Non-fire restricted zones

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346
Q

Areas where siting of buildings/structures are permitted within prescribed fire-resistivity measures for exterior walls of at least 2 hr fire resistivity. Usual locations in suburban areas are permitted to be built with at least 1-hr fire resistivity throughout as Types II, III to IV constructions

A

Fire restrictive zones

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347
Q

Areas where highly fire-resistive or non-combustible buildings/structures and/or construction assemblies of no less that 3-4 hr fire resistive construction materials are used throughout including exterior walls. Only Types IV and V constructions are permitted

A

Highly Fire Restrictive Zones

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348
Q

Degree to which a material can withstand fire

A

Fire-resistive rating

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349
Q

Length of time a material can withstand being burned

A

Fire-resistive time period rating

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350
Q

10 groups of occupancies and 25 divisions

RREIBISAAA

A
Group A: Residential Dwellings
B: Residential, Hotels and Apartments
C: Education and Recreation
D: Institutional
E: Business and Mercantile
F: Industrial
G: Storage and Hazardous
H: Assembly other than Group I
I: Assembly occupant load 1000 or more
J: Accessory

page 80 for divisions

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351
Q

When a building is of mixed occupancy or is used for more than 1 occupancy, the whole building shall be subject to the most ________ requirement.

A

restrictive

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352
Q

Types of occupancy separation

A

One-hour fire-resistive occupancy separation
Two hour
Three hour
Four hour

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353
Q

No building shall be constructed unless it adjoins or has direct access to a ________, ________ or ________ on at least one of its sides.

A

public space
yard
street

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354
Q

Eaves over windows shall not be less than ________ from the side and rear property line.

A

750mm

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355
Q

The dwelling shall occupy not more than ________ of a corner lot and ________ of an inside lot and subject to provisions of Easements of Light and view of the Civil Code of the PH, shall be at least ________ from the property line

A

90%
80%
2 meters

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356
Q

Footings shall be of sufficient size and shall be at least ________ thick and ________ below the surface of the ground

A

250mm thick

600mm

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357
Q

The live load of the first floor shall be at least ________ and for the second floor at least ________.

A

200kgs/sqm

150kgs/sqm

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358
Q

The wind load for roofs shall be at least ________ for vertical projection.

A

120kgs/sqm

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359
Q

Stairs shall be at least ________ in clear width, with a rise of ________ and a minimum run of ________.

A

750mm
200mm
200mm

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360
Q

Habitable rooms with artificial ventilation shall have ceiling heights not less than ________ measured from the floor to ceiling, provided that for buildings of more than 1 storey, the min. ceiling height for the first storey shall be ________ and that for second storey ________ and the succeeding stories shall have an unobstructed typical headroom clearance of not less than ________.

A
  1. 4m
  2. 7m
  3. 4m
  4. 1m
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361
Q

Rooms with natural ventilation shall have ceiling heights of not less than ________.

A

2.7m

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362
Q

Minimum size of rooms for human habitations

A

6sqm with least dimension of 2m

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363
Q

Minimum size of kitchen

A

3sqm with least dimension of 1.5m

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364
Q

Min. size of bath and toilet

A

1.2sqm with least dimension 0.9m

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365
Q

Min. air space for school rooms

A

3 cu. mts with 1 sqm of floor area per person

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366
Q

Min. air space for workshop, factories and offices

A

12 cu. mts per person

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367
Q

Min. air space for habitable rooms

A

14 cu. mts per person

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368
Q

Rooms intended for any use, not provided with artificial ventilation system, shall be provided with a window or windows with a total free area of openings equal to at least ____ of total floor area provided such opening shall not be less than ______.

A

10%

1 sqm

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369
Q

Toilet, bathrooms, laundry rooms and similar rooms shall be provided with window or windows with an area not less than ______ of the floor area, provided that such opening shall not be less than ______.

A

1/20

240 sq.mm.

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370
Q

There shall be ____________ on/at/within all types of abutments (such as firewalls) erected along property lines except for permitted vent wells

A

no openings

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371
Q

In case of extreme emergencies, windows must serve as emergency egress with a minimum clear opening width not less than ______ and a height of ______. The bottom of the opening should not be more than ______ from the floor.

A

820mm
1 meter
820mm

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372
Q

Permanent edifices owned by the government

A

Public buildings/structures

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373
Q

Public buildings/structures should be designed for ______ but with maximized flexibility to allow for future adjustments in their use/occupancies

A

permanence

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374
Q

Whenever available, ______ water requirements for a building used for human habitation shall be supplied from existing ______ or ______ waterworks system.

A

potable
municipal
city

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375
Q

Water Code of the Philippines

A

PD 1067

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376
Q

All buildings located in areas where there are no available sanitary sewerage system shall dispose their sewage to ______ or septic tank

A

“Imhoff”

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377
Q

Rainwater drainage ______ discharge to the sanitary sewer system

A

shall not

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378
Q

Unwanted sound

A

noise

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379
Q

The clearance between the established grade of the street and/or sidewalk and the lowest under surface of any part of the balcony shall not be less than ______.

A

3 meters

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380
Q

Width and height of arcades on the streets

A

3 meters

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381
Q

Permanent roofed structure above a door attached to and supported by building and projecting over a wall or sidewalk

A

Canopy or Marquee

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382
Q

Horizontal clearance between the outermost edge of the marquee and the curb line shall not be less than ______. The vertical clearance between the pavement or ground line and the undersurface of any part of the marquee shall not be less than ______.

A

300mm

3 meters

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383
Q

Movable shelter supported entirely from an exterior wall of a building and of a type which can be retracted, folded or collapsed against the face of a supporting building

A

Awning

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384
Q

Horizontal clearance between the awning and the curb line shall not be less than ______. The vertical clearance between the pavement or ground line and the undermost surface of the awning shall not be less than ______.

A

300mm

2.4 meters

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385
Q

When piles of materials stacked exceed ______ in height, the material shall be arranged that the sides and ends of piles taper back. No material shall be piled or stacked higher than ______.

A
  1. 2m

1. 8m

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386
Q

Mixing of mortar or concrete on ______ is not allowed.

A

public street

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387
Q

Non-structural facing of a brick, concrete, tile, metal, plastic, glass or other similar approved materials attached to a backing or structural components of the building

A

Veneer

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388
Q

Veneer shall support no load other than ______ and the ______ dead load of the veneer immediately above.

A

its own weight

vertical

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389
Q

Adhered veneer and its attachment shall be designed to resist horizontal force equal to ______ the weight of the veneer

A

twice

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390
Q

The types of floor construction used shall provide means to keep the beam and girders from ____________.

A

lateral buckling

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391
Q

Formula for occupant load

A

Floor area divided by unit area allowed per occupant

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392
Q

In all occupancies, floors above the 1st story having an occupant load of >10 shall have at least ______ exits

A

2

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393
Q

Any room having an occupant load of more than ______ where fixed seats are not installed, and which is used for classroom, assembly or similar purpose shall have the capacity of the room posted in a conspicuous place near the main exit from the room.

A

50

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394
Q

Except in ______ occupancies, changes in floor elevations of less than ______ along any exit serving a tributary occupant load of 10 or more shall be by means of ______.

A

Group A
300mm
ramp

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395
Q

Number of exits for floors above first storey with occupant load more than 10

A

2

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396
Q

Number of exits for mezzanine floor < 185 sqm or more than 18m

A

2 stairways

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397
Q

Number of exits having an occupant load of 500-999

A

3

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398
Q

Number of exits having an occupant load 1000 or >

A

4

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399
Q

No point in a building without a sprinkler system shall be more than ______ from an exterior exit door, a horizontal exit, exit passageway or an enclosed stairway measured along line of travel.

A

45 meters

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400
Q

In a building equipped with a complete automatic fire extinguishing system, the distance from exits may be increased to ______.

A

60 meters

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401
Q

Exit doors shall swing ____________ of exit travel when serving any hazardous areas or when serving an OL of 50 or more.

A

in the direction of

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402
Q

____________ shall not be used as exits serving tributary OL of more than 100; nor shall they be used as part of fire assembly; nor equipped with panic hardware

A

Double-acting doors

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403
Q

A double acting door shall be provided with a view panel of not less than ______.

A

1,300sq.cm.

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404
Q

Exit door shall be openable from ______ without any use of a key or any special knowledge or effort.

A

inside

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405
Q

Every required exit doorway shall be of a size as to permit the installation of a door not less than ______ in width and not less than ______ in height.

A

900mm

2 meters

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406
Q

Exit doors shall be capable of opening at least ______ and shall be so mounted that the clear width of the exitway is not less than ______.

A

90 degrees

700 mm

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407
Q

No leaf of an exit door shall exceed ______ in width.

A

1.2m

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408
Q

Special doors like ______, ______ and ______ doors shall not be used for required exits

A

revolving, sliding and overhead

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409
Q

The floor or landing shall be levelled with or not more than ______ lower than the threshold of the doorway. Except in Group __ and __ occupancies, a door may open on the top step of a flight of stairs or an exterior landing provided the door does not swing over the top step and the landing is not more than ______ below the floor level

A

50mm
A and B
200mm

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410
Q

Every corridor or exit balcony shall not be less than ______ in width

A

1.10m

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411
Q

Dead ends should not exceed ______ in length

A

6m

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412
Q

Stairways serving an OL of more than 50 shall not be less than ______.

A

1.10 m

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413
Q

Stairways serving an OL of 50 or less may be ______ wide.

A

900mm

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414
Q

Private stairways serving OL of less than 10 may be ______.

A

750mm

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415
Q

Rise of every step shall not exceed ______ and the run shall not be less than ______. The maximum variations in the height of risers and width of treads in any one flight shall be ______.

A

200mm
250mm
5mm

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416
Q

In Group __ occupancy and in private stairways in Group __ occupancies, winders may be used if the required width of run is provided at a point not more than ______ from the side of the stairway where the treads are narrower but in no case shall any width be less than ______ at any point

A

A
B
300mm
150mm

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417
Q

Circular stairways may be used as an exit provided the minimum width of run is not less than ______.

A

250mm

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418
Q

Every landing shall have a dimension measured in the direction of travel ______ to the width of the stairway, Such dimension shall not exceed ______ when the stairs has a straight run.

A

equal

1.2m

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419
Q

There shall not be more than ______ vertical distance between landings.

A

3.6m

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420
Q

Stairway required to be more than ______ in width shall be provided with not less than 1 intermediate handrail for each ______ of required width

A

3 meters

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421
Q

Handrails shall be placed not less than ______ nor more than ______ above nosing of treads.

A

800mm

900mm

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422
Q

Stairways having less than __ risers need not have handrails

A

4

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423
Q

Every required stairway shall have a headroom clearance of not less than ______.

A

2 meters

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424
Q

Exits shall be illuminated at any time the building is occupied with lights having an intensity of not less than ______ at floor level

A

10.7 lux

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425
Q

Every portion of every building in which are installed seats, tables, merchandise, equipment or similar materials shall be provided with ______ leading to an exit

A

aisles

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426
Q

Every aisle shall not be less than ______ if serving only one side and not less than ______ if serving both sides.

A

800mm

1 meter

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427
Q

Side aisles shall not be less than ______ in width.

A

1.10mts

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428
Q

In areas occupied by seats and in Groups H and I occupancies without seats, the line of travel to an exit door by an aisle shall be not more than ______.

A

45 meters

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429
Q

With standard spacing, aisles shall be so located that there will be not more than ______ between the wall and aisle and not more than ______ between aisles. The number of seats between aisles may be increased to ______ where exit doors are provided along each side aisle of the row of seats at the rate 1 pair of exit doors for every ______ rows of seat, provided further that the distance between seats back to back is at least ______. Such exit doors shall provide a minimum clear width of ______.

A
7 seats
14 seats
30
5
1 meter
1.7 m
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430
Q

Aisles shall terminate in a ______, ______ or ______.

A

cross aisle
foyer
exit

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431
Q

The slope portion of aisles shall not exceed a fall of ______.

A

1 in 8

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432
Q

With standard seating, the spacing of rows of seats from back to back shall be not less than ______.

A

840mm

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433
Q

With continental seating, the spacing of rows of unoccupied seats shall provide a clear width measured horizontally as follows:

______ clear for rows 18 seats or less
______ clear for rows 35 seats or less
______ clear for rows 45 seats or less
______ clear for rows 46 seats or more

A

450mm
500mm
525mm
550mm

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434
Q

All skylights, the glass of which is set at an angle of not less than ______ horizontal, if located above first story, shall be set at least ______ above roof.

A

45 degrees

100mm

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435
Q

Spacing between supports in one direction for flat wired glass in skylights shall not exceed ______.

A

625mm

436
Q

Corrugated wired glass may have supports ______ apart in the direction of corrugation.

A

1.5 mts

437
Q

Glass used for transmission of light, if placed in floors or sidewalks, shall be supported by metal or reinforced concrete frames and such glass shall not be less than ______ in thickness

A

12.5mm

438
Q

Standard automatic fire-extinguishing systems shall be installed in the ff places:

A
  1. In every storey, basement or cellar with an area of 200sqm or more which is used for habitation, dining, study or work; OL > 20
  2. In all dressing rooms, rehearsal rooms. workshops or factories and other rooms with OL > 10 or assembly halls under Group H and I occupancies with OL > 500 and if next doors are more than 30 m from nearest fire dispersal area
  3. In all rooms used for storage or handling of photographic x-ray nitrocellulose films and other inflammable articles
439
Q

Philippine Electrical Engineering Law

A

RA 7920

440
Q

Philippine Mechanical Engineering Law

A

RA 8495

441
Q

A structural unit, the integral parts of which have been built-up or assembled prior to incorporation in the building

A

Prefabricated assembly

442
Q

Approved plastic materials shall be those which have a flame spread rating of ______ or less

A

225

443
Q

Each light (glass panel) shall bear the manufacturer’s label designating the ______ and ______ of glass

A

type and thickness

444
Q

Glass panels not adjacent to wall openings may be made obvious by horizontal bars at ______ height, a ______ opaque bulkhead, distinctive glass or other appropriate construction arrangement

A

guardrail

450mm

445
Q

Glass panels which are more than ______ in width and ______ or more in height adjacent to wall opening shall be ______ unless a bulkhead of opaque materials not less than 450mm is provided

A

600mm
180mm
safety glass

446
Q

Thickness of glass for length and width 1.10m and below

A

8mm

447
Q

Thickness of glass for length and width 2.25m and below

A

10mm

448
Q

Thickness of glass for length and width 3m and below

A

12mm

449
Q

Thickness of glass for length and width over 3m

A

15mm

450
Q

Regular plate, sheet or patterned glass in jalousies and louvered windows shall not be thinner than ______ minimal and not longer than ______.

A
  1. 6mm

1. 2m

451
Q

Bathtub and shower enclosures shall be constructed from approved shatter-resistant materials such as wire-reinforced glass not less than ______ thk, fully tempered glass not less than ______ thk or laminated safety glass not less than ______ thick.

A
  1. 6mm
  2. 8mm
  3. 4mm
452
Q

Signs which are written in any foreign language shall have a corresponding __________________ or in the __________________.

A

translation in English

local dialect

453
Q

On non-arcaded RROW/streets, signs shall not extend ______ over the sidewalk and measured horizontally from the wall line or building line.

A

1.2 mts

454
Q

On arcaded RROW/streets, signs shall not project more than ______ from the outermost portion of the wall line of the allowed structure over arcade.

A

0.6 mts

455
Q

For buildings abutting on RROW/streets or alleys without sidewalks or provisions therefor, the signs shall not project more than ______ from the outermost portion of the structure

A

0.3 mts

456
Q

A height clearance of not less than ______ measured from the finished road surface shall be provided below the lowest part of such signs projecting over sidewalks on buildings without arcades and a clearance of not less than ______ shall be provided below the lowest part of such signs projecting over arcaded RROW/streets

A

3 mts

5 mts

457
Q

Clear distance between signboards erected on one building not less than

A

4 mts

458
Q

Signboards shall not obstruct any ______ or ____________ and shall not be closer than ______from electric or telephone posts and wires

A

window
emergency exits
1 meter

459
Q

Outdoor display signs shall not extend more than ______ from wall with its lowest portion not less than ______ above sidewalk

A

300mm

3 mts

460
Q

Display windows or wall signs within ______ above sidewalk shall be flushed or recessed

A

3 meters

461
Q

The sign or sign structure must not project more than 1 mtr into the public alley where the sign or sigh structure is located more than ______ above the established sidewalk grade.

A

4.5 mts

462
Q

An Act to Enhance the Mobility of Disabled Persons by Requiring Certain Buildings, Institutions, Establishments and Public Utilities to Install Facilities and Other Devices

Accessibility Act

A

BP 344

463
Q

Purpose of BP 344

A

Make buildings and utilities for public use accessible to disabled persons

464
Q

Features that enable disabled persons to make use of primary functions

A

Accessible

465
Q

Small recessed space in a room or wall

A

Alcove

466
Q

Pertaining to the measurement of the human body

A

Anthropometric

467
Q

Unhindered, without obstructions to enable disabled persons free passage or use of the facilities

A

Barrier-free

468
Q

Long interior passageway providing access to several rooms; public means of access from several rooms or spaces to an exit

A

Corridor

469
Q

Raised rim of concrete, stone or metal which forms edge of street, sidewalk, planted area etc

A

Curb

470
Q

Break in the sidewalk or traffic island provided with an inclined surface to facilitate mobility of wheeled chairs, carriages and other similar conveyance

A

Curb cut-out

471
Q

Those suffering from restriction or lack of ability to perform an activity in the manner or within the range considered normal

A

Disabled persons

472
Q

An entranceway; to close an opening in a wall or cabinet

A

Door

473
Q

An exit; a means of going out

A

Egress

474
Q

Hoisting or lowering mechanism equipped with car or platform which moves in guides in a vertical direction

A

Elevator

475
Q

Point of entry into a building; exterior door, a vestibule or a lobby

A

Entrance

476
Q

Surface on which one walks

A

Floor

477
Q

Degree of inclination of a sloped surface expressed as a percentage or ratio

A

Gradient of ramp

478
Q

Drawing, painting, diagram, engraving, etching or other similar illustrations on which a single glance conveys a given message; visual aid

A

Graphic sign

479
Q

Hand support along a stairway or ramp

A

Handrail

480
Q

Distance between two points aligned vertically with one of the points on the floor

A

Height above floor

481
Q

Allocated space composed of marked off portions for single motor vehicles on a short time storage basis

A

Parking area

482
Q

Space connecting one area or room of a building with another

A

Passageway or passage

483
Q

Part of road where pedestrian going across the road have priority over traffic

A

Pedestrian crossing

484
Q

Shelf-unit telephone with coin operating functions for use of public

A

Public telephone

485
Q

Sloped surface connecting two or more planes at different levels

A

Ramp

486
Q

Paved footwalk at the side of a street or roadway

A

Sidewalk

487
Q

Strip fastened to the floor beneath a door, usually required to cover joint where two types of floor materials meet; may provide weather protection at exterior doors

A

Threshold

488
Q

Room containing water closet

A

Toilet

489
Q

Small entranceway or transitional space from exterior to interior; opens into a larger space

A

Vestibule

490
Q

Room providing facilities for washing; a lavatory or toilet room

A

Washroom

491
Q

Fixture consisting of a shallow basin together with a water jet designed for potable water for human consumption

A

Water fountain

492
Q

Linear width of the obstructed path in corridors

A

Width of corridor

493
Q

6 Basic Physical Planning Requirements according to BP 344

A
Accessibility
Reachability
Usability
Orientation
Safety
Workability and Efficiency
494
Q

Classification of building by use of occupancy

A
Category I- Residential
Category II- Commercial and Industrial
Category III- Educational and Industrial
Category IV- Agriculture
Category V- Ancillary
495
Q

Required wheelchair seating space for seating capacity 4-50

A

2

496
Q

Required wheelchair seating space for seating capacity 51-300

A

4

497
Q

Required wheelchair seating space for seating capacity 301-500

A

6

498
Q

When the seating capacity exceeds 500, an additional wheelchair seating space shall be provided for each total seating capacity increase of ____ seats

A

100

499
Q

Sign should be kept _____ and ____________; should be made of ________ colors

A

Simple and easy to understand

Contrasting

500
Q

Should a sign protrude into a walkway or route, a minimum headroom of __ meters should be provided

A

2

501
Q

Signs on walls and doors should be located at maximum height of ____ meters and a minimum height of ____ meters.

A
  1. 6

1. 4

502
Q

Signages labelling public rooms and places should have raised symbols, letters or numbers with minimum height of ____ mm

A

1

503
Q

Entrances with vestibules shall be provided a level area with at least ___ meters in depth and ___ meters width

A
  1. 8 m

1. 5 m

504
Q

Ramps shall have a minimum clear width of ____ meters

A

1.2 m

505
Q

The maximum ramp gradient shall be ___

A

1:12

506
Q

The length of a ramp should not exceed _____ if the gradient is 1:12

A

6 m

507
Q

Landings of ramps shall not be less than _____

A

1.5 m

508
Q

A level area of not less than ____ mts shall be provided at top and bottom of any ramp

A

1.8 m

509
Q

Handrails shall be provided on both sides of ramp at ___ mts and ____ mts from the ramp level

A
  1. 70 m

0. 9 m

510
Q

Ramps shall be equipped with curbs on both sides with a minimum height of ____ mts

A

0.10 m

511
Q

Any ramp with a rise greater than 0.2m shall have railing across full width at its lower end, not less than ____ mts from foot of the ramp

A

1.8 m

512
Q

All doors shall have a minimum clear width of ____ mts

A

0.8 m

513
Q

Doors should be operable by pressure or force not more than ____ kg

A

4 kg

514
Q

Closing device pressure of interior door shall not exceed ____ kg

A

1 kg

515
Q

A minimum clear level space of ________ shall be provided before and extending beyond a door

A

1.5 m x 1.5 m

516
Q

Doorknobs and other hardware shall be located between ___ mts and ___ mts above the floor

A
  1. 82 m

1. 06 m

517
Q

Doorknob and other hardware preferred height

A

0.9 m

518
Q

Vertical pull handles centered at ____ mts above floor

A

1.06 m

519
Q

Kick plate height

A

0.3 m to 0.4 m

520
Q

Thresholds and sliding door tracks maximum height

A

25 mm

521
Q

Manual switches height

A

1.2 m to 1.3 m above floor

522
Q

Manual switches should be located no further than ___ mts from the latch side of door

A

0.2 m

523
Q

Corridors shall have a minimum clear width of ____ mts

A

1.2 m

524
Q

Minimum turnabout spaces or recesses for wheelchairs

A

1.5 m x 1.5 m

525
Q

Maximum interval spacing of turnabout spaces

A

12 mts

526
Q

Turnabout spaces should also be provided at or within ____ mts of every dead end

A

3.5 mts

527
Q

Accessible water closet stalls shall have minimum area of ____ mts x ____ mts

A

1.7 m x 1.8m

528
Q

A turning space of ____ sqm with a minimum dimension of ____ mts for wheelchair

A
  1. 25 sqm

1. 5 mts

529
Q

Minimum number of accessible water closets on each floor level where the total number of water closets per set on that level exceeds 20

A

2

530
Q

Signage for men’s washroom door shall be an ________ triangle with a vertex pointing ________ where the edges should be _____ mts long and _____ thick

A

Equilateral
Upward
0.30 mts
7.5 mm thk

531
Q

Signage for women’s washroom door shall be a ________ with measuring _______ and at least ______ thick

A

circle

  1. 30m diameter
  2. 5mm thk
532
Q

Maximum height of water closets

A

0.45 mts

533
Q

Maximum height of flush control

A

1.2 mts

534
Q

Maximum height of lavatories

A

0.8 mts

535
Q

Knee recess depth and vertical clearance for lavatories

A
  1. 6 m to 0.7 m vertical clearance

0. 5 m depth

536
Q

Maximum height of urinal lip

A

0.48 mts

537
Q

Type of preferred nosing to not pose difficulty for people with crutches or braces

A

Slanted nosing

538
Q

A tactile strip of ____ mts wide shall be installed before hazardous areas

A

0.30 mts

539
Q

Accessible elevators shall be located not more than __ mts from the entrance

A

30 mts

540
Q

Accessible elevators shall have a minimum dimension of ____ mts x ____ mts

A

1.10 m x 1.40 m

541
Q

Centerline heights for the topmost elevator buttons

A

0.9 m to 1.2 m

542
Q

Minimum diameter of elevator buttons and max depression depth

A

20 mm dia

1 mm depth

543
Q

At least 1 water fountain shall be provided for every _______ sqm of floor area and not less than 1 on each floor

A

2000 sqm

544
Q

Public telephone clear unobstructed space

A

1.5 m x 1.5 m

545
Q

Minimum clear width of telephone booth door openings

A

0.8 m

546
Q

Fire code of the Philippines

A

PD 1185

547
Q

For first violation of BP 344, a fine of not less than __________ but not exceeding ___________ or imprisonment of not less than ________ but not more than ________ or both

A

50,000
100,000
6 months
2 years

548
Q

For subsequent violation of BP 344, a fine of not less than __________ but not exceeding ___________ or imprisonment of not less than ________ but not more than ________ or both

A

100,000
200,000
2 years
6 years

549
Q

Any person who abuses the privileges granted by BP 344 shall be punished with imprisonment of not less than ________ or a fine of not less than _________ but not more than _____________ or both

A

6 months
5,000
50,000

550
Q

Fire Code of the Philippines of 2008

A

R.A. 9514

PD 1185

551
Q

According to R.A. 9514, it is the policy of the State to ensure __________, promote _________________ through the ________ and _________ of all kinds of destructive fires and promote the _____________ of the fire service as a profession. Toward this end, the State shall _________ all laws, rules and regulations to ensure _________ to standard fire prevention and safety measures and promote __________ in the fire protection and prevention service.

A

public safety

economic development

prevention

suppression

professionalization

enforce

adherence

accountability

552
Q

A stage or platform that opens on at least 3 sides to audience seating; may be with or without overhead scene handling facilities

A

Arena stage

553
Q

Integrated system of underground or overhead piping or both connected to a source of extinguishing agent or medium and designed in accordance with fire protection engineering standards which when actuated by its automatic detecting device, suppresses fires within the area protected

A

Automatic Fire Suppression System

554
Q

Duly designated head of the City Municipal Fire Station

A

City/Municipal Fire Marshal

555
Q

Fires involving ordinary combustible materials such as wood, cloth rubber and plastics

A

Class A Fires

556
Q

Fires involving flammable liquids and gases

A

Class B Fires

557
Q

Fires involving energized electrical equipment

A

Class C Fires

558
Q

Fires involving combustible materials such as sodium, magnesium, potassium and other similar materials

A

Class D Fires

559
Q

Fires in cooking appliances that involve combustible cooking media (vegetable or animal oils and fats)

A

Class K Fires

560
Q

Pipeline system filled with water and connected to a constant water supply for the use of BFP and the occupants of the buildings solely for fire suppression purposes

A

Combination Standpipe

561
Q

Any readily ignitable and free-burning fibers

A

Combustible Fibers

562
Q

Any liquid having a flash point at or above 37.8 degrees Celsius

A

Combustible Liquid

563
Q

Aka loose waste material; salvageable; retained for scrap or reprocessing

A

Combustible Waste

564
Q

Group of firefighters performing fire suppression activities within a specified jurisdiction

A

Community/ Barangay Fire Brigade

565
Q

Assembly of components designed to contain, distribute or transport compressed gases

A

Compressed Gas System

566
Q

Any vessel of less than 227t used for transporting or storing liquids

A

Container

567
Q

Any liquid which causes fire when in contact with organic matter or with certain chemicals

A

Corrosive Liquid

568
Q

A vertical panel of non-combustible or fire-resistive attached to and extending below the bottom chord of the roof trusses to divide the underside of the roof into separate compartments so that heat and smoke will be directed upwards to a roof vent

A

Curtain Board

569
Q

A normally open device installed inside air duct systems which automatically closes to restrict the passage of smoke or fire

A

Damper

570
Q

A type of standpipe system in which pipes are normally not filled with water; water is introduced into the system thru fire service connections when needed

A

Dry Standpipe

571
Q

A continuous passageway for transmission of air

A

Duct system

572
Q

A partially enclosed portion of an assembly room where the ceiling is not more than 155 cm above the proscenium opening

A

Enclosed Platform

573
Q

Buildings, structures or facilities used for storage of explosive, shells, projectiles and ammunition

A

Explosive Magazines

574
Q

Includes any chemical compound or mechanical mixture that is commonly used or intended for the purpose of producing an explosion

A

Explosive

575
Q

Materials used as final coating of a surface for ornamental or protective purposes

A

Finishes

576
Q

Any visual or audible signal produced by a device or system to warn the occupants of the building or firefighting elements of the presence or danger of fire

A

Fire Alarm

577
Q

A fire alarm system activated by the presence of fire where the signal is transmitted to designated locations

A

Fire Alerting System

578
Q

Collective term used to refer to a group of firefighters primarily performing fire suppression activities

A

Fire Brigade

579
Q

Fire resistive door prescribed for openings in fire separation walls or partitions

A

Fire Door

580
Q

Any condition or act which increases or may cause an increase in the probability of the occurrence of fire or which may obstruct, delay, hinder or interfere with firefighting operations and the safeguarding of life and property

A

Fire Hazard

581
Q

Any device intended for protection of buildings or persons; built-in protection system and other warning system components; anything that may be put on or worn by persons to protect themselves during fire

A

Fire Protective and Fire Safety Device

582
Q

An assembly incorporated in the structure designed to prevent the spread of fire

A

Fire Protective Assembly

583
Q

Time duration that a material or construction can withstand the effect of a standard fire test

A

Fire Resistance Rating

584
Q

Refers to design and installation of elements integral to and incorporated into a building in order to minimize danger to life from fire smoke, fumes, or panic before the building is evacuated

A

Fire Safety Constructions

585
Q

A building unsafe in case of fire because it will burn easily or because it lacks adequate exits or fire escapes

A

Fire Trap

586
Q

An organized group of private firefighters recognized by the BFP who have voluntarily formed themselves to perform fire related activities

A

Fire Volunteer Organization (FVO)

587
Q

A person who voluntarily enters into firefighting services

A

Fire Volunteer

588
Q

A wall designed to prevent the spread of fire having fire resistance rating of not less than 4 hours

A

Fire Wall

589
Q

The active principle of burning characterized by heat and light of combustion

A

Fire

590
Q

Any compound or mixture which improves the resistivity or fire resistance quality of fabrics and other materials

A

Flame Retardant

591
Q

Time in which flame will spread over the surface of a burning material

A

Flame Spread Rating

592
Q

Characteristic of a material on how easily it will burn or ignite

A

Flammability

593
Q

Material coatings in which the material being applied is a flammable liquid, combustible liquid, combustible powder or flammable or combustible gel coating

A

Flammable finishes

594
Q

Area in which the concentration of flammable constituents in air exceeds 25% of their lower flammable limit (LFL)

A

Flammable Vapor Area

595
Q

Group of firefighters rendering firefighting activities in the premises of a public office

A

Government Fire Brigade

596
Q

Identification of potential hazards which includes risk evaluation that takes into account the likelihood of the hazard resulting in fire or explosion

A

Hazard Evaluation

597
Q

Any area covered with dry grass, cogon, reeds, brush and other highly combustible growth or any area used for stockpiling of used or waste materials where fire is likely to occur therein and hard to suppress

A

Hazardous Fire Area

598
Q

Any act of manufacturing, fabrication, conversion or other similar operations that use or produce materials which are likely to cause fires or explosions

A

Hazardous Operation/ Process

599
Q

Include combustible materials on pallets or in racks more than 4 meters high; for highly combustible materials, , the critical height of piling may be as low as 240cm

A

High Piled Storage

600
Q

Buildings, structures or facilities 15 mts or more in height

A

High rise building

601
Q

Any uninterrupted space between horizontal layers of stored commodities

A

Horizontal channel

602
Q

Passageway from one building to another or through or around a wall

A

Horizontal xit

603
Q

Box or cabinet where fire hoses, valves and other equipment are stored and arranged for firefighting

A

Hose Box

604
Q

Cylindrical device turning on an axis around which a fire hose is wound and connected

A

Hose reel

605
Q

Structures installed for the protection of dispensing devices against possible collision damage/s

A

Impact Barriers

606
Q

Any piece of metal or an electrical conductor used to bypass a safety device in an electrical system

A

Jumper

607
Q

Area in which operations for touch-up or spot painting of a surface area not exceeding 1sqm or less are conducted

A

Limited Spraying Space

608
Q

Specific room which is permanently installed and used for the operation of machineries

A

Machinery room

609
Q

Form that contains data and information regarding the properties of particular substance

A

Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS)

610
Q

Continuous and unobstructed route of exit from one point in a building

A

Means of egress

611
Q

Purpose for which a building or portion thereof is used or intended to be used

A

Occupancy

612
Q

Maximum number of persons that may be allowed to occupy a particular building

A

Occupant Load

613
Q

Any person actually occupying and using a building

A

Occupant

614
Q

Use of one or more electrical appliances or devices which draw or consume electrical current beyond designed capacity of existing electrical system

A

Overloading

615
Q

Mechanical device with linkages and horizontal bars across a door which when pushed from the inside will cause the door to open

A

Panic hardware

616
Q

Plastics having heat of combustion much higher than that of ordinary combustibles and burning rate higher than that of Group B plastics

A

Group A plastics

617
Q

Plastics having heat pf combustion and burning rate higher than that of ordinary combustibles but not as high as those of Group A plastics

A

Group B plastics

618
Q

Plastics having heat of combustion and burning rate similar to those of ordinary combustibles

A

Group C plastics

619
Q

An air compartment or chamber to which one or more ducts are connected and which form part of an air distribution system

A

Plenum

620
Q

Any qualified person, recognized by BFP, engaged in but not limited to the design, construction, installation, repair and maintenance, assessment and rehabilitation of fire safety construction, suppression and control systems, protective warnings etc

A

Fire Safety Practicioner

621
Q

A fire resistive wall which separates a stage or enclosed platform from the public or spectators’ area of an auditorium or theater

A

Proscenium wall

622
Q

Descriptive of any substance that ignites spontaneously when exposed to air

A

Pyrophoric

623
Q

Assembly comprised of the compressor, condenser, expansion valve, evaporator through which a very low boiling point substance (refrigerant) flow in cycle and absorbs heat thereby producing the cooling effect

A

Refrigerating system

624
Q

Process of coating, spreading and impregnating fabrics, paper or other materials as they are passed directly through a tank or trough containing flammable or combustible liquids or over the surface of a roller revolving partially submerged in a flammable or combustible liquid

A

Roll coating

625
Q

Automatic closing doors designed to confine smoke and heat and delay spread of fire

A

Self-closing doors

626
Q

Rating of combustible materials based on the density and volume of smoke developed within a certain period of time

A

Smoke Developed Rating

627
Q

Designated area where a smoking is permitted

A

Smoking area

628
Q

Source of energy sufficient to ignite a flammable atmosphere

A

Source of Ignition

629
Q

Mechanically ventilated appliance of varying dimensions and construction provided to enclose or accommodate a spraying operation and to confine and limit the escape of spray vapor and residue and to exhaust it safely

A

Spray booth

630
Q

Area in which dangerous quantities of flammable vapors or mists or combustible residues, dusts or deposits are present

A

Spraying area

631
Q

An integrated network of hydraulically designed piping system with outlets arranged in a systematic pattern which automatically discharges water when activated by heat or combustion

A

Sprinkler system

632
Q

Partially enclosed portion of an assembly building designed or used for presentation

A

Stage

633
Q

A system of vertical pipes to which fire hoses can be attached on each floor including a system by which water is made available to water outlets as needed

A

Standpipe system

634
Q

Portion of a stage which projects into the audience

A

Thrust Stage

635
Q

Degree to which a substance is able to damage an exposed organism

A

Toxicity

636
Q

Liquid waste generated by treatment plants, housekeeping, operation and maintenance and laboratory activities

A

Used water

637
Q

Process of supplying or removing air by natural or mechanical means

A

Ventilation

638
Q

Passage hall or antechamber

A

Vestibule

639
Q

Single or compact or multi-stage units and/or combination of unit processes and operation systems for the purification or treatment of raw water or water from a source that requires the removal and/or reduction of impurities or improvement of its quality

A

Water Treatment Plants

640
Q

Liquid waste

A

Waste water

641
Q

Who needs to inspect buildings in relation to fire related hazards and compliance?

A

City/Municipal Fire Marshal

642
Q

According to R.A. 9514, no lock or fastening device shall be installed on exits except in _______, _______ or ____________ institutions

A

mental
penal
correctional

643
Q

According to R.A. 9514, all means of egress shall be provided with adequate and reliable _____________.

A

illumination

644
Q

Class A flame spread rating

A

25 or less

645
Q

Class B flame spread rating

A

56-75

646
Q

Class C flame spread rating

A

76-200

647
Q

Class D flame spread rating

A

201-500

648
Q

Class E flame spread rating

A

> 500

649
Q

In all new buildings other than private residences what 2 classes of interior finishes shall be used in all basements or other underground spaces where there is no direct exit?

A

Class A or Class C

650
Q

What type of interior finish shall not be used in any room space subject to human occupancy?

A

Class E

651
Q

What is NFPA 72?

A

National Fire Alarm and Signaling Code from National Fire Protection Association

652
Q

Fire detection alarm and communication system is required by Division 8 through 17 of RA 9514 in accordance with what laws?

A

NFPA 72

Philippine Electrical Code

653
Q

When a required fire alarm system is out of service for more than ___ hours, the City/Municipal Fire Marshal shall be notified within 24 hours

A

4 hours

654
Q

What is NFPA 13?

A

Standard for the Installation of Sprinkler Systems

655
Q

Sprinkler impairment procedures shall comply with NFPA 25. What is NFPA 25?

A

Standard for inspection, Testing and Maintenance of Water-based Fire Protection System

656
Q

Administrative fine of not exceeding __________ for violation of R.A. 9514

A

50,000 pesos

657
Q

Punitive penalty for violation of R.A. 9514

A

Imprisonment of not less than 6 months but not more than 6 years

Fine of not more than 100,000 pesos

658
Q

When was Philippine Green Building Code passed?

A

June 22, 2015

659
Q

When was R.A. 9514 implemented?

A

November 18, 2009

660
Q

The GB Code seeks to improve the ________ of building performance through a framework of acceptable set of standards that will enhance ________________ and ________________ that will counter __________ responsible for the adverse effects of climate change, throughout the building’s life-cycle including efficient use of resources, site selection, planning, design, construction, use, occupancy, operation and maintenance, without significance increase in ______.

A
efficiency
sound environmental
resource management
harmful gases
cost
661
Q

Set of regulations setting minimum standards for compliance and not intended to rate buildings

A

GB Code

662
Q

Principle of GB Code

The technical professionals, developers, contractors, property manages and building owners involved in the planning, design, construction and management of buildings have the opportunity and responsibility to help government address the adverse effects of climate change by ensuring that buildings are ________, ________, ________, ________, and ________ to the required efficiency level.

A
planned
designed
constructed
operated
maintained
663
Q

Principle of GB Code

________ must be used efficiently to equitably meet the developmental and environmental needs of the present and future generations

A

Resources

664
Q

Principle of GB Code

Occupants of green buildings will benefit from improved ___________________ which promotes ________________ and ________________.

A

indoor environmental quality

higher productivity

better comfort

665
Q

Practice of adopting measures that promote resource management efficiency and site sustainability while minimizing the negative impact of buildings on human health and the environment

A

Green building

666
Q

The GB Code adopts a ________ or ________ approach and is subject to periodic review by the ________ of the ________________________________ through the NBCDO.

A

staggered
incremental
Secretary
DPWH

667
Q

6 Performance Standards of GB Code

A

Energy efficiency

Water efficiency

Material sustainability

Solid waste management

Site sustainability

Indoor environmental quality

668
Q

Building materials without hazardous or toxic chemicals that could cause Sick Building Syndrome (SBS) and eventually lead to Building Related Illness (BRI)

A

Non-toxic building materials

669
Q

Paints, coatings, adhesives and sealants shall not contain ________________.

A

Volatile Organic Compound (VOC)

670
Q

Composite wood shall not have ________ content.

A

urea formaldehyde

671
Q

What is MSDS?

A

Material Safety Data Sheet

672
Q

________________ shall provide for the collection and segregation of solid waste materials

A

Material Recovery Facility (MRF)

673
Q

4 types of wastes

A

Compostable (biodegradable)

Non-recyclable

Recyclable

Special waste

674
Q

For hospitals, isolated bins for ________________ shall be provided to avoid contamination.

A

hazardous waste

675
Q

One of the leading causes of respiratory illness in building occupants

A

Environmental Tobacco Smoke (ETS)

676
Q

Restricts tobacco smoking in public places and prescription of designated smoking area

A

R.A. 9211, Tobacco Regulations Act

677
Q

The ________________ shall review the building permit application for Green Buildings

A

Office of the Building Official

678
Q

National Cultural Heritage Act of 2009

A

R.A. 10066

679
Q

When was IRR of R.A. 10066 implemented?

A

March 7, 2013

680
Q

R.A. 10066 aims to ________, ________, ________ and ________ the nation’s cultural heritage, its property and histories and the ethnicity of local communities

A

protect
preserve
conserve
promote

681
Q

R.A. 10066 aims to ________ and ________ cultural institutions

A

establish

strengthen

682
Q

R.A. 10066 aims to ________ cultural workers and ________ their professional development and well-being

A

protect

ensure

683
Q

Utilization of buildings, other built-in structures and sites of value for purposes other than that for which they were intended originally, in order to conserve the site, their engineering integrity and authenticity of design

A

Adaptive reuse

684
Q

Cultural property found locally which is 100 years in age more or less

A

Antique

685
Q

Architectural and engineering structures with notable historical and cultural significance

A

Built heritage

686
Q

Any person who or institution that acquires cultural property for purposes other than sale

A

Collector

687
Q

In R.A. 10066, what does the Commission refer to?

A

National Commission for Culture and the Arts (NCCA)

688
Q

All processes and measures of maintaining the cultural significance of a cultural property

A

Conservation

689
Q

Teaching and learning of cultural concepts and processes

A

Cultural Education

690
Q

Totality of cultural property preserved and developed through time and passed on to posterity

A

Cultural Heritage

691
Q

All products of human creativity by which a people and a nation reveal their identity, whether public or privately-owned, movable or immovable and tangible or intangible

A

Cultural Property

692
Q

Historical, anthropological, archaeological, artistic geographical areas and settings that are culturally significant to the country as declared by the National Museum and/or National Historical Institute

A

Heritage zone

693
Q

Sites or structures associated with events or achievements significant to Philippine History as declared by the National Historical Institute

A

Historical Landmarks

694
Q

Structures that honor illustrious persons or commemorate events of historical value as declared by NHI

A

Historical Monuments

695
Q

Historical sites or structures hallowed and revered for their history or association as declared by NHI

A

Historical shrines

696
Q

Cultural property having exceptional cultural, artistic and historical significance in PH as shall be determined by the National Museum and/or NHI

A

Important Cultural Property (ICP)

697
Q

Practices, representations, expressions, knowledge and skills as well as the instruments, objects and artifacts associated therewith that communities, groups and individuals recognize as part of their cultural heritage

A

Intangible Cultural Heritage

698
Q

People’s learned processes along with the knowledge, skills and creativity that inform and are developed by them, the products they create and the resources, spaces and other aspects of social and natural context necessary for their sustainability

A

Intangible Cultural Property

699
Q

Permanent institution that researches, acquires, conserves, communicates and exhibits the material evidence of humans and their environment for purposes of education or leisure

A

Museum

700
Q

Unique cultural property found locally, possessing outstanding historical, cultural, artistic and/or scientific value which is highly significant and important to the country and nation and officially declared as such by pertinent cultural agency

A

National Cultural Treasure

701
Q

Unify the nation by a deep sense of pride in their various yet common identities, cultural heritage and national patrimony

A

Nationally significant

702
Q

In R.A. 10066, what does the Registry refer to?

A

Philippine Registry of Cultural Property

703
Q

Correct deterioration and alterations

A

Restoration

704
Q

Cultural property with historical, archival, anthropological, archaeological, artistic and architectural value and with exceptional or traditional production whether of Philippine origin or not, with significant value

A

Tangible cultural property

705
Q

Level of World Heritage Sites, National Culture Treasures, National Historical Landmarks, National Historical Shrines, National Historical Monuments

A

Grade I

706
Q

Level of Important Cultural Properties

A

Grade II

707
Q

Level of all other cultural property not declared as Grades I nor II

A

Grade III

708
Q

Level of undeclared property

A

Uncategorized

709
Q

6 things considered as important cultural property

A
  • Works by a Manlilikha ng Bayan
  • Works by National Artist
  • Archaeological, traditional, ethnographic material
  • Works and structures
  • Archival materials or documents
  • Rarebooks and Incunabula
710
Q

Early printed book esp before 1501

A

Incunabula

711
Q

Philippine government supported organization whose main purpose is to promote Philippine arts, culture and language throughout the world; has branches or offices in countries where there are children of OFWs who need to be educated about their roots, and in developed countries where there are large Filipino communities

A

Sentro Rizal

712
Q

Punishment for violators of R.A. 10066

A

Fine not less than 200,000 pesos or imprisonment for a term of not less than 10 years or both

713
Q

Punishment for non-registration of cultural property

A

Fine not less than 10,000 pesos but not more than 100,000 pesos

714
Q

Economic and Socialized Housing Projects

A

BP 220

715
Q

According to BP 220, where ceilings are not provided, a minimum headroom clearance of ___ mts shall be provided

A

2.0 mts

716
Q

According to BP 220, mezzanine floors shall have a clear ceiling height of not less than ___ mts above and below it, provided that it shall not cover ___% of the floor area below it

A

1.8 mts

50%

717
Q

According to BP 220, a minimum of one entrance/exit shall be provided where the number of occupants is not more than ___ and 2 entrances/exits where the number of occupants is greater than ___

A

10

718
Q

According to BP 220, doors shall have a minimum clear height of ___ mts; except for bathroom and mezzanine doors which shall have a minimum clear height of ____ mts

A
  1. 0 mts

1. 8 mts

719
Q

According to BP 220, what is the minimum clear width of main door?

A

0.8 mts

720
Q

According to BP 220, what is the minimum clear width of service/bedroom door?

A

0.7 mts

721
Q

According to BP 220, what is the minimum clear width of bathroom door?

A

0.6 mts

722
Q

According to BP 220, a habitable room shall have a total free area of openings equal to at least ___% of the floor area of the room

A

10%

723
Q

According to BP 220, bathrooms shall be provided with window/s with an area not less than ___ of its floor area

A

1/20

724
Q

According to BP 220, required windows may open into a roofed porch where the porch has a ceiling height of not less than ___ mts

A

2.0 mts

725
Q

According to BP 220, what is the minimum clear width of interior stairways?

A

0.60 mts

726
Q

According to BP 220, what is the maximum riser height of stairs?

A

0.25 mts

727
Q

According to BP 220, what is the minimum tread width of stairs?

A

0.20 mts

728
Q

According to BP 220, stairs shall have a minimum headroom clearance of what?

A

2.0 mts

729
Q

According to BP 220, what should be the maximum height between landings?

A

3.60 mts

730
Q

According to BP 220, stairways with less than ___ risers need not have handrails

A

4

731
Q

According to BP 220, handrails on stairs shall not be less than ___ mts or more than ___ mts above the upper surface of tread

A
  1. 8 mts

1. 2 mts

732
Q

According to BP 220, what is the minimum clearance of handrails to wall?

A

38 mm

733
Q

According to BP 220, what is the height of stair guards?

A

not less than 0.8 mts and no more than 1.2 mts

734
Q

According to BP 220, winding and circular stairways may be used if the required width of run is provided at a point not more than _____ mm from the side of the stairway but in no case shall any width of run be less than ____ mm at any point

A

300 mm

150 mm

735
Q

According to BP 220, the use of ladders may be allowed provided that the maximum distance between landings shall be ___ mts

A

1.8 mts

736
Q

Expanded Breastfeeding Promotion Act of 2009

A

R.A. 10028

737
Q

Effectivity of IRR of R.A. 10028

A

September 12, 2011

738
Q

According to R.A. 10028, the State adopts ________ as a national policy to encourage, protect and support the practice of breastfeeding

A

rooming-in

739
Q

CEDAW

A

Convention on the Elimination of Discrimination Against Women

740
Q

Human milk which has been extracted from the breast fed to an infant

A

Expressed breastmilk

741
Q

Feeding of a newborn with infant formula usually by bottle feeding

A

Formula feeding

742
Q

Other term for formula feeding

A

Artificial feeding

743
Q

Hospitals, health infirmaries, health centers, lying-in centers or puericulture centers with obstetrical and pediatric services

A

Health institutions

744
Q

Process of enabling people to take action to improve health

A

Health Promotion

745
Q

Place where everyone works together to achieve an agreed vision for health, safety and well-being of workers, their families and the surrounding community

A

Healthy workplace

746
Q

Service established for the purpose of collecting, screening, processing, storing and distributing donated human milk

A

Human milk bank

747
Q

Private, clean, sanitary and well-ventilated rooms or areas in the workplace or public places where nursing mothers can wash up, breastfeed or express their milk

A

Lactation stations or Breastfeeding room/area/station

748
Q

Any private, clean, sanitary and well-ventilated area or space in a health institution designated for the purpose of collecting and storing milk among mothers separated from their own babies

A

Milk storage facility

749
Q

A national multi-sectoral health promotion strategy which aims to communicate health messages and build health supportive environment through advocacy, networking and community action

A

Philippine Health Promotion Program through Healthy Places (PHPP)

750
Q

Practice of placing the newborn in the same room as the mother right after delivery up to discharge to facilitate mother-infant bonding and to initiate breastfeeding

A

Rooming-in

751
Q

When is a private establishment exempted to establish lactation station?

A

If it is not feasible or necessary considering the number of women employees, physical size of the establishment and average number of women who will use the facility

752
Q

Renewal period for the exemption of establishment of lactation station granted by DOLE

A

2 years

753
Q

According to R.A. 10028, how long should lactation periods be for every 8-hour working period?

A

minimum 40 minutes

754
Q

How many breastmilk expressions are allowed within a workday?

A

2-3 breastmilk expressions lasting 15-30 minutes each

755
Q

A human milk bank should be a temporary solution when the mother and baby are separated. True or False?

A

True

756
Q

4 defined areas in the milk bank

A
  • Wash area
  • Milk expression area
  • Processing and storage area
  • Office/administrative space
757
Q

Milk treated with mild heat usually less than 100 degrees Celsius/ 212 degrees Farenheit to eliminate pathogens and extend shelf life

A

Pasteurized milk

758
Q

Sanction for first offense violating R.A. 10028

A

Fine not less than 50,000 pesos but not more than 200,000 pesos

759
Q

Sanction for second offense violating R.A. 10028

A

Fine not less than 200,000 pesos but not more than 500,000 pesos

760
Q

Sanction for third offense violating R.A. 10028

A

Fine not less than 500,000 pesos but not more than 1,000,000 pesos and the cancellation or revocation of business permits or licenses to operate

761
Q

Expanded Senior Citizens Act of 2010

A

R.A. 9994

762
Q

When was R.A. 9994 effective?

A

February 10, 2010

763
Q

According to R.A. 9994, ________________ for senior citizens shall be provided in all private, banking, commercial and government establishments in the absence thereof, priority shall be given to them

A

accessible express lanes

764
Q

Sanction for first offense violating R.A. 9994

A

Fine not less than 50,000 pesos but not exceeding 100,000 pesos and imprisonment for not less than 2 years but not more than 6 years

765
Q

Sanction for subsequent offense violating R.A. 9994

A

Fine not less than 100,000 pesos but not exceeding 200,000 pesos and imprisonment for not less than 2 years but not more than 6 years

766
Q

Sanction for any person who abuses the privileges granted by R.A. 9994

A

Fine not less than 50,000 pesos but not exceeding 100,000 pesos and imprisonment for not less than 6 months

767
Q

Act of Expanding the Benefits and Privileges of Persons with Disability (PWD)

A

R.A. 10754

768
Q

When was the IRR of R.A. 10754 effective?

A

December 1, 2016

769
Q

It is the objective of R.A. 10754 to provide persons with disability the opportunity to participate fully into the mainstream of society by granting them at least ___% discount and exemption from the value added tax on sale of certain goods and services identified under R.A. 9442 for the exclusive use, enjoyment or availment of PWDs

A

20%

770
Q

Amending R.A. 7277 “Magna Carta for Disabled Persons and for other Purposes”

A

R.A. 9442

771
Q

Shall monitor the implementation of the IRRs of R.A. 10754 to ensure that PWDs enjoy the additional benefits and privileges provided by the law

A

National Council on Disability Affairs (NCDA)

772
Q

“Magna Carta for Disabled Persons and for other Purposes”

A

R.A. 7277

773
Q

Sanction for first offense violating R.A. 10754

A

Fine not less than 50,000 pesos but not exceeding 100,000 pesos and imprisonment for not less than 6 months but not more than 2 years or both

774
Q

Sanction for subsequent offense violating R.A. 10754

A

Fine not less than 100,000 pesos but not exceeding 200,000 pesos and imprisonment for not less than 2 years but not more than 6 years or both

775
Q

Sanction for any person who abuses the privileges granted by R.A. 10754

A

Fine not less than 5,000 pesos but not exceeding 50,000 pesos or imprisonment for not less than 6 months

776
Q

Philippine Design Competitiveness Act of 2013

A

R.A. 10557

777
Q

When was the IRR of R.A. 10557 effective?

A

October 9, 2015

778
Q

According to R.A. 10557, it is the declared policy of the State to ________ the competitive and innovative quality of Philippine products and design services

A

enhance

779
Q

According to R.A. 10557, it is the declared policy of the State to create ____________ design services while advocating for economic and environmental sustainability

A

market-responsive

780
Q

According to R.A. 10557, it is the declared policy of the State to promote an economy and society driven by _______ and _______ responsive to our fast-changing times and reflective of the Filipino culture and identity

A

design

creativity

781
Q

According to R.A. 10557, it is the declared policy of the State to advocate the _________ of intellectual property rights to these ideas and innovations

A

protection

782
Q

What does the advisory board refer to in R.A. 10557?

A

Design Advisory Council (DAC)

783
Q

Shall refer to a way of thinking and a problem-solving process that is user-centered, collaborative, multi-disciplinary and makes ideas tangible

A

Design

784
Q

Supportive system of sharing design-related information and services among individuals and groups

A

Design Network

785
Q

Refer to promoting awareness regarding the benefits of design, drive up demand for design services and put design at the heart of economic growth

A

Design Promotion

786
Q

Process of collecting, preserving and disseminating information for furthering the development of design skills and knowledge and advancing the theory and practice of design

A

Design Research

787
Q

Rights recognized and protected in R.A. 8293

A

Intellectual Property Rights

788
Q

What was R.A. 8293?

A

Intellectual Property Code of the Philippines

789
Q

Refer to the State’s strategy in promoting design as a driving force towards a sustainable economic growth and development

A

National Design Policy

790
Q

Principle or rule chosen by the government or other authoritative body to direct affairs of society towards the realization of predetermined goals or objectives

A

Policy

791
Q

Refer to the creation of design

A

Design development

792
Q

Partnership between government and private entities

A

Public-private partnership

793
Q

Industry associations, manufacturers, designers, design academe, design students, government offices and any other beneficiaries of the services of DCP

A

Stakeholders of DCP

794
Q

PDDCP

A

Product Development and Design Center of the Philippines

795
Q

How many members are there in DAC?

A

15 members

9 from government sector; 6 from private sector

796
Q

Who acts as the Secretariat of DAC?

A

DCP

797
Q

6 Goals of the National Design Policy (NDP)

A
  • Global Competitiveness
  • Institutionalization and Promotion of Design Culture Nationwide
  • Creation of an environment to cultivate a constant demand for good design
  • Design protection
  • Design education and professional development
  • Institutionalization of design as an effective problem-solving tool
798
Q

A form of a semi-permanent or permanent structure constructed along a property line; no form of permitted opening

A

Abutment

799
Q

Building subordinated to the main building on the same lot and used for purposes customarily incidental to those of the main building

A

Accessory building

800
Q

A sign that directs attention to a business profession, commodity, service or entertainment

A

Advertising signs

801
Q

A defined area of land or water

A

Aerodome

802
Q

Building designed and constructed to house farm implements, hay, grain, poultry, livestock or other horticultural products; not for human habitation

A

Agricultural building

803
Q

Process of treating air so as to control simultaneously its temperature, humidity and maintain cleanliness and distribution to meet the requirements of his conditioned space

A

Air Conditioning (AC)

804
Q

Use as passageway with a width of not more than 3 meters

A

Alley

805
Q

Any change, addition or modification in construction or occupancy

A

Alter or alteration

806
Q

A room or suite of 2 or more rooms designed and intended for or occupied by one family for living, sleeping and cooking purposes

A

Apartment

807
Q

Any building or portion thereof which is designed, built, rented, leased, let or hired out to be occupied or which is occupied as the home or residence of 3 or more families living independently

A

Apartment house

808
Q

Any portion of a building above the first floor projecting over the sidewalk beyond the first-storey wall used as protection for pedestrians against rain or sun

A

Arcade

809
Q

Building or portion of building used for the gathering together of 50 or more persons

A

Assembly building or hall

810
Q

Any storey situated wholly or partly in a roof used for business, storage or habitation

A

Attic storey

811
Q

Engineered system to detect automatically and suppress fire through fixed spring piping and nozzles

A

Automatic Fire Suppression System

812
Q

Movable shelter which can be retracted, folded or collapsed against the face of a supporting building

A

Awning

813
Q

Surface or assembly to which veneer is attached

A

Backing

814
Q

Portion of seating space of an assembly room, lowest part raised 1.20 mts or more above the level of the main floor

A

Balcony

815
Q

Stationary open hearth or brazier, either fuel-fired or electric, used for food preparation

A

Barbecue

816
Q

Portion of building between floor and ceiling which is partly below or partly above grade

A

Basement/ basement level

817
Q

One of the intervals or spaces into which the building front is divided by columns, buttresses or division walls

A

Bay or Panel

818
Q

Panel for posting bills or posters

A

Billboards

819
Q

A house with 5 or more sleeping rooms where boarders are provided with lodging and meals for a fixed sum paid by the month or week

A

Boarding house

820
Q

Closed vessel intended for use in heating water or for application of heat

A

Boiler or Steam Generator

821
Q

Remaining space in a lot after deducting the required minimum open spaces

A

Buildable area

822
Q

Three-dimensional physical development erected within a lot or property

A

Building/structure

823
Q

Vertical distance from the established grade elevation to the highest point of the coping of a flat roof to the average height of the highest gable or a pitch or hip roof or to the top of parapet

A

Building height

824
Q

1-5 storeys in height; 3-15 mts above established grade; not requiring an elevator; purely residential

A

Low-rise

825
Q

From 6-15 storeys; 18-45 mts from established grade; fire escapes and safety systems necessary

A

Medium-rise

826
Q

From 16 storeys or taller in height; from 48 mts above; systems mandatory

A

High-rise

827
Q

General linear dimension measured in the direction of bearing walls for girders

A

Building length

828
Q

Line formed by the intersection of the outer surface of the enclosing wall of the building and the surface of the ground

A

Building line

829
Q

Shortest linear dimension usually measured in the direction of floor, beams or joists

A

Building width

830
Q

Accessory sign that directs attention offered in the same place where the business is located

A

Business sign

831
Q

Permanent roofed structure above a door attached to and supported by the building and projecting over a wall or sidewalk

A

Canopy/ Marquee

832
Q

Portion of a building between floor and ceiling which is wholly or partly below grade; with required room temperature for wines and liquors

A

Cellar

833
Q

Public or private land used for the burial of the dead

A

Cemetery

834
Q

Pipe which connects a flue-burning appliance to a chimney

A

Chimney connector

835
Q

Lining materials of fire clay

A

Chimney liner

836
Q

Niche in a tomb or columbarium to accommodate an urn

A

Cinerarium

837
Q

A sepulcher with niches for cinerary remains

A

Columbarium

838
Q

Mechanical device which increases the pressure upon the refrigerant

A

Compressor

839
Q

Vessel or arrangement of pipes or tubing in which vaporized refrigerant is liquefied by the removal of heat

A

Condenser

840
Q

Hollow or solid concrete masonry unit made from Portland cement and suitable aggregates

A

Concrete block

841
Q

Material or unit used to form a cap of finish on top of a wall, pier or plaster

A

Coping

842
Q

Non-ferrous metal or any metal having an unbroken surface of non-ferrous metal or steel with not less than 10% chromium or with less than 0.20% copper

A

Corrosion-resistant

843
Q

Court bounded on all sides or around its periphery by building lines

A

Inner court

844
Q

Court bounded by on three sides by building lines with one side bounded by another open space

A

Open court

845
Q

Court bounded on two opposite sides by building lines with other opposite sides bounded by other open spaces

A

Through court

846
Q

Portion of a yard which permitted limit of paving/hardscaping shall not exceed 50% of the area

A

Courtyard

847
Q

Any designated place duly authorized by law to cremate dead persons

A

Crematorium

848
Q

Area which will accommodate a number of persons equal to the total capacity of the building it serves; no person within the area need be closer than 15 mts from the stand or building

A

Dispersal area

849
Q

Portion of a building abutting the sidewalk open to public view protected by grilles, screens or transparent materials for the display of goods

A

Display window

850
Q

Dwelling intended for use and occupancy by the family of the owner only; total cost does not exceed 15,000 pesos

A

Indigenous dwelling

851
Q

Passageway made of sheet metal for conveying air or other gases at low pressure

A

Duct

852
Q

Hoisting mechanism to carry small materials

A

Dumbwaiter

853
Q

Kind of public open space that must be absolutely free of all forms of physical obstructions

A

Easement

854
Q

Any sign illuminated by incandescent of fluorescent lamps or luminous tubes

A

Electrical sign

855
Q

Hoisting and lowering mechanism equipped with a car or platform

A

Elevator

856
Q

Power driven, inclined continuous stairway for raising or lowering passengers

A

Escalator

857
Q

Continuous and unobstructed means of egress

A

Exit

858
Q

Yard or court providing egress to a public way

A

Exit court

859
Q

An enclosed means of egress connecting a required exit or exit court with a public way

A

Exit passageway

860
Q

Any masonry, forming an integral part of a wall used as a finished surface

A

Facing

861
Q

Assembly of a fire door, fire window or fire damper

A

Fire Assembly

862
Q

Reinforced masonry or reinforced concrete separator positioned between dwelling units or buildings/structures to maintain fire integrity of each

A

Firewall

863
Q

Refractory brick

A

Firebrick

864
Q

Storey or floor which is at or above the level of the sidewalk or adjoining ground

A

First storey

865
Q

Area included within the surrounding exterior walls of a building exclusive of vent shafts and courts

A

Floor area

866
Q

Gross expanse of a floor

A

Floor plate

867
Q

Portion of foundation which spreads and transmits loads directly to the soil or the pile

A

Footing

868
Q

All portions of the building/structure below the footing

A

Foundation

869
Q

Building or portion thereof in which a motor vehicle is stored, repaired or kept

A

Garage

870
Q

Those employing a series of continuously rising floors permitting the movement of vehicles under their own power

A

Ramp-access open parking garages

871
Q

Those employing parking machines, lifts, elevator or other mechanical services

A

Mechanical-access open parking garage

872
Q

Horizontal structural piece which supports end of floor beams or joists or walls over opening

A

Girder

873
Q

Total floor space

A

Gross Floor Area (GFA)

874
Q

Storey at or near the level of the grade

A

Ground Floor

875
Q

Sign with support resting on the ground

A

Ground sign

876
Q

Any room meeting the requirement of the NBC for sleeping, living, cooking or dining purposes

A

Habitable room

877
Q

Corridor or passageway used in common

A

Common hall

878
Q

Area of land or water or a structural surface which is used or intended for use in landing and take off of helicopters without need for refueling, maintenance, repairs or storage of helicopters

A

Helipad

879
Q

Apparatus for raising or lowering a load by the application of force but does not include car or platform

A

Hoist

880
Q

Opening through a building or structure for the travel of elevators, dumbwaiters, or material lifts extending from the pit floor to the roof of flow above

A

Hoistway

881
Q

Maximum allowable floor area of any paved, tiled or hardscaped surface; do not allow water percolation into the soil nor do they allow the soil to breathe

A

Impervious surface area (ISA)

882
Q

A plaque or sticker or lettering to be painted on either the top or bottom of the poster or sign as a means of identifying the company to which the structure belongs to

A

Imprint

883
Q

Horizontal distance between the outermost building or structure line of a lower floor and that of a higher floor wherein the outermost building line of a higher floor is farther from the property line

A

Incremental setback

884
Q

Building or part thereof with rooms occupied or intended to be occupied for hire as temporary abode; no provision for cooking

A

Hotel

885
Q

Covering of not less than 2 thicknesses of roofing felt and a good coat of tar and gravel or tin, corrugated iron or other approved fire-resistive material with a standing seam on lap joint

A

Incombustible roofing

886
Q

Beam or girder placed over an opening in a wall which supports the wall construction above

A

Lintel

887
Q

Weight of permanent portions of building or structure

A

Dead Load

888
Q

Load caused by winds, earthquakes or other dynamic forces

A

Lateral load

889
Q

Weight of contents of the building or structure

A

Live load

890
Q

Total number of persons that may occupy a building or portion thereof at any one time

A

Occupant load

891
Q

Unit area in a cemetery used either for ground interment or for the erection of a mausoleum or tomb

A

Lot

892
Q

Form of construction composed of stone, brick, concrete, gypsum, hollow clay tile, concrete block or tile laid up and set in mortar

A

Masonry

893
Q

Brick, block, tile, stone or other similar building unit or combination made to be bounded together by a cementation agent

A

Masonry unit

894
Q

Large stately tomb to accommodate one or more interments usually with provisions for an ossuary and/or cinerarium

A

Mausoleum

895
Q

Monument, marker, tablet, headstone, tombstone, private mausoleum or tomb for family or individual use

A

Memorial

896
Q

Cemetery with well-kept landscaped lawns and wide roadways separating areas for ground interments, tombs, mausoleums and columbaria with or without a mortuary chapel

A

Memorial park

897
Q

Partial intermediate floor having an area not more than one-half of the area of the room or space which it is constructed

A

Mezzanine or mezzanine floor

898
Q

Tombstone or memorial of concrete, granite, marble or other durable stone extending above the surface of ground

A

Monument

899
Q

Type of horizontal passenger-carrying device on which passenger stand or walk with its surface remaining parallel to its direction of motion and is uninterrupted

A

Moving ramp/ walkway

900
Q

Interment space for remains of dead persons

A

Niche

901
Q

Building which does not conform with the regulations

A

Non-conforming building

902
Q

Purpose for which a building is used or intended to be used

A

Occupancy

903
Q

Interment space for remains of dead persons; container or room in which bones or dead people are placed

A

Ossuary

904
Q

Bar that extends across at least one-half width of each door leaf which will open the door if subjected to pressure

A

Panic hardware

905
Q

Interior subdividing wall

A

Partition

906
Q

Portion of wall which projects and acts as vertical beam, a column or both

A

Pilaster

907
Q

Plastic materials with flame spread rating of 225 or less

A

Approved plastics

908
Q

Fully enclosed between the established grade and the first of a typical floor

A

Podium

909
Q

Sign fastened to, suspended from or supported on a building or structure; perpendicular from the wall

A

Projecting sign

910
Q

Permanent edifices owned by the government

A

Public buildings/ structures

911
Q

Parcel of land unobstructed appropriated for free passage of the general public

A

Public way

912
Q

Low density residential use or occupancy; low-rise single detached building/structure used as single/nuclear family dwelling

A

R-1

913
Q

Medium-density residential use or occupancy; low-rise single-attached, duplex or multi-level building/structure for exclusive use as multiple family dwellings

A

R-2

914
Q

Single-attached or duplex building/structure of from one storey up to 3 storeys with each unit for separate use as single family dwellings

A

Basic R-2

915
Q

Low-rise multi-level building from 3 up to 5 storeys and for use as multiple family dwellings

A

Maximum R-2

916
Q

High density residential use or occupancy; low-rise or medium-rise building for exclusive use as multiple family dwellings with mixed housing types

A

R-3

917
Q

Rowhouse building from 1 to 3 storeys; each unit separate use as single family dwellings

A

Basic R-3

918
Q

Medium-rise multi-level building from 6 to 12 storeys and for use as multiple family dwellings

A

Maximum R-3

919
Q

Medium to high density residential use or occupancy; low-rise townhouse for multiple family dwellings; on an individual lot

A

R-4

920
Q

Very high density residential use or occupancy; medium-rise or high-rise condo for exclusive use as multiple family dwellings

A

R-5

921
Q

Physical development; renovation, rehabilitation, retrofit, upgrading, expansion and/or new construction

A

Redevelopment

922
Q

Reconstruction or renewal

A

Repair

923
Q

RROW

A

Road right of way

924
Q

A kind or public open space for the continuous flow of pedestrian and vehicular traffic that must be free of all forms of prohibited physical obstructions

A

RROW or Access street or street

925
Q

Portion of RROW on which motor vehicles are allowed to pass

A

Roadway/ carriageway

926
Q

Sign installed on roofs or roof decks

A

Roof sign

927
Q

Burial place solidly built of stone or concrete

A

Sepulcher

928
Q

Horizontal distance measured 90 degrees from the outermost surface of building to property line

A

Setback

929
Q

Vertical opening for elevators, dumbwaiter, mechanical equipment or similar purpose

A

Shaft

930
Q

Store window where goods are displayed

A

Show window

931
Q

Assembly made of incombustible material installed on openings and exhaust ducts to prevent spread of fire

A

Shutter

932
Q

Portion of RROW for exclusive use of pedestrians and disabled who are in transit

A

Sidewalk

933
Q

Line of view from any fixed or moving station point

A

Sight line

934
Q

Any movable structure on which a sign is mounted or supported

A

Sign stand

935
Q

Blighted area; eyesore; area where values of real estate tend to deteriorate

A

Slum

936
Q

Wall between bottom of windowsill and ground

A

Masonry, socalo

937
Q

Underside of beam, lintel or reveal

A

Soffit

938
Q

Any structure designed for the enclosure, shelter or protection of any horse, carabao or other cattle

A

Stable

939
Q

Partially enclosed portion designed or used for the presentation of plays, demos or other entertainment

A

Stage

940
Q

Two or more risers constitute this

A

Stairway

941
Q

Stairway serving one tenant only

A

Private stairway

942
Q

Portion of building included between upper surface of any floor and the upper surface of the floor next above

A

Storey

943
Q

Framing system with columns, girders, beams, trusses, and spandrels

A

Structural frame

944
Q

Any portion of building above the first floor projecting over sidewalk beyond the first store wall and used as protection for pedestrian

A

Structure over arcade

945
Q

Vertical supports as used in indigenous or traditional construction

A

Suportales

946
Q

Sign of cloth or other light and/or combustible material

A

Temporary sign

947
Q

Above ground sepulcher without roof or canopy

A

Tomb

948
Q

Total open space required for each type of use or occupancy for a given lot

A

Total Open Space Within Lot (TOSL)

949
Q

Fully enclosed component between podium component and roof of building

A

Tower

950
Q

Cable made up of electric conductors which provides electrical connection between an elevator or dumbwaiter car and a fixed outlet in hoistway

A

Travelling cable

951
Q

Portion of lot that shall remain unpaved and reserved for softscaping/planting

A

Unpaved surface area (USA)

952
Q

For safekeeping or storage of valuable

A

Vault

953
Q

Non-structural facing attached to a backing; may be adhered, integrated or anchored

A

Veneer

954
Q

Permitted minimal opening along a specified vertical portion of firewall that shall not be more than 3 mts in clear width and a minimum depth of 1.5 mts

A

Vent well

955
Q

Process of supplying or removing air

A

Ventilation

956
Q

Stairs, fire escapes, elevator shafts, pipe shafts, vertical shafts, vertical ducts and the like and their enclosing walls

A

Vertical penetrations

957
Q

Wall that supports any load other than its own weight

A

Bearing wall

958
Q

Enclosing walls of an iron or steel framework or the nonbearing portion of an enclosing wall between piers

A

Curtain wall

959
Q

Wall without openings

A

Dead wall

960
Q

Portion of an enclosing wall below the first tier of floor joists

A

Foundation wall

961
Q

Wall which supports no load other than its own weight

A

Nonbearing wall

962
Q

Part or any wall entirely above roofline

A

Parapet wall

963
Q

Wall separating two or more buildings and used in common

A

Party wall

964
Q

Any wall used to resist the lateral displacement of any material; resist lateral pressure of internal loads

A

Retaining wall

965
Q

Opening through a wall to the outside air to admit natural light and air

A

Window

966
Q

Projecting window carried on brackets or corbels

A

Oriel window

967
Q

Oriel window projecting over street line

A

Bay window

968
Q

Vacant space left in a lot between building and property line

A

Yar or patio

969
Q

Process of treating air

A

Air conditioning

970
Q

Global society founded in 1894, advancing human well-being through sustainable technology for built environment

A

American Society of Heating, Refrigerating and Air-Conditioning Engineers (ASHRAE)

971
Q

Diagnosable illness attributed to a specific pollutant source within a building

A

Building Related Illness (BRI)

972
Q

Refers to any significant change in measures of climate

A

Climate change

973
Q

Lead policy-making body tasked to coordinate, monitor and evaluate programs and action plans on climate change

A

Climate Change Commission (CCC)

974
Q

Area substantially illuminated by daylight

A

Daylight zone

975
Q

Unit composed of a group of parts or components which make up a closure for an opening to control passageway through a wall

A

Door assembly

976
Q

Energy efficiency rating for room air conditioners that lists how many Btu per hour are used for each watt of power it draws

A

Energy Efficiency Ratio (EER)

977
Q

An energy recovery device that transfers outgoing temperature and humidity to the incoming outdoor air

A

Enthalpy Recovery Wheel

978
Q

Secondhand smoke with airborne particles emitted from the burning end of cigarettes, pipes and cigars exhaled by smokers containing about 4000 compounds up to 50 of which are known to cause cancer

A

Environmental Tobacco Smoke (ETS)

979
Q

National authority in the PH that sets air and water quality standards and monitors ambient and point source pollutants

A

Environmental Management Bureau (EMB)

980
Q

Increased heating in equipment and conductors

A

Harmonics

981
Q

Describes built-up areas that are hotter than nearby rural areas

A

Heat Island Effect (HIE)

982
Q

System that helps maintain good indoor air quality through adequate ventilation with filtration and provide thermal comfort

A

Heating, Ventilating and Air Conditioning (HVAC)

983
Q

A non-profit learned society whose mission is to improve the lighted environment by bringing together those with lighting knowledge and translating that knowledge into actions that would benefit the public

A

Illuminating Engineering Society of North America (IESNA)

984
Q

Conditions inside the building that includes air quality, access to daylight and views, pleasant acoustic conditions and occupant control over lighting and thermal comfort

A

Indoor Environmental Quality (IEQ)

985
Q

Raised structure running along the ridge of a double-pitched roof with its own roof running parallel with the main roof

A

Light Monitor

986
Q

South-facing skylight that uses tilted panels of transparent glass to strategically bring daylight into an interior space

A

Light scoop

987
Q

Horizontal surface that reflects daylight deep into building, placed above eye-level with high-reflectance upper surfaces which reflect daylight onto the ceiling and deeper into the space

A

Light shelf

988
Q

Amount of electric lighting used to illuminate a given space; watts per square foot

A

Light Power Density (LPD)

989
Q

Facility designed to receive, sort, process and store compostable and recyclable materials efficiently and in an environmentally sound manner

A

Material Recovery Facility (MRF)

990
Q

Data providing procedures for handling or working with a material or product in a safe manner

A

Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS)

991
Q

Not able to be processed or treated for reuse in some form

A

Non-recyclable waste

992
Q

Window unit with one or more sections that can be opened for ventilation

A

Operable Window

993
Q

Measure of energy consumption of a building envelope

A

Overall Thermal Transfer Value (OTTV)

994
Q

Air containing at least the minimum volume of outside air filtered and conditioned to the required temperature and humidity

A

Outside Supply Air (OSA)

995
Q

Resistance value or the capacity to resist heat loss or its thermal resistance

A

R-value

996
Q

Item or material capable of being used again

A

Recyclable waste

997
Q

Energy efficiency rating for central air conditioners

A

Seasonal Energy Efficiency Ratio (SEER)

998
Q

Industrial structure designed to remove biological or chemical waste products from water

A

Sewage Treatment Plant (STP)

999
Q

Fraction of solar gain admitted through a window expressed as a number between 0 and 1

A

Solar Heat Gain Coefficient (SHGC)

1000
Q

Measure of material’s ability to reflect heat with white or light colors having high reflectance and dark or black surfaces

A

Solar Reflectance Index (SRI)

1001
Q

A class of waste that has unique regulatory requirements that needs to be managed to minimize the risk of harm to the environment and human health

A

Special waste

1002
Q

Feature of a building used as external shading devices which reduces heat gain by deflecting solar rays to reduce energy cooling loads

A

Sun breaker

1003
Q

Substances that may cause harm to an individual if it enters the body through inhalation, skin contactor ingestion

A

Toxic materials

1004
Q

Describes how well a building element conducts heat, measuring rate of heat transfer under standardized conditions

A

U-value

1005
Q

Process of supplying or removing air by natural or mechanical means

A

Ventilation

1006
Q

Organic chemicals with high vapor pressure at ordinary room temperature that are dangerous to human health or cause harm to the environment

A

Volatile Organic Compound (VOC)

1007
Q

Narrow piece of material installed around doors and windows to protect an interior from external extremes in temperature

A

Weather-stripping

1008
Q

Human precedence could not foresee or prevent

A

Act of God or Force Majeure

1009
Q

Written additional information, provision and/or other documents issued by client prior to the closing date for the receipt of bids

A

Addendum

1010
Q

Period of time allowed the contractor by the client in addition to the stipulated contract period necessitated by a duly issued extra work or change order

A

Additional contract time

1011
Q

Notice published by the owner or invitation issued to prospective bidders

A

Advertisement or Invitation to bid

1012
Q

Contract between the owner and the contractor undertaking the project

A

Agreement

1013
Q

Written modification to a contract or purchase order or other agreements

A

Amendment

1014
Q

Binding resolution of disputes by one or more natural person as a substitute for judicial proceedings

A

Arbitration

1015
Q

Person authorized to act for or in behalf of another person or organization to the extent prescribed in a written instrument known as a power of attorney

A

Attorney-in-fact

1016
Q

What does BAC stand for?

A

Bids and Awards Committee

1017
Q

Medium used for gauging and controlling construction activities

A

Bar chart

1018
Q

Written offer of bidder/tenderer in response to invitation to bid and tender documents

A

Bid/Tender

1019
Q

Any acceptable form of bond accompanying the bid submitted by the bidder as a guarantee that the bidder will enter into the contract with the owner if the contract is awarded to him

A

Bid bond

1020
Q

Additional information on contract documents issued to bidders before date of bidding

A

Bid bulletin

1021
Q

Stage in a bidding process where he received bid-envelopes are opened and examined by the advertiser

A

Bid opening

1022
Q

Sum stated in the bid

A

Bid price

1023
Q

Occurs when suppliers communicate with each other before lodging their bids and agree among themselves who will be the successful bidder and at what price

A

Bid rigging

1024
Q

Deposit submitted with a bid to guarantee to the owner that the bidder, if awarded the contract, will execute the contract

A

Bid security

1025
Q

All documents provided or made available to prospective bidders

A

Bid/ Tender Documents

1026
Q

Contract under which a vendor agrees to provide goods or services on a purchase-on-demand basis

A

Blanket order

1027
Q

Cash payment for purchases on delivery

A

Cash on delivery (COD)

1028
Q

Specifications stipulating the use of specific products or processes without provision for substitution

A

Closed specification

1029
Q

Written order to the contractor issued by the owner after the execution of the contractor, authorizing a change or variation in the work or adjustment in the contract price or contract time

A

Change order

1030
Q

Final stage of a project involving all administrative, legal and financial processes needed to bring the contract to an end

A

Close-out

1031
Q

Contract in which a party is retained by the owner to coordinate and administer contracts for construction services for the benefit of the owner

A

Construction Management Contract

1032
Q

Advice or assistance of purely advisory nature

A

Consulting Services

1033
Q

Amount of credit extended the contractor by a bank or other financing institution to cover projected expenditures for out-of-pocket equipment rentals, materials, fuel, labor and overhead expenses of the project construction, in the amount prescribed by the client

A

Credit line

1034
Q

Agreement by which owner of a credit transfers his credit and its accessory right to another who acquires the power to enforce it to the same extent as the assignor, duly approved by the client

A

Deed of assignment

1035
Q

Report or product that must be delivered to an agency by the contractor

A

Deliverable

1036
Q

To purchase and/or fabricate and deliver to the job site or other location when so designated

A

Furnish

1037
Q

Prime contractor responsible for most work

A

General Contractor

1038
Q

Bond furnished by the contractor and his surety as a guaranty to the quality of materials and equipment installed and workmanship

A

Guarantee bond

1039
Q

Any costs associated with physical construction and any equipment that is fixed

A

Hard costs

1040
Q

Provision in a contract under which one party or both commit to compensate the other or each other for any harm, liability or loss arising out of the contract

A

Indemnity clause

1041
Q

All costs that do not become a final part of installation but are required for the orderly completion of the installation

A

Indirect cost

1042
Q

To build in, mount in positions, connect or apply any object-specified ready for intended use

A

Install

1043
Q

Member of designer’s staff responsible for preparation of drawings and coordination with other documents

A

Job Captain

1044
Q

Deficiency or imperfection that impairs worth or utility that can’t be readily detected from visual examination

A

Latent defect

1045
Q

Right enforceable against specific property to secure payment of an obligation

A

Lien

1046
Q

Procurement evaluation technique which determines total cost of acquisition, operation, maintaining and disposal of items acquired

A

Life cycle costing

1047
Q

Price of an article published in a catalog, advertisement or printed list

A

List price

1048
Q

Fixed price paid to contractor for completion of defined scope of work

A

Lump sum

1049
Q

Price after all discounts, rebates etc.

A

Net price

1050
Q

Written notice to contractor of the date on which he is to begin the prosecution of works he has constructed

A

Notice to proceed

1051
Q

Person or firm ordering the project for execution

A

Owner

1052
Q

Approved form of security furnished by contractor and his surety as guarantee of good faith to comply with contract

A

Payment bond

1053
Q

A contract provision setting forth damages a party must pay in event of his breach

A

Penalty clause

1054
Q

Means “by the day”

A

Per diem

1055
Q

Evaluation of potential bidders before tenders are invited

A

Pre-qualification

1056
Q

Chart prepared by contractor, weekly, monthly etc., principal professional and non-professional disciplines of project are tabulated vertically and scheduled work time horizontally

A

Progress chart

1057
Q

Manual prepared for a project including bidding requirements, conditions of contract and technical specifications

A

Project manual

1058
Q

Signed written acceptance of the offer from the vendor

A

Purchase order

1059
Q

Internal document issued and sent to purchasing department containing details of required materials

A

Requisition

1060
Q

Difference between scheduled and actual accomplishment per approved PERT/CPM and approved revisions therefore; indicated in percentage

A

Slippage

1061
Q

Cost for an item not considered direct construction cost; includes architectural, engineering, financing and legal fees and other pre- and post- construction expenses

A

Soft costs

1062
Q

One who merely furnishes the material without labor

A

Supplier

1063
Q

Person, firm or corporation which issues the bond required of the contractor

A

Surety party

1064
Q

Organized effort directed at analyzing the function of systems, products, specifications, standards, practices and procedures to satisfy the required function at lowest total cost

A

Value analysis

1065
Q

The representation that a certain fact regarding the subject matter of a contract is presently true or will be true

A

Warranty

1066
Q

Contract or promise of one person to answer for the performance of another person

A

Guarantee

1067
Q

Written order from customer that informs contractor of the tasks required to be undertaken and authorizes commencement of work

A

Work Order

1068
Q

Information, advice or notification pertinent to the project

A

Written Notice

1069
Q

Material or substance which when left exposed to nature, will decompose without harmful effects to the environment

A

Biodegradable

1070
Q

Group of volatile gases believed to deplete ozone layer of the Earth’s stratosphere; discontinued from use as refrigerants and as blowing agents used to make foam

A

Chlorofluorocarbons (CFC)

1071
Q

Products and systems that use less energy to perform as well or better than standard products

A

Energy-efficient

1072
Q

Refers to the degree to which a product may harm the environment

A

Environmentally friendly

1073
Q

Interdisciplinary field focused on interplay between humans and their surroundings

A

Environmental psychology

1074
Q

Product or service that has lesser or reduced impact on human health and environment

A

Environmentally preferable product (EPP)

1075
Q

Wastewater from sinks, showers and laundry that can be collected for reuse

A

Gray water

1076
Q

By-products of society with physical, chemical or infectious characteristics that pose hazards to environment and human health

A

Hazardous waste

1077
Q

Buildings with design features that conserve water and energy, use space, materials and resources efficiently; minimize construction waste and create healthy indoor environments

A

High-performance green building

1078
Q

What does LEED stand for?

A

Leadership in Energy and Environmental Design

1079
Q

Comprehensive examination of a product’s environmental and economic effects throughout its lifetime

A

Life-cycle assessment

1080
Q

Ability of product or material to be recovered or otherwise diverted from solid waste stream for recycling

A

Recyclability

1081
Q

Series of activities including collection, separation and processing by which products or materials are recovered from solid waste stream for use in form of raw materials

A

Recycling

1082
Q

Energy harvested from sources that are not depleted when used; very low environmental impact

A

Renewable energy

1083
Q

Recycling concept by which an existing product can have its useful life extended through a secondary manufacturing or refurbishing process

A

Remanufacturing

1084
Q

Appropriate combination of temperatures, air flow and humidity which allows one to be comfortable within the confines

A

Thermal comfort

1085
Q

Indoor air pollutants or chemical compounds

A

Volatile organic compound (VOC)

1086
Q

Process to reduce or eliminate the amount of waste generated at its source or to reduce amount of toxicity from waste or reuse of materials

A

Waste reduction

1087
Q

Water that has been contaminated and used

A

Waste waster